Passage: What climate change will undeniably do is cause or amplify events that hasten the reduction of resources. Competition over these diminishing resources would ensue in the form of political or even violent conflict. Resource-based conflicts have rarely been overt and are thus difficult to isolate. Instead they take on veneers that appear more politically palatable. Conflicts over resources like water are often cloaked in the guise of identity or ideology.
What does the above passage imply?
- Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated
- There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts
- Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflict
- Political conflict based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved
Explanation: The passage states that climate change reduces resources, leading to competition and conflict. It notes that resource conflicts are often hidden behind political, identity, or ideological veneers, which supports the inference that environmental issues contribute to both resource stresses and political conflict.
Passage: The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his resolution to be changed by the first counter-suggestion of a friend— who fluctuates from opinion to opinion and veers from plan to plan— can never accomplish anything. He will at best be stationary and probably retrograde in all. It is only the man who first consults wisely, then resolves firmly and then executes his purpose with inflexible perseverance, undismayed by those petty difficulties which daunt a weaker spirit—that can advance to eminence in any line.
The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that
- We should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly
- We should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged
- We should always remain broad-minded
- We should be resolute and achievement-oriented
Explanation: The passage criticizes hesitation and fluctuation, and praises firm resolution combined with inflexible perseverance to achieve eminence. The central message emphasizes being resolute and focused on achievement rather than dwelling on indecision.
Passage: During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea ice has been melting earlier and faster, and the winter freeze has been coming later. In the last three decades, the extent of summer ice has declined by about 30 per cent. The lengthening period of summer melt threatens to undermine the whole Arctic food web, atop which stand polar bears.
Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
- Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short but temperature to be high
- Polar bears can be shifted to South Pole to ensure their survival
- Without the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic region will disappear
- Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears
Explanation: The passage describes how melting sea ice and lengthening summer melt periods threaten the Arctic food web, with polar bears at the top. The most crucial message is that climate change threatens polar bear survival, not that summers are short or that polar bears can be relocated.
Passage: Why do people prefer open defecation and not want toilets or, if they have them, only use them sometimes? Recent research has shown two critical elements: ideas of purity and pollution, and not wanting pits or septic tanks to fill because they have to be emptied. These are the issues that nobody wants to talk about, but if we want to eradicate the practice of open defecation, they have to be confronted and dealt properly.
Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
- The ideas of purity and pollution are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people
- People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting
- People cannot change their old habits
- People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy
Explanation: The passage identifies ideas of purity and pollution as barriers to toilet use, and emphasizes that these issues must be confronted to eradicate open defecation. This implies that people need to change their perception and see toilet use and pit-emptying as acceptable and clean.
Passage: In the last two decades, the world's gross domestic product (GDP) has increased by 50 percent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased by a mere 6 percent. In recent decades, GDP-driven economic performance has only harmed inclusive wealth like human capital; and natural capital like forests, land and water. While the world's human capital which stands at 57 percent of total inclusive wealth grew by only 8 percent, the natural capital which is 23 percent of total inclusive wealth declined by 30 percent worldwide in the last two decades.
Which of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage?
- More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital
- The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable
- The economic performance of the countries of the world is not satisfactory
- The world needs more human capital under the present circumstances
Explanation: The passage contrasts a 50% GDP growth with only 6% inclusive wealth growth, and notes that natural capital declined by 30% while human capital grew only 8%. This indicates that GDP-driven growth harms overall inclusive wealth and is therefore neither desirable nor sustainable.
Passage: By 2020, when the global economy is expected to run short of 56 million young people, India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fill the gap. It is in this context that labour reforms are often cited as the way to unlock double-digit growth in India. In 2014, India's labour force was estimated to be about 40 per cent of the population, but 93 percent of this force was in unorganized sector. Over the last decade, the compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of employment has slowed to 0.5 percent, with about 14 million jobs created during last year when the labour force increased by about 15 million.
Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?
- India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate
- Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force productively
- India is poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon
- India is capable of supplying the skilled young people to other countries
Explanation: The passage notes India's youth surplus and cites labour reforms as the way to unlock double-digit growth, while highlighting that 93% of the labour force is in the unorganized sector and employment growth is slowing. This supports the inference that labour reforms are needed for productive utilization of the labour force.
Passage: The very first lesson that should be taught to us when we are old enough to understand it, is that complete freedom from the obligation to work is unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as we can escape our share of the burden of work only by throwing it on someone else's shoulders. Nature ordains that the human race shall perish of famine if it stops working. We cannot escape from this tyranny. The question we have to settle is how much leisure we can afford to allow ourselves.
The main idea of the passage is that
- it is essential for human beings to work
- there should be a balance between work and leisure
- working is a tyranny which we have to face
- human's understanding of the nature of work is essential
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that freedom from work is unnatural, that nature ordains humans must work to avoid famine, and that work is an inescapable obligation. While leisure is mentioned, the main idea is the essential nature of work for human survival.
Passage: There is no harm in cultivating habits so long as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are little more than bundle of habits. Take away our habits and the residuum could not get on without them. They simplify the mechanism of life. They enable us to do a multitude of things automatically, which, if we had to give fresh and original thought to them each time, would make existence an impossible confusion.
The author suggests that habits
- tend to make our lives difficult
- add precision to our lives
- make it easier for us to live
- tend to mechanize our lives
Explanation: The passage states that habits simplify life's mechanism and enable automatic performance of tasks, preventing existence from becoming an impossible confusion. This directly supports that habits make life easier.
Passage: No supporters of 'party X', who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the alliance with 'party Y'; but some of them had friends in 'party Y'.
With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true?
- Some supporters of 'party Y' did not agree for the alliance with the 'party X'
- There is at least one supporter of 'party Y' who knew some supporters of 'party X' as a friend
- No supporters of 'party X' supported Z's campaign strategy
- No supporters of 'party X' knew Z
Explanation: The passage states that some supporters of party X had friends in party Y. If a supporter of party X has a friend in party Y, then by definition there is at least one supporter of party Y who is friends with a supporter of party X.
Passage: No supporters of 'party X', who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the alliance with 'party Y'; but some of them had friends in 'party Y'.
With reference to the above information, consider the following statements: 1. Some supporters of 'party X' knew Z. 2. Some supporters of 'party X', who opposed Z's campaign strategy, knew Z. 3. No supporters of 'party X' supported Z's campaign strategy. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage mentions supporters of party X who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, so the statement that some knew Z is correct, and the statement that none supported his strategy is incorrect. The statement about supporters who opposed his strategy knowing Z is unsupported and therefore not correct.
If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?
Explanation: A month has at least 28 days, which equals exactly 4 weeks. This gives 4 Sundays and 4 Saturdays. With the second and fourth Saturdays as holidays, there are 6 holidays total, leaving 22 working days. Even in a 29-day month starting on Sunday, there are 5 Sundays and 4 Saturdays, yielding 7 holidays and 22 working days. No month can have fewer than 22 working days under these rules.
If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from one place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there is no further growth in the population during this period?
- 16/243rd part of the population
- 32/243rd part of the population
- 32/729th part of the population
- 64/729th part of the population
Explanation: Each year, 1/3 of the population migrates, so 2/3 remains. After six years, the remaining fraction is (2/3)^6 = 64/729.
Four tests — Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after two tests are held. Which is the last test held?
- Physics
- Biology
- Mathematics
- Chemistry
Explanation: Since Chemistry is conducted after exactly two tests, it must be on day 3. The condition that Physics is held before the test conducted after Biology means Biology cannot be last. Testing the valid arrangements places Biology on day 1 or 2, Physics on day 1 or 2, Chemistry on day 3, and Mathematics consistently on day 4 as the last test.
The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. Whose income is the highest?
Explanation: From the equations A + C = B + D and 2A = B + D, substituting gives C = A. Using A + B > C + D and substituting C = A yields B > D. Since B + D = 2A and B > D, it follows that B > A = C > D. Therefore, B has the highest income.
Consider the following: Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music. Conclusions: I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care. II. Even though one's voice is not good, one can keep practising. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement and conclusions?
- Only conclusion I follows from the statement
- Only conclusion II follows from the statement
- Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows from the statement
- Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement
Explanation: The statement says good voice is a natural gift but requires practice to improve, which supports the conclusion that natural gifts need nurturing. It does not address whether poor voice can be improved through practice, so the second conclusion does not follow.
There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down 1 cm. B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but slips down 2 cm. If each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of the shortest pillar?
- 161 cm
- 163 cm
- 182 cm
- 210 cm
Explanation: For spider B on pillar Y, the net gain per chance is 4 cm. In 39 chances, B gains 156 cm, and on the 40th chance B climbs 7 cm to reach the top, giving a total height of 163 cm. For A, the height is 201 cm, and for C, it is 182 cm. Thus, the shortest pillar is Y at 163 cm.
'Rights are certain advantageous conditions of social well-being indispensable to the true development of the citizen.' In the light of this statement, which one of the following is the correct understanding of rights?
- Rights aim at individual good only
- Rights aim at social good only
- Rights aim at both individual and social good
- Rights aim at individual good devoid of social well-being
Explanation: The statement describes rights as conditions of social well-being that are indispensable to the true development of the citizen. This indicates rights serve both social well-being and individual development.
15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is his position from the bottom?
Explanation: The number of students who passed is 52 - 15 = 37. If Ramesh is 22nd from the top, his position from the bottom is 37 - 22 + 1 = 16th.
Consider the following: A + B means A is the son of B. A – B means A is the wife of B. What does the expression P + R – Q mean?
- Q is the son of P
- Q is the wife of P
- Q is the father of P
- None of the above
Explanation: P + R means P is the son of R. R - Q means R is the wife of Q, so Q is the husband of R. Since P is the son of R, P is also the son of Q, making Q the father of P.
Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal's position if he agreed?
- Neither loss nor gain
- Loss 1%
- Gain 1%
- Gain 0.5%
Explanation: Assuming an original cost price of 100, Gopal sells at 110. Ram sells back at 10% loss on 110, which is 99. Gopal thus reacquires the phone at 99, which is 1% below the original cost price of 100, resulting in a net gain of 1%.
Passage: We have hard work ahead. There is no resting for any of us till we redeem our pledge in full, till we make all the people of India what destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of a great country, on the verge of bold advance, and we have to live up to that high standard. All of us, to whatever religion we may belong, are equally the children of India with equal rights, privileges and obligations. We cannot encourage communalism or narrow mindedness, for no nation can be great whose people are narrow in thought or action.
The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve
- a high standard of living, progress and privileges
- equal privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance
- spirit of adventure and economic parity
- hard work, brotherhood and national unity
Explanation: The passage emphasizes hard work, equal rights for all religions, and living up to high standards as citizens of a great country, while rejecting communalism and narrow-mindedness. This corresponds to hard work, brotherhood, and national unity.
Passage: The individual, according to Rousseau, puts his person and all his power in common under the supreme direction of the General Will and in our corporate capacity we receive each member as an indivisible part of the whole.
In the light of the above passage, the nature of General Will is best described as
- the sum total of the private wills of the individuals
- what is articulated by the elected representatives of the individuals
- the collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals
- the material interests of the community
Explanation: Rousseau describes individuals subordinating themselves to the General Will, which acts as the supreme direction for the whole. This indicates the General Will represents the collective good rather than merely the sum of private wills.
Passage: In a democratic State, where a high degree of political maturity of the people obtains, the conflict between the will of the sovereign law-making body and the organized will of the people seldom occurs.
What does the above passage imply?
- In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty
- In a mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty
- In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty
- In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty
Explanation: The passage states that in a mature democracy, conflict between the sovereign and the people's will seldom occurs. This implies that force, which would be needed to resolve such conflicts, becomes rarely necessary and thus marginal.
Passage: A successful democracy depends upon widespread interest and participation in politics, in which voting is an essential part. To deliberately refrain from taking such an interest, and from voting, is a kind of implied anarchy; it is to refuse one's political responsibility while enjoying the benefits of a free political society.
This passage relates to
- duty to vote
- right to vote
- freedom to vote
- right to participate in politics
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that refraining from voting is refusing political responsibility while enjoying benefits, framing voting as an obligation rather than merely a right or freedom.
Passage: In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of outstanding character and ability. Moreover, it is usually possible to foresee that he will reach such a position, since early in life one can see his qualities of character. But this is not always true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches his position of power through chance, very often through the unhappy state of his country.
The passage seems to suggest that
- a leader foresees his future position
- a leader is chosen only by a free country
- a leader must see that his country is free from despair
- despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship
Explanation: The passage contrasts leaders in free countries with dictators, noting that dictators often rise through chance and the unhappy state of their country. This suggests that national despair or unhappiness can create conditions for dictatorship.
Passage: The greatest blessing that technological progress has in store for mankind is not, of course, an accumulation of material possessions. The amount of these that can be effectively enjoyed by one individual in one lifetime is not great. But there is not the same narrow limit to the possibilities of the enjoyment of leisure. The gift of leisure may be abused by people who have had no experience of making use of it. Yet the creative use of leisure by a minority in societies has been the mainspring of all human progress beyond the primitive level.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more material possessions. 2. Use of leisure by some people to produce new and original things has been the chief source of human progress. Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage states that the creative use of leisure by a minority has been the mainspring of human progress, validating the second assumption. However, it says leisure may be abused and does not claim people always use it for material possessions, making the first assumption invalid.
Passage: There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that 'a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events'. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying particularly the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire to leadership. Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win—and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. And the student will see that the same pattern recurs consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. A study of the famous battles of history would help us understand the modern warfare. 2. Studying the history is essential for anyone who aspires to be a leader. Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage recommends studying famous battles for lessons in leadership, supporting the second assumption. However, it focuses on leadership lessons rather than understanding modern warfare, so the first assumption is not valid.
Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of the 5th person will be
- 45 kg
- 47.5 kg
- 50 kg
- 52.5 kg
Explanation: The total weight of 9 persons is 9 * 50 = 450 kg. The total weight of the first 5 persons is 5 * 45 = 225 kg. The total weight of the last 5 persons is 5 * 55 = 275 kg. Since the 5th person is counted in both groups, their weight is 225 + 275 - 450 = 50 kg.
In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are among the tennis players. Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgraduate in Commerce, who among the following is both a tennis player and a bank employee?
- Amala
- Komala
- Nirmala
- Shyamala
Explanation: Amala and Komala are unemployed, so they cannot be bank employees. The four sociology postgraduates are Amala, Kamla, Komala, and Nirmala, of whom two are bank employees. Since Amala and Komala are unemployed, Kamla and Nirmala must be the bank employees among the sociologists. Combined with Vimala, the three bank employees are Vimala, Kamla, and Nirmala. Komala and Nirmala are tennis players, and since Nirmala is a bank employee, she is both a tennis player and a bank employee.
P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?
- P is greater than Q
- Q is greater than P
- P is equal to Q
- None of the above can be concluded with certainty
Explanation: The difference P - Q equals 0.15B - 0.1A, or 0.05(3B - 2A). Since A is greater than B, the sign of this expression depends on the specific values. For example, if A = 100 and B = 60, then Q is greater than P, but if A = 100 and B = 80, then P is greater than Q. Therefore, no definite relationship can be established.
A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2 minutes in every 24 hours. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of the following statements is correct if 24 hour clock is followed?
- The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days
- The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 90 days
- The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 120 days
- None of the above statements is correct
Explanation: The first watch loses 2 minutes per day and the second gains 2 minutes per day, creating a relative difference of 4 minutes per day. For the watches to show identical time on a 24-hour clock, they must differ by exactly 24 hours, which equals 1440 minutes. The required number of days is 1440 divided by 4, which equals 360 days. Since none of the provided options mention 360 days, none of the statements are correct.
In a city, 12% of households earn less than Rs. 30,000 per year, 6% households earn more than Rs. 2,00,000 per year, 22% households earn more than Rs. 1,00,000 per year and 990 households earn between Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 per year. How many households earn between Rs. 1,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000 per year?
Explanation: Households earning more than Rs. 1,00,000 comprise 22% of the total, which includes the 6% earning more than Rs. 2,00,000. Therefore, the percentage earning between Rs. 1,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000 is 22% minus 6%, which equals 16%. Households earning less than Rs. 30,000 are 12%, and those earning more than Rs. 1,00,000 are 22%, leaving 66% earning between Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 1,00,000. Since 66% corresponds to 990 households, the total number of households is 990 divided by 0.66, which equals 1500. The number of households earning between Rs. 1,00,000 and Rs. 2,00,000 is 16% of 1500, which equals 240.
A clock strikes once at 1 o'clock, twice at 2 o'clock and thrice at 3 o'clock, and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o'clock, what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 o'clock?
- 20 seconds
- 24 seconds
- 27 seconds
- 30 seconds
Explanation: At 5 o'clock, the clock strikes 5 times, creating 4 intervals between successive strikes. If 4 intervals take 12 seconds, each interval lasts 3 seconds. At 10 o'clock, the clock strikes 10 times, creating 9 intervals. Therefore, the total time taken is 9 multiplied by 3, which equals 27 seconds.
Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow: Statement: Morning walk is good for health. Conclusions: 1. All healthy people go for morning walk. 2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health. What is/are the valid conclusion/conclusions?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The statement that morning walk is good for health does not imply that all healthy people engage in it, nor does it establish that morning walk is essential for good health. The first conclusion commits the fallacy of affirming the consequent, and the second introduces a necessity that is not present in the original statement. Therefore, neither conclusion follows.
There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?
Explanation: For five consecutive odd numbers with a mean of 39, the middle number is 39. Thus the first five numbers are 35, 37, 39, 41, and 43. Extending this sequence to thirteen consecutive odd numbers yields the full set from 35 to 59. The mean of thirteen consecutive odd numbers is the seventh number in the sequence, which is 47.
Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who passes on 1 to E. Then the number of cards possessed by D and E is equal to the number of cards possessed by
- A, B and C
- B, C and F
- A, B and F
- A, C and F
Explanation: Starting with 10 cards each, after all transactions the final counts are: A has 8, B has 7, C has 12, D has 15, E has 11, and F has 7. The combined total for D and E is 15 plus 11, which equals 26. The combined total for B, C, and F is 7 plus 12 plus 7, which also equals 26.
There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to
Explanation: Assume the original sample contains 3 units, with 1.5 units of water and 1.5 units of milk. One-third of this sample, which is 1 unit containing 0.5 units of water and 0.5 units of milk, is mixed with 1 unit of pure milk. The resulting mixture contains 0.5 units of water and 1.5 units of milk, for a total of 2 units. The percentage of water is 0.5 divided by 2, which equals 25%.
There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to one another on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed?
Explanation: Every rectangle is formed by selecting 2 horizontal lines from the 4 available and 2 vertical lines from the 4 available. The number of ways to choose 2 lines from 4 is 6. Therefore, the total number of rectangles is 6 multiplied by 6, which equals 36. This count includes all squares, since every square is a special type of rectangle.
A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?
- 480 km
- 260 km
- 240 km
- 120 km
Explanation: In the two hours before the express train departs, the freight train covers 80 kilometers. The relative speed of the express train with respect to the freight train is 60 minus 40, which equals 20 km/hr. The time required for the express train to close the 80-kilometer gap is 80 divided by 20, which equals 4 hours. The distance from Delhi at which they meet is the express train's speed multiplied by this time, which is 60 multiplied by 4, equaling 240 kilometers.
In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar. Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained highest marks?
- Randhir
- Neha
- Sonal
- Data are inadequate
Explanation: While the information establishes that Neha scored more than Randhir and that Sonal scored more than Shankar, there is no direct or indirect comparison provided between Sonal and Neha. Since either of them could potentially hold the highest score, the data are insufficient to determine who obtained the highest marks.
Passage: Disruption of traditional institutions, identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some people may renew their identification with traditional groups whereas others align themselves with new groups and symbols emergent from processes of political development. In addition, political development tends to foster group awareness of a variety of class, tribe, region, clan, language, religion, occupation and others.
Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?
- Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay
- Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development
- It is impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties
- Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development
Explanation: The passage describes how political development can simultaneously lead to new alignments and renewed traditional identifications, while also fostering multiple group awarenesses. This dual nature of simultaneous growth and decay indicates that political development is not a simple, unidirectional process.
Passage: There has been a significant trend worldwide towards regionalism in government, resulting in a widespread transfer of powers downwards towards regions and communities since 1990s. This process, which involves the creation of new political entities and bodies at a sub-national level and an increase in their content and powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has been characterized as being made up of three factors—political legitimacy, decentralization of authority and decentralization of resources. Political legitimacy here means a mass demand from below for the decentralization process, which is able to create a political force for it to take place. In many cases, decentralization is initiated by the upper tier of government without sufficient political mobilization for it at the grassroots level, and in such cases the decentralization process often does not fulfil its objectives.
Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
- Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus successful devolution decentralization
- The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralization on the regional communities by law or otherwise
- Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level
- For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential
Explanation: The passage emphasizes that political legitimacy, defined as mass demand from below, is essential for devolution. It explicitly notes that when decentralization is initiated by the upper tier without grassroots mobilization, it often fails. This strongly supports the inference that successful devolution requires grassroots participation and free expression of local will.
Passage: We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who we are, how we connect to the world around us, and the ways in which we define our domains of life, labour and language are hugely structured by the digital technologies. The digital is everywhere and, like air, invisible. We live within digital systems, we live with intimate gadgets, we interact through digital media, and the very presence and imagination of the digital has dramatically restructured our lives. The digital, far from being a tool, is a condition and context that defines the shapes and boundaries of our understanding of the self, the society, and the structure of governance.
Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage?
- All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies
- Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living
- Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media
- Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future
Explanation: The passage describes the digital as pervasive and invisible, structuring our perception of self, society, and governance. It characterizes the digital not merely as a tool but as a defining condition and context of life. This aligns most closely with the message that digital technologies are inseparable from our life and living.
Passage: The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of falling into `middle-income trap'. It means that average incomes in these countries, which till now have been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond a point—a point that is well short of incomes in the developed West. The IMF identifies a number of causes of middle-income trap—none of which is surprising— from infrastructure to weak institutions, to less macroeconomic conditions. overall cause, says IMF, is growth of productivity.
Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
- Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes
- Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast growing economies
- There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum
- As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory
Explanation: The passage defines the middle-income trap as a situation where average incomes stop growing before reaching developed-country levels, and identifies productivity-related factors as the underlying causes. This supports the inference that reaching the middle-income stage carries the risk of productivity stagnation, which in turn causes income stagnation.
Passage: An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R & D can mitigate increases in social inequality and relieve the pressures created by rapid urbanization. The growing divergence in productivity between agriculture and knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services threatens to increase income inequality. By encouraging India's R&D labs and universities to focus on the needs of poor people and by improving the ability of informal firms to absorb knowledge, an innovation and research agenda can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can lower the costs of goods and services and create income-earning opportunities for the poor people.
Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?
- Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration
- Every rapidly growing country needs to minimize the divergence between productivity in agriculture and other sectors
- Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society
- Rapid urbanization takes place only when a country's economic growth is rapid
Explanation: The passage argues that inclusive innovation and research can counter rising inequality, lower costs for the poor, and create income-earning opportunities. These effects collectively point toward reducing disparities and fostering a more egalitarian society, making this the most logical assumption.
Passage: Climate change is likely to expose a large number of people to increasing environmental risks forcing them to migrate. The international community is yet to recognize this new category of migrants. There is no consensus on the definition and status of climate refugees owing to the distinct meaning the term refugees carry under international laws. There are still gaps in understanding how climate change will work as the root cause of migration. Even if there is recognition of climate refugees, who is going to provide protection? More emphasis has been given to international migration due to climate change. But there is a need to recognize the migration of such people within the countries also so that their problems can be addressed properly.
Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?
- The world will not be able to cope with large-scale migration of climate refugees
- We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change
- Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future
- Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood
Explanation: The passage explicitly notes that there is no consensus on the definition of climate refugees, gaps remain in understanding how climate change acts as a root cause of migration, and the international community has yet to recognize this category of migrants. These points collectively indicate that the relationship between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood.
Passage: Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are reports that these compounds possess inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the farm operators, consumers and the environment. Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in environment. Entering in food chain they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted in development of resistance among insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest control using the botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the environment because they break down into harmless compounds within hours or days in the presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal properties have been in nature for millions of years without any ill or adverse effects on the ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by many microbes common in most soils. They help in the maintenance of biological diversity of predators and the reduction of environmental contamination and human health hazards. Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection is a practical sustainable alternative.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modern agriculture. 2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological imbalance. 3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage supports the second assumption by presenting botanical pesticides as a sustainable alternative that reduces ecological imbalance. However, the first assumption is too extreme because the passage criticizes synthetic pesticides but does not state they should never be used. The third assumption is unsupported because the passage compares safety and biodegradability, not effectiveness in pest control.
Passage: Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are reports that these compounds possess inherent toxicities that endanger the health of the farm operators, consumers and the environment. Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in environment. Entering in food chain they destroy the microbial diversity and cause ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has resulted in development of resistance among insects to insecticides, upsetting of balance in nature and resurgence of treated populations. Natural pest control using the botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the environment because they break down into harmless compounds within hours or days in the presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal properties have been in nature for millions of years without any ill or adverse effects on the ecosystem. They are easily decomposed by many microbes common in most soils. They help in the maintenance of biological diversity of predators and the reduction of environmental contamination and human health hazards. Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are biodegradable and their use in crop protection is a practical sustainable alternative.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides? 1. They are not hazardous to human health. 2. They are persistent in environment. 3. They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem.
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage states that botanical pesticides are safer to users and the environment, supporting the first statement. It also notes that they help maintain biological diversity, supporting the third statement. However, the passage explicitly says botanical pesticides break down into harmless compounds within hours or days, contradicting the second statement about persistence.
Certain 3-digit numbers have the following characteristics: 1. All the three digits are different. 2. The number is divisible by 7. 3. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7. How many such 3-digit numbers are there?
Explanation: The valid numbers satisfying all three conditions are 168, 259, 861, and 952. Each of these has distinct digits, and both the original number and its reversed form are divisible by 7. No other 3-digit numbers meet all the specified criteria, yielding a total of 4 such numbers.
Examine the following statements: 1. All colours are pleasant. 2. Some colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant. 4. Some colours are not pleasant. Given that statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?
- 1 and 2 are true
- 3 is true
- 2 is false
- 1 is false
Explanation: If some colours are not pleasant, then the universal affirmative claim that all colours are pleasant is directly contradicted. Therefore, the first statement is definitely false. The third statement cannot be definitely concluded because some colours not being pleasant does not preclude the possibility that some colours are pleasant. The second statement's truth value remains undetermined.
How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?
Explanation: Numbers between 99 and 1000 are 3-digit numbers. For the units digit to be 8, there are 9 possible choices for the hundreds digit (1 through 9) and 10 possible choices for the tens digit (0 through 9). Therefore, the total count is 9 multiplied by 10, which equals 90.
If for a sample data Mean < Median < Mode, then the distribution is
- symmetric
- skewed to the right
- neither symmetric nor skewed
- skewed to the left
Explanation: In a left-skewed distribution, the tail extends toward lower values, pulling the mean downward below the median, while the mode remains the highest of the three measures. The relationship Mean less than Median less than Mode is the classic indicator of negative skewness, also known as left skewness.
The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again?
Explanation: If last year's age was a perfect square and next year's age is a perfect cube, the only consecutive values satisfying this near the human lifespan are 25 (which is 5 squared) and 27 (which is 3 cubed). This makes his current age 26. The next perfect cube after 27 is 64. The waiting time from age 26 to age 64 is 64 minus 26, which equals 38 years.
P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings?
- 3 : 1 : 1
- 3 : 2 : 4
- 4 : 3 : 4
- 3 : 1 : 4
Explanation: Let Q's work rate be 1 unit per day. Then P's rate is 3 units per day, making their combined rate 4 units per day. Since P and Q together work four times as fast as R, R's rate is 1 unit per day. The ratio of their work rates, which determines earnings sharing, is P to Q to R equals 3 to 1 to 1.
Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F: 1. The number of males equals that of females. 2. A and E are sons of F. 3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl. 4. B is the son of A. 5. There is only one married couple in the family at present. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?
- A, B and C are all females
- A is the husband of D
- E and F are children of D
- D is the daughter of F
Explanation: Since A and E are sons of F, and B is the son of A, A must be an adult male. D is the mother of two children including one boy, and with only one married couple in the family, A must be married to D. This makes A the husband of D, while F is the mother of A and E. The gender balance is maintained with three males (A, B, E) and three females (F, D, and the daughter of A and D).
A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?
Explanation: In the worst-case scenario, one could draw all balls of the two most abundant colours before obtaining any from the third colour. The two largest groups are green with 8 balls and white with 7 balls, totaling 15 balls. The next ball drawn, which is the 16th, must be red, thereby guaranteeing at least one ball of each colour.
If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there?
Explanation: First arrange the 2 boys, which can be done in 2 factorial equals 2 ways. This creates 3 possible slots for the girls (before the first boy, between the boys, and after the second boy). Choosing 2 of these 3 slots for the girls gives 3 possibilities, and the 2 girls can be arranged in those slots in 2 factorial equals 2 ways. The total number of valid arrangements is 2 multiplied by 3 multiplied by 2, which equals 12.
The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces?
Explanation: The small cubes without any painted faces are those located entirely in the interior of the original cube, not touching any outer face. Removing one layer from each side of the 4 cm cube leaves a 2 cm by 2 cm by 2 cm inner cube. The number of interior small cubes is 2 cubed, which equals 8.
Consider the following: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. B is not neighbour of G. F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. G is not at the extreme end. A is sixth to the left of E. H is sixth to the right of C. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above?
- C is to the immediate left of A
- D is immediate neighbour of B and F
- G is to the immediate right of D
- A and E are at the extreme ends
Explanation: From the constraints, the valid arrangement from left to right is A, C, B, D, G, F, E, H. In this arrangement, G is positioned immediately to the right of D. The other options fail because C is to the right of A, D is not adjacent to F, and E is not at an extreme end.
In a certain code, '256' means 'red colour chalk', '589' means 'green colour flower' and '254' means 'white colour chalk'. The digit in the code that indicates 'white' is
Explanation: Comparing 256 and 254, the common digits are 2 and 5, and the common words are colour and chalk. Comparing 256 and 589, the common digit is 5 and the common word is colour, so 5 represents colour. This means 2 represents chalk. In 254, since 2 is chalk and 5 is colour, the remaining digit 4 must represent white.