Consider the following statements regarding Demographic vulnerability and population decline trends in PVTGs:
1. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched the Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission in the 2023-24 Union Budget to provide basic infrastructure and socio-economic support to these vulnerable communities.
2. According to the 2011 Census data, the Great Andamanese tribe recorded a population of fewer than 60 individuals, highlighting the demographic fragility of the PVTGs in the archipelago.
3. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are home to five PVTGs, including the Jarawas and the Sentinelese, who remain among the most isolated populations in the Indian Ocean region.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission was announced in the 2023-24 Union Budget with an outlay of Rs. 15,000 crore to saturate PVTG habitations with basic facilities. Statement 2 is correct because the 2011 Census confirmed the Great Andamanese population had dwindled to 53 individuals, underscoring their extreme demographic vulnerability. Statement 3 is correct as the Andaman and Nicobar Islands host five recognized PVTGs-the Great Andamanese, Jarawas, Onge, Sentinelese, and Shompen-who are characterized by their extreme isolation and primitive socio-economic traits.
Consider the following statements regarding Right of children to free and compulsory education until completion of elementary education:
1. Elementary education under the RTE Act encompasses the education of children from the age of six years to the age of fourteen years, covering classes I to VIII.
2. The Schedule to the RTE Act specifies the norms and standards for a school, including the pupil-teacher ratio of 30:1 for primary classes up to sixty students.
3. The RTE Act includes provisions for the School Management Committee to be composed of 75 percent parents, and it allows the committee to appoint teachers directly for government-aided institutions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the RTE Act, 2009 defines elementary education as education from class I to VIII for children aged 6 to 14 years. Statement 2 is correct because the Schedule to the Act mandates a pupil-teacher ratio of 30:1 for primary schools with up to 60 students. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the School Management Committee must consist of at least 75 percent parents, the Act does not empower these committees to appoint teachers; teacher recruitment remains the responsibility of the state government or local authority.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal challenges and judicial precedents regarding lateral entry:
1. As of 2024, the Union Public Service Commission has issued advertisements for lateral entry positions at the level of Joint Secretary, Director, and Deputy Secretary in various central ministries.
2. The 2017 NITI Aayog report titled 'Strategy for New India @ 75' proposed a quota system for lateral entrants, and the government implemented this by reserving 25 percent of Joint Secretary positions for non-career civil servants.
3. The UPSC conducts the selection process for lateral entrants based on the criteria defined in the Civil Services Examination Rules as amended by the government for specific lateral recruitment drives.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) requested the UPSC to initiate lateral recruitment for 45 posts at the Joint Secretary, Director, and Deputy Secretary levels in August 2024. Statement 3 is correct because the UPSC conducts these selections based on specific criteria and recruitment rules formulated by the government for lateral entry, distinct from the standard Civil Services Examination. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the NITI Aayog's 2017 report advocated for lateral entry to bring in domain expertise, the government has not implemented a 25 percent quota system for these positions, and recruitment remains based on specific departmental requirements rather than a fixed reservation policy.
Consider the following statements regarding Performance Appraisal Systems: From ACR to APAR and SPARROW:
1. Under the current APAR guidelines, the reporting officer is granted a period of 60 days to record their assessment, after which the report is automatically forwarded to the reviewing authority for final verification.
2. The implementation of the SPARROW system across all Central Ministries was completed in 2014, and it allows officers to submit their self-appraisal forms directly to the Cabinet Secretariat for final approval.
3. The APAR system incorporates a numerical grading scale from 1 to 10, where a score of 8.0 or above is categorized as 'Outstanding' and serves as the primary benchmark for empanelment at the Joint Secretary level.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the reporting officer is typically granted until June 30th to record their assessment, not a fixed 60-day window, and there is no automatic forwarding mechanism to the reviewing authority. Statement 2 is incorrect as SPARROW was launched in 2018 for IAS officers and later expanded, and self-appraisals are submitted to the Reporting Officer, not the Cabinet Secretariat. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the scale is 1-10, a score of 8.0-9.0 is 'Very Good' and 9.0-10.0 is 'Outstanding', and empanelment criteria involve a holistic assessment beyond just a single numerical score.
Consider the following statements regarding Integration of UMANG with the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM):
1. The UMANG mobile application was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in November 2017 to provide a unified platform for government services.
2. The integration of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission with UMANG enables users to generate their ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) number directly through the platform.
3. The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission was formally inaugurated by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2018, and it utilizes the UMANG platform to process all primary insurance claims.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as UMANG was launched in November 2017 by MeitY to provide a single mobile platform for e-governance services. Statement 2 is correct because the integration allows users to create and link their ABHA numbers directly within the UMANG app for seamless health record management. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) was launched in 2021, not 2018, and its primary objective is creating a digital health ecosystem rather than processing insurance claims.
Consider the following statements regarding Slum Rehabilitation Authority (SRA) mechanisms and land value capture:
1. Under the SRA scheme, the Floor Space Index (FSI) for rehabilitation projects is often granted up to 3.0 or the permissible limit as per the prevailing Development Control Regulations to incentivize private developers.
2. The Slum Rehabilitation Authority (SRA) in Maharashtra was established under the provisions of the Maharashtra Slum Areas (Improvement, Clearance and Redevelopment) Act, 1971.
3. The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) mission, launched in June 2015, incorporates the 'In-situ Slum Redevelopment' (ISSR) vertical using land as a resource for private sector participation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as high FSI (often 3.0 or more) is the primary incentive used to make slum redevelopment financially viable for private developers by allowing them to build extra saleable area. Statement 2 is correct because the SRA was established in 1995 under the Maharashtra Slum Areas (Improvement, Clearance and Redevelopment) Act, 1971, to act as a single-window clearance agency for slum rehabilitation projects. Statement 3 is correct as the PMAY-U mission, launched in June 2015, explicitly mandates the 'In-situ Slum Redevelopment' (ISSR) vertical, which leverages land as a resource to partner with private developers for housing construction.
Consider the following statements regarding Funding and financial autonomy of the Commission:
1. The accounts of the Commission are subject to audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India as prescribed under Section 12 of the 1990 Act.
2. The annual report of the Commission, including its financial expenditure details, is laid before each House of Parliament as per the provisions of Section 13 of the National Commission for Women Act.
3. The Commission maintains a fund to which all sums received from the central government are credited, and all administrative expenses of the body are defrayed from this account.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct as per the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. Section 12 mandates that the Commission's accounts be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, while Section 13 requires the annual report, detailing activities and financial expenditures, to be laid before both Houses of Parliament. Furthermore, Section 11 of the Act establishes the Commission's fund, which receives grants from the Central Government to cover all administrative and operational expenses.
Consider the following statements regarding Powers of the Inquiry Wing and Prosecution Wing of the Lokpal:
1. The Director of Inquiry is responsible for conducting investigations into allegations of corruption, and this role is filled by an officer selected from the Indian Police Service with the rank of Director General.
2. The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal is headed by a Director of Inquiry, who holds a rank equivalent to that of a Joint Secretary to the Government of India.
3. The Lokpal comprises a Chairperson and eight members, and the Prosecution Wing includes legal officers who are drawn from the Indian Legal Service with at least ten years of experience.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Inquiry Wing is headed by a Director of Inquiry, who holds a rank equivalent to that of a Joint Secretary to the Government of India. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Director of Inquiry is not required to be an IPS officer of Director General rank; rather, the Lokpal Act mandates that the Inquiry Wing be headed by an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and up to eight members, the Prosecution Wing is headed by a Director of Prosecution, and the Act does not restrict the legal officers exclusively to the Indian Legal Service with a mandatory ten-year experience requirement.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-departmental data sharing protocols via DigiLocker API:
1. The 2017 launch of UMANG integrated the existing e-District services, and the platform provides for the direct inter-departmental transfer of sensitive health records via the centralized blockchain-based ledger.
2. The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) functions as the nodal agency responsible for the technical architecture and inter-departmental data exchange protocols of the UMANG platform.
3. As of 2023, the DigiLocker ecosystem includes the issuance of over 6 billion documents, covering academic records, vehicle registration certificates, and insurance policies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while UMANG integrates e-District services, it does not utilize a centralized blockchain-based ledger for the transfer of sensitive health records; such data exchange is typically governed by the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) framework. Statement 2 is correct as the National e-Governance Division (NeGD), under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), is the nodal agency tasked with the development and management of the UMANG platform. Statement 3 is correct because, by 2023, DigiLocker successfully scaled its ecosystem to issue over 6 billion digital documents, including academic, vehicular, and insurance-related records, facilitating paperless governance.
Consider the following statements regarding Women empowerment through the eldest woman as head of household in ration cards:
1. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution implemented the digitisation of ration cards in 2015, which allows the eldest woman head of the household to transfer her food entitlement to any other family member through the PDS portal.
2. Under Section 13 of the National Food Security Act 2013, the eldest woman of the household, aged 18 years or above, is designated as the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards.
3. The National Food Security Act 2013 was notified on 10 September 2013, and it provides for the eldest woman head of the household to be the sole signatory for all financial transactions related to the Antyodaya Anna Yojana.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because Section 13 of the NFSA 2013 explicitly mandates that the eldest woman of the household, aged 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards. Statement 1 is incorrect as the NFSA does not provide for the transfer of food entitlements to other family members via a PDS portal, and the digitisation process is primarily for transparency and de-duplication. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Act was notified on 10 September 2013, it does not designate the eldest woman as the sole signatory for financial transactions under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana; her role is specifically limited to being the head of the household for the issuance of the ration card.
Consider the following statements regarding Recommendations on the office of the Governor and Centre-State relations:
1. The Punchhi Commission, constituted in 2007, recommended that the doctrine of pleasure should be deleted from the Constitution and replaced with a procedure for the impeachment of the Governor by the State Legislature.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 2007 report on Centre-State relations, suggested that the Governor should be appointed from a panel prepared by the State Legislature or a similar body to ensure impartiality.
3. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 proposed that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should not have participated in active politics at the central or state level for at least two years prior to the appointment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Punchhi Commission (2007) proposed replacing the 'doctrine of pleasure' with a specific procedure for removal by the State Legislature to ensure security of tenure. Statement 2 is correct because the 2nd ARC recommended that the Governor be appointed from a panel prepared by the State Legislature or a committee, rather than being a purely central appointee, to foster federal cooperation. Statement 3 is correct as the Sarkaria Commission (1988) explicitly advised that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state who has not been active in politics for at least two years prior to their appointment to maintain neutrality.
Consider the following statements regarding Annual report submission and parliamentary oversight:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes submits its annual report to the President of India under the provisions of Article 338B of the Constitution.
2. The President causes the annual report of the Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations.
3. Article 338B(5)(d) directs the Commission to present reports upon the working of the safeguards for socially and educationally backward classes to the President.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct because Article 338B, inserted by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, mandates the National Commission for Backward Classes to present annual or special reports on the working of safeguards for socially and educationally backward classes to the President. Under Article 338B(6), the President is constitutionally obligated to cause these reports to be laid before each House of Parliament, accompanied by a memorandum detailing the action taken or proposed to be taken on the Commission's recommendations and the reasons for the non-acceptance of any such recommendations.
Consider the following statements regarding Duties of appropriate government and local authorities:
1. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution and established the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights as the primary oversight body for school infrastructure.
2. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan launched in 2001 serves as the financial framework for the Right to Education Act and grants local authorities the power to levy educational cesses on residential property.
3. Section 8 of the Right to Education Act 2009 specifies that the appropriate government provides free and compulsory elementary education to every child in the age group of 6 to 14 years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Section 8 of the RTE Act 2009 mandates the appropriate government to ensure free and compulsory elementary education for children aged 6-14. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 86th Amendment inserted Article 21A, the NCPCR was established under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, not the RTE Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a flagship program for universal elementary education, but it does not grant local authorities the power to levy educational cesses on residential property.
Consider the following statements regarding Capacity building of Block Resource Centres (BRC) and Cluster Resource Centres (CRC):
1. The recruitment process for Block Resource Centre coordinators is governed by the 2012 Right to Education Rules, which prescribe a minimum of ten years of teaching experience for all candidates.
2. The Cluster Resource Centre coordinators are designated to conduct regular school visits, with a target of visiting each school under their jurisdiction at least once every month.
3. Under the Samagra Shiksha framework, the annual financial support for a Block Resource Centre is capped at 5 lakh rupees per annum for meeting recurring contingencies and academic activities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the recruitment criteria for BRC coordinators are determined by state-specific guidelines under the Samagra Shiksha framework rather than a uniform 10-year mandate in the 2012 RTE Rules. Statement 2 is correct as CRCs are mandated to conduct regular school visits, with the framework specifically targeting at least one visit per school every month to provide academic support. Statement 3 is correct because the Samagra Shiksha scheme provides an annual composite grant of up to 5 lakh rupees for BRCs and 2 lakh rupees for CRCs to cover recurring contingencies and academic activities.
Consider the following statements regarding Challenges in quantifying gender-specific benefits in public goods:
1. The 1993 Human Development Report by the UNDP introduced the Gender Development Index, which functions as the official framework for the Ministry of Women and Child Development to allocate annual funds to district-level health initiatives.
2. According to the 2023 OECD report on gender budgeting, the difficulty in quantifying benefits arises because public goods like street lighting or public transport often lack sex-disaggregated data on usage patterns and safety perceptions.
3. The Ministry of Finance's 2015 guidelines on gender budgeting suggest that the lack of gender-specific impact assessments for infrastructure projects leads to an underestimation of the indirect economic benefits accrued by women.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 1993 HDR introduced the Gender-related Development Index, it is a global analytical tool and not the framework used by the Ministry of Women and Child Development for district-level fund allocation. Statement 2 is correct as OECD reports consistently highlight that the absence of sex-disaggregated data on public infrastructure usage hinders effective gender-responsive policy design. Statement 3 is correct because the Ministry of Finance's gender budgeting guidelines emphasize that failing to conduct gender-impact assessments in infrastructure projects obscures the indirect economic contributions and benefits that women derive from such investments.
Consider the following statements regarding Limitations on NHRC jurisdiction regarding time-barred complaints:
1. The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, establishes a limitation period of two years for filing complaints, and the Commission follows the judicial precedent set in the 1998 Supreme Court ruling regarding the extension of this period for cases involving custodial deaths.
2. The NHRC possesses the discretionary power to entertain complaints filed after the one-year limitation period if it is satisfied that there were sufficient reasons for the delay.
3. Section 36(2) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, prevents the Commission from inquiring into any matter after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act mandates a one-year limitation period, not two years, and the Commission does not rely on a 1998 Supreme Court ruling to extend this timeframe. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as Section 36(2) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, explicitly bars the NHRC from inquiring into matters after one year from the date of the alleged violation, while simultaneously granting the Commission discretionary power to condone delays if sufficient cause is demonstrated.
Consider the following statements regarding Fraud detection and anti-abuse mechanisms using AI and data analytics:
1. The 'Hospital Grading System' launched in 2020 links the release of central government funds directly to the hospital's performance in fraud prevention audits conducted by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
2. The PM-JAY portal integrates with the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) to cross-verify hospital expenditure patterns, a feature introduced in the 2021 amendment to the scheme's operational guidelines.
3. The National Health Authority utilizes the Anti-Fraud AI (AFA) system, which leverages machine learning algorithms to identify suspicious patterns in hospital billing data across the PM-JAY network.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the National Health Authority (NHA) employs the Anti-Fraud AI (AFA) system to detect anomalies and fraudulent billing patterns through predictive analytics. Statement 1 is incorrect because hospital grading is based on quality and patient satisfaction metrics, not linked to CAG-conducted fraud audits for fund release. Statement 2 is incorrect as there is no such provision in the PM-JAY operational guidelines to integrate with the GSTN for cross-verifying hospital expenditure patterns.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory budgeting models in the context of Smart Cities Mission:
1. The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) focuses on water supply infrastructure, and it integrates participatory budgeting by allocating 20 percent of its annual budget to projects selected through direct online citizen bidding.
2. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the formation of Ward Committees, and the Smart Cities Mission framework incorporates these committees as the primary financial auditing bodies for project funds.
3. The Smart Cities Mission launched the 'City Challenge Competition' in 2015, which links the release of central assistance to the establishment of a state-level participatory budgeting commission in each participating city.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because AMRUT does not mandate 20 percent of its budget for online citizen bidding. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 74th Amendment mandates Ward Committees for decentralized planning, but the Smart Cities Mission framework uses Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) for project execution and financial management, not Ward Committees as primary auditing bodies. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 'City Challenge Competition' was a mechanism for selecting cities based on performance and vision, not a mandate for establishing state-level participatory budgeting commissions.
Consider the following statements regarding ARC perspectives on citizen-centric administration:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission proposed the creation of a National Ombudsman in its 2007 report, which led to the immediate enactment of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act.
2. The First Administrative Reforms Commission, chaired by Morarji Desai, established the office of the Lokpal in 1966 to address citizen grievances against high-level public officials.
3. The 15th Report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission focuses on state-level governance and suggests that the State Information Commission functions under the direct supervision of the Governor.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in 2013, long after the 2007 report, and not as an immediate consequence. Statement 2 is incorrect as the First ARC (1966) only recommended the creation of the Lokpal, but the office was not established until the 2013 Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 12th Report of the Second ARC focused on 'Citizen Centric Administration,' and State Information Commissions are independent statutory bodies under the RTI Act, not under the direct supervision of the Governor.
Consider the following statements regarding Reporting obligations of NCPCR to the Union Government:
1. The 2005 Act provides for the submission of quarterly performance reviews to the Ministry of Women and Child Development, which are then published in the Gazette of India.
2. Upon receipt of the annual report, the Central Government arranges for the inclusion of an action taken memorandum regarding the recommendations made by the Commission.
3. Under the 2005 framework, the NCPCR submits its audited financial statements directly to the Comptroller and Auditor General for parliamentary review before the annual report is finalized.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because Section 16 of the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005, mandates the Central Government to lay the annual report along with an Action Taken Memorandum (ATM) before both Houses of Parliament. Statement 1 is incorrect as the Act requires the submission of an annual report, not quarterly performance reviews, and these are laid before Parliament rather than being published in the Gazette of India. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), they are submitted to the Central Government to be laid before Parliament along with the audit report, not directly to the CAG for finalization.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisdictional limits of Information Commissions over autonomous bodies:
1. The 2005 RTI Act includes provisions for the establishment of a National RTI Council, which functions as an appellate body for autonomous bodies that receive over 50 percent of their funding from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The 2009 Rules notified under the RTI Act allow autonomous bodies to appoint their own internal RTI ombudsmen, whose decisions are final and binding before they reach the State Information Commission.
3. Section 25 of the RTI Act 2005 provides for the submission of annual reports by the Information Commissions to the President of India, who then presents these reports to the Inter-State Council for review.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005 does not provide for a National RTI Council, nor does it permit autonomous bodies to bypass Information Commissions via internal ombudsmen. Furthermore, under Section 25, the Central Information Commission submits its annual report to the Central Government, which is then laid before each House of Parliament, not the Inter-State Council.
Consider the following statements regarding Gender Budgeting as a tool for inclusive fiscal governance:
1. The Government of India formally introduced the Gender Budget Statement as part of the Union Budget in the 2005-06 fiscal year to track allocations for women-centric schemes.
2. The Expenditure Management Commission, established in 2014, recommended the creation of a separate Gender Ministry to oversee the implementation of the Gender Budgeting Statement across state governments.
3. The Gender Budgeting framework in India draws its primary inspiration from the 1995 Beijing Platform for Action, which established the Global Gender Equality Fund to provide direct grants to developing nations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Gender Budget Statement was formally introduced in the Union Budget 2005-06 to ensure gender-sensitive public expenditure. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Expenditure Management Commission did not recommend a separate Gender Ministry; instead, the Ministry of Women and Child Development acts as the nodal agency for gender budgeting. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the 1995 Beijing Platform for Action advocated for gender-responsive budgeting, it did not establish a 'Global Gender Equality Fund' for direct grants to nations.
Consider the following statements regarding Slum Rehabilitation Authority (SRA) mechanisms and land value capture:
1. Land Value Capture (LVC) tools, such as betterment levies, are implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to recover the full market cost of public infrastructure projects from local residents.
2. The Model Tenancy Act, 2021, includes provisions for the automatic conversion of all slum settlements into formal housing cooperatives upon the completion of ten years of continuous occupancy.
3. The Smart Cities Mission, launched in 2015, provides for the integration of slum rehabilitation into the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) framework, which functions as a constitutional body with state-level legislative powers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because LVC tools aim to capture a portion of the value increase generated by public investment, not the full market cost, and are primarily managed by Urban Local Bodies rather than the Ministry directly. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Model Tenancy Act, 2021, focuses on regulating rental housing markets and does not contain provisions for the automatic conversion of slums into cooperatives. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) under the Smart Cities Mission is a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013, and lacks constitutional status or state-level legislative powers.
Consider the following statements regarding Contractual tenure versus permanent civil service:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its 10th report, 'Refurbishing of Personnel Administration', recommended the introduction of lateral entry at the levels of Deputy Secretary and Director.
2. The 1976 Kothari Committee report suggested the inclusion of private sector professionals in the IAS cadre, and this proposal was subsequently adopted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
3. The Civil Services Examination Rules of 2014 introduced a quota for lateral entrants in the Ministry of Finance, allowing for direct recruitment of professionals with 10 years of experience.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 10th Report of the Second ARC (2008) advocated for lateral entry at the Deputy Secretary and Director levels to bring in domain expertise. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Kothari Committee (1976) focused on reforming the Civil Services Examination system rather than lateral entry, and the 42nd Amendment did not introduce such provisions. Statement 3 is incorrect because lateral entry in India is governed by executive orders and specific departmental recruitment rules rather than the Civil Services Examination Rules of 2014, which pertain to the traditional merit-based entry system.
Consider the following statements regarding Whistleblowers Protection Act 2014 provisions:
1. The Act specifies that no person shall be liable to any civil or criminal proceedings in respect of any matter disclosed by them in good faith.
2. Under Section 11, the Competent Authority has the power to recommend appropriate action to the concerned public authority if a disclosure is substantiated.
3. The Act includes provisions to protect the whistleblower from victimization by ensuring the identity of the complainant remains confidential during the inquiry process.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Act provides immunity from civil or criminal liability for disclosures made in good faith. Statement 2 is correct because Section 11 empowers the Competent Authority to direct the public authority to take corrective action, including initiating disciplinary proceedings, once a disclosure is substantiated. Statement 3 is correct as the Act mandates the Competent Authority to conceal the identity of the complainant and the documents provided to prevent victimization, ensuring the whistleblower's safety throughout the inquiry.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict resolution between Forest Department and Gram Sabha:
1. Section 6 of the Forest Rights Act 2006 empowers the Gram Sabha to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights.
2. The 2012 amendment to the Forest Rights Rules introduced a specific procedure for the recognition of habitat rights for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
3. The 1927 Indian Forest Act provides for the classification of forests into reserved and protected categories, and it remains the primary legislation governing the settlement of rights for forest dwellers since 2006.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 6 of the FRA 2006 vests the Gram Sabha with the authority to initiate the process for determining forest rights. Statement 2 is correct because the 2012 Rules explicitly established procedures for recognizing the habitat rights of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). Statement 3 is incorrect because the FRA 2006 is a 'special law' that overrides the 1927 Indian Forest Act in matters concerning the settlement of rights for forest dwellers, effectively making the FRA the primary legislation for such recognition.
Consider the following statements regarding Grievance redressal under the Consumer Protection Act vis-a-vis CPGRAMS:
1. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the Central Consumer Protection Authority was established to protect, promote, and enforce the rights of consumers as a class.
2. The 2020 amendment to the Consumer Protection Rules allows the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission to directly issue binding directives to the CPGRAMS nodal officers for pending service delivery cases.
3. The E-DAAKHIL portal, launched in September 2020, facilitates the online filing of consumer grievances to the Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions across various states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the CCPA was established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, to regulate matters relating to violation of consumer rights and unfair trade practices. Statement 3 is correct because the E-DAAKHIL portal was launched by the National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission (NCDRC) in September 2020 to provide a hassle-free digital platform for filing consumer complaints. Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no such 2020 amendment granting the NCDRC the power to issue binding directives to CPGRAMS nodal officers; CPGRAMS operates under the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) and remains distinct from the quasi-judicial consumer dispute redressal mechanism.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for healthcare and medical interventions:
1. Rule 11 of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules 2020 outlines the provision for periodic sensitization and awareness training for healthcare professionals on transgender-specific health issues.
2. Under the 2019 Act, the government is tasked with reviewing medical curricula in universities to address the health needs of transgender persons and ensure inclusive medical education.
3. The 2019 legislation provides for the inclusion of transgender persons in existing government healthcare programs, ensuring access to general health services alongside specialized gender-affirming care.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Rule 11 of the 2020 Rules mandates that the government provide sensitization training to healthcare professionals to ensure non-discriminatory care. Statement 2 is correct because Section 15 of the 2019 Act explicitly requires the government to review medical curricula to address the specific health needs of transgender persons. Statement 3 is correct as the Act mandates that the government provide comprehensive healthcare, including gender-affirming surgeries and hormonal therapy, while integrating transgender individuals into existing public health schemes.
Consider the following statements regarding Review of identity certificates post-surgery:
1. The procedure for updating gender in the Aadhaar database is governed by the 2019 Act, which permits the Unique Identification Authority of India to issue a new identification number upon receipt of a post-surgery medical certificate.
2. Rule 10 of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules 2020 outlines the procedure for updating the gender identity in official records following the completion of gender affirmation surgery.
3. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules 2020 specify that the application for a revised certificate of identity is to be submitted to the District Magistrate of the area where the applicant resides.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, not the 2019 Act, govern Aadhaar updates, and the UIDAI does not issue new identification numbers but rather updates existing ones. Statement 2 is correct as Rule 10 of the 2020 Rules mandates that an application for a revised certificate of identity must be made to the District Magistrate following gender affirmation surgery. Statement 3 is correct because the 2020 Rules explicitly designate the District Magistrate of the applicant's residential district as the authority responsible for processing applications for revised identity certificates.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-sectoral convergence in Gender Budgeting:
1. The National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP) has conducted periodic reviews of gender budgeting exercises, identifying gaps in the utilization of funds under the Nirbhaya Fund.
2. The 2015 Sustainable Development Goal 5.c specifically targets the adoption and strengthening of sound policies and enforceable legislation for the promotion of gender equality.
3. The OECD's 2016 Recommendation on Gender Equality in Public Life encourages member countries to adopt gender-responsive budgeting as a tool for inclusive economic governance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as NIPFP has frequently audited gender budgeting, highlighting implementation bottlenecks and fund under-utilization in schemes like the Nirbhaya Fund. Statement 2 is correct because SDG 5.c explicitly mandates the adoption and strengthening of sound policies and enforceable legislation for gender equality. Statement 3 is correct as the 2016 OECD Recommendation on Gender Equality in Public Life provides a global framework for member countries to integrate gender-responsive budgeting into their fiscal policies to ensure inclusive governance.
Consider the following statements regarding Over-indebtedness and Multiple Lending Risks:
1. The RBI's 2015 guidelines on Priority Sector Lending include a provision that classifies microfinance loans as agriculture credit if the borrower maintains a minimum of three active credit accounts.
2. The Malegam Committee report of 2011 recommended a cap on the margin of interest for MFIs at 12 percent to mitigate the risk of over-indebtedness among rural borrowers.
3. The 2010 Andhra Pradesh Microfinance Ordinance introduced a state-level interest rate ceiling of 10 percent and established a district-level grievance committee for loan recovery disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the Malegam Committee (2011) recommended a margin cap of 10-12% to prevent predatory pricing. Statement 1 is incorrect because RBI guidelines do not classify loans based on the number of active accounts; instead, they define microfinance loans based on household income and collateral-free criteria. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the 2010 Andhra Pradesh Ordinance did regulate MFIs, it did not set a 10% interest rate ceiling, nor did it establish district-level grievance committees as described.
Consider the following statements regarding Comparison with lateral entry models in UK and USA:
1. In the United States, the Senior Executive Service (SES) was established by the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 to create a distinct group of managers who can be moved between agencies to address complex policy challenges.
2. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the 2018 lateral entry recruitment process for ten joint secretary positions, and the selection criteria included a mandatory requirement for candidates to have held a public sector undertaking leadership role for at least five years.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2nd ARC) in its 10th report, 'Refurbishing of Personnel Administration', recommended the institutionalization of lateral entry for specialized positions in the Government of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 established the Senior Executive Service (SES) to provide a flexible, mobile cadre of managers in the US federal government. Statement 3 is correct because the 10th report of the 2nd ARC explicitly advocated for lateral entry to bring in domain expertise for specialized government roles. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2018 recruitment process did not mandate a public sector undertaking leadership role; instead, it invited applications from the private sector, academia, and civil society with at least 15 years of relevant experience.
Consider the following statements regarding National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) levels and credit accumulation:
1. The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) oversees the implementation of the Credit Framework for Vocational Education and Training, which was formally launched in 2012 alongside the NSQF notification.
2. The Skill India Mission encompasses the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, which operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education to align vocational training with secondary school curricula.
3. The NSQF level 5 qualification corresponds to the completion of a two-year Industrial Training Institute (ITI) course, which carries a weightage of 60 credits within the national credit accumulation system.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Credit Framework for Vocational Education and Training (CVET) was formally notified by the UGC/Ministry of Education in 2023, not in 2012. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is implemented under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the Ministry of Education. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under the National Credit Framework (NCrF), a two-year ITI course typically corresponds to NSQF Level 4, and credit values are calculated based on notional learning hours (30 hours per credit) rather than a fixed weightage of 60 credits.
Consider the following statements regarding Governance of PDS supply chain under the Essential Commodities Act:
1. The PDS (Control) Order 2001 allows for the direct procurement of foodgrains by private entities from farmers, a policy shift that was formalized under the 2013 Act to reduce the fiscal burden on the central exchequer.
2. The Essential Commodities Act 1955 includes provisions for the establishment of the Food Corporation of India, which serves as the primary regulatory body for interstate grain movement since its inception in 1964.
3. The National Food Security Act 2013 encompasses the integration of the Aadhar-based biometric authentication system, which was introduced by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs during the 2011 pilot phase in Chandigarh.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the PDS (Control) Order 2001 focuses on the distribution and licensing of fair price shops, not private procurement of foodgrains. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Food Corporation of India was established under the Food Corporations Act, 1964, not the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Statement 3 is incorrect because the National Food Security Act, 2013, does not mandate Aadhaar-based authentication; rather, the integration of Aadhaar in the PDS was implemented through subsequent administrative notifications under the Targeted Public Distribution System (Control) Order, 2015.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal immunity for whistleblowers under Indian law:
1. The Whistleblowers Protection Act of 2014 received the assent of the President of India on 9 May 2014.
2. Section 4 of the Whistleblowers Protection Act 2014 provides that any public servant or person can make a public interest disclosure before the Competent Authority.
3. The Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers (PIDPI) resolution was issued by the Government of India in April 2004 following the recommendation of the Law Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
The Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014 received Presidential assent on 9 May 2014, and Section 4 explicitly empowers any public servant or person to make a public interest disclosure to the Competent Authority. The PIDPI resolution was issued by the Government of India in April 2004, specifically following the recommendations of the Supreme Court in the landmark 'Vineet Narain v. Union of India' case and the Law Commission, which sought to establish a mechanism for protecting informers against victimization.
Consider the following statements regarding Capacity building of NGOs for effective public service delivery:
1. The 2005 Right to Information Act includes provisions for the direct inclusion of NGOs under the definition of public authorities, which allows for mandatory annual audits by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
2. Under the NITI Aayog's NGO-DARPAN portal, over 170,000 voluntary organizations are registered to facilitate transparency in government grant disbursements.
3. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act of 2010 provides the legal framework for NGOs to receive international funding for public service delivery projects.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005, does not automatically classify all NGOs as public authorities; they are only covered if they are substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate government. Statement 2 is correct as the NGO-DARPAN portal, managed by NITI Aayog, serves as a centralized platform to ensure transparency and accountability in the grant-making process for over 170,000 registered voluntary organizations. Statement 3 is correct because the FCRA, 2010, regulates the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions by NGOs, ensuring that international funding for public service projects aligns with national interests.
Consider the following statements regarding Empanelment criteria and de-empanelment protocols for healthcare providers:
1. The State Health Agency (SHA) possesses the authority to initiate de-empanelment based on the findings of the District Grievance Redressal Committee, which operates under the chairmanship of the District Magistrate.
2. The de-empanelment of a healthcare provider involves a mandatory 30-day suspension period, during which the hospital remains eligible for reimbursement of claims submitted prior to the date of the initial audit.
3. The empanelment criteria for private hospitals include the presence of a 24-hour pharmacy and a dedicated blood bank, both of which are regulated under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the District Grievance Redressal Committee (DGRC) only recommends action, while the final authority for de-empanelment rests with the State Health Agency (SHA) based on specific evidence, not solely on DGRC findings. Statement 2 is incorrect as there is no mandatory 30-day suspension period; de-empanelment is an immediate process following established due process and show-cause notices, and claims are scrutinized based on the date of fraud or violation rather than the audit date. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while hospitals must have access to pharmacy and blood bank services, the PM-JAY guidelines allow for tie-ups with external licensed vendors rather than mandating that these facilities be physically present within the hospital premises.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal status and land rights of PVTGs under FRA 2006:
1. The FRA 2006 encompasses the 1996 PESA Act provisions, granting the Gram Sabha the authority to issue land ownership certificates to PVTGs without further verification from the District Level Committee.
2. The 2012 Amendment Rules allow for the inclusion of buffer zones in Tiger Reserves as part of the Habitat Rights of PVTGs, provided the area was inhabited by the community prior to the 1972 Wildlife Protection Act.
3. The FRA 2006 includes provisions for the establishment of Tribal Advisory Councils in every state, which function as the final appellate authority for disputes regarding PVTG land claims.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, does not grant Gram Sabhas the power to issue land titles without District Level Committee (DLC) verification, nor does it override the DLC's role. Statement 2 is false as the 2012 Amendment Rules specifically emphasize that critical wildlife habitats and buffer zones within Tiger Reserves require rigorous scientific assessment and are not automatically granted as habitat rights based on 1972 occupancy. Finally, Statement 3 is incorrect because Tribal Advisory Councils are mandated under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, not the FRA 2006, and they possess no judicial or appellate authority over individual land claims.
Consider the following statements regarding Mechanism for handling complaints and grievances:
1. The 2004 Rules of Procedure allow the Commission to issue binding judicial decrees in land alienation cases, provided the state government has submitted its initial response within the stipulated 30-day window.
2. The Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, provides for the direct oversight of the Commission in the appointment of Special Public Prosecutors for cases involving tribal victims.
3. The Commission functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, which holds the authority to review and modify the findings of the Commission before they are presented to Parliament.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the NCST is a recommendatory body and lacks the power to issue binding judicial decrees. Statement 2 is incorrect as the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, empowers the State Government to appoint Special Public Prosecutors, with no provision for direct oversight or appointment authority by the NCST. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the NCST is administratively supported by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, it is an independent constitutional body under Article 338A, and the Ministry has no authority to review or modify the Commission's findings before they are submitted to the President for presentation to Parliament.
Consider the following statements regarding Exclusion of transgender persons from specific reservation quotas:
1. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules, 2020, specify the procedure for applying for a revised certificate of identity after gender reassignment surgery.
2. Under the 2019 Act, the National Council for Transgender Persons serves as an advisory body to the Central Government on policy formulation.
3. The 2019 Act provides for the issuance of a certificate of identity by the District Magistrate to individuals recognized as transgender.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the 2020 Rules mandate a procedure for revised identity certificates post-surgery, the National Council for Transgender Persons functions as an advisory body under the 2019 Act to ensure policy coordination, and the Act explicitly empowers the District Magistrate to issue certificates of identity to transgender persons. There are no incorrect statements, as the Act and its associated rules establish these specific legal and administrative frameworks for the recognition and protection of transgender rights in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-departmental data sharing protocols via DigiLocker API:
1. The DigiLocker API allows registered government departments to pull documents directly from the issuer's database, reducing the need for physical verification of certificates.
2. The UMANG mobile application, introduced in November 2017, serves as a unified interface for over 1,700 services from various central and state government departments.
3. The DigiLocker platform, launched in February 2015 under the Digital India programme, provides a dedicated cloud-based storage space for residents to access authentic digital documents.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct. Statement 1 is accurate as the DigiLocker API facilitates seamless, paperless verification by allowing departments to fetch authentic documents directly from source issuers. Statement 2 is correct because UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance), launched in November 2017, acts as a single-window platform aggregating over 1,700 services from central and state entities. Statement 3 is correct as DigiLocker was launched in February 2015 under the Digital India programme to provide citizens with secure, cloud-based storage for authentic digital documents, promoting the 'Paperless Governance' initiative.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Chief Commissioner and State Commissioners:
1. The Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities is appointed by the Central Government under Section 74 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
2. State Commissioners maintain the power to grant permanent disability certificates to applicants, a function that operates alongside the medical boards established under the 2016 Act guidelines.
3. State Commissioners for Persons with Disabilities are appointed by the State Government, and their office functions under the administrative control of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 74 of the RPwD Act, 2016 mandates the Central Government to appoint a Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities to monitor the implementation of the Act. Statement 3 is correct because State Commissioners are appointed by the State Government and function under the administrative control of the state's designated department for disability affairs. Statement 2 is incorrect because the power to issue disability certificates lies exclusively with the notified Medical Authorities or Medical Boards, not the State Commissioners, whose primary role is to inquire into complaints of deprivation of rights and safeguard the interests of PwDs.
Consider the following statements regarding DigiLocker integration with the National Academic Depository (NAD):
1. The National Academic Depository was established under the Information Technology Act of 2000 and functions as a subsidiary of the National Informatics Centre.
2. The National Academic Depository (NAD) is a digital initiative managed by the University Grants Commission to store academic awards.
3. The DigiLocker platform was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in July 2015 under the Digital India programme.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Academic Depository (NAD) was established by the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD) under the University Grants Commission (UGC) Act, not the IT Act, and is managed by NSDL/CDSL database infrastructure rather than the NIC. Statement 2 is correct as NAD is a government initiative managed by the UGC to provide a 24/7 online platform for the verification and storage of academic awards. Statement 3 is correct because DigiLocker was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in July 2015 as a key component of the Digital India programme to provide citizens with a secure cloud-based platform for document storage.
Consider the following statements regarding Interplay between the Lokpal, CBI, and the Directorate of Enforcement:
1. Under the 2013 Act, the Lokpal possesses the power of superintendence over the CBI in relation to investigations of offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
2. The Director of Prosecution in the CBI is appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Central Vigilance Commission, maintaining a functional separation from the Lokpal's direct administrative control.
3. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of whom fifty percent are required to be judicial members as per the 2013 legislation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 18 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, grants the Lokpal powers of superintendence and direction over the CBI for cases referred to it under the Prevention of Corruption Act. Statement 2 is correct because the Director of Prosecution is appointed by the Central Government based on CVC recommendations, ensuring the Lokpal maintains oversight without direct administrative control over the appointment process. Statement 3 is correct as the Act mandates a Chairperson and up to eight members, with a statutory requirement that 50% of these members must be from the judiciary.
Consider the following statements regarding Criteria for identification of priority households under Antyodaya Anna Yojana:
1. The Antyodaya Anna Yojana, launched in December 2000, covers the poorest of the poor households identified by the states based on the criteria of landless agricultural laborers, marginal farmers, and rural artisans.
2. Food grain distribution under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana is managed by the Food Corporation of India, which coordinates with the Ministry of Consumer Affairs to verify the income certificates of households earning below rupees 15,000 annually.
3. The scheme allows for the inclusion of primitive tribal households, a category defined by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, which were added to the Antyodaya beneficiary list following the 2004 Supreme Court directive on food security.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as AAY was launched in December 2000 to target the poorest of the poor, including landless agricultural laborers, marginal farmers, and rural artisans. Statement 2 is incorrect because the identification of beneficiaries is based on state-specific criteria rather than a central income certificate threshold of Rs 15,000. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while primitive tribal groups are prioritized, they were included through specific government expansions rather than a 2004 Supreme Court directive specifically mandating their inclusion under AAY.
Consider the following statements regarding Limitations of the Commission in binding executive decisions:
1. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018 granted the National Commission for Backward Classes constitutional status under Article 338B.
2. Under the provisions of Article 338B(5), the Commission presents an annual report to the President, which is subsequently laid before each House of Parliament.
3. The Supreme Court in the Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) case observed that the advice tendered by the Commission regarding the inclusion of communities in the central list remains recommendatory in nature.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
The 102nd Amendment Act (2018) constitutionally established the NCBC under Article 338B, granting it the mandate to investigate and monitor safeguards for backward classes. Under Article 338B(5), the Commission is legally obligated to submit annual reports to the President, which are then tabled in Parliament for legislative scrutiny. The Indra Sawhney judgment established that the Commission's recommendations regarding the inclusion or exclusion of communities in the central list are advisory and not binding on the executive, as the final authority to notify the list rests with the President under Article 342A.
Consider the following statements regarding Social audit in the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY):
1. In the PMAY-G scheme, the verification of the Permanent Wait List (PWL) is conducted by the Gram Sabha to ensure transparency in the selection of beneficiaries for house construction.
2. The 2005 Right to Information Act serves as the legal basis for the PMAY social audit, and it provides for the direct appointment of independent auditors by the District Collector.
3. The AwaasSoft portal provides for real-time geo-tagging of assets, and its data is verified by the Comptroller and Auditor General through an automated monthly social audit report.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Gram Sabha plays a pivotal role in verifying the Permanent Wait List (PWL) under PMAY-G to ensure transparency and prevent inclusion errors. Statement 2 is incorrect because the social audit framework for PMAY-G is derived from the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA guidelines and state-specific rules, not the RTI Act, and auditors are not appointed by the District Collector. Statement 3 is incorrect because while AwaasSoft uses geo-tagging for monitoring, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) does not conduct automated monthly social audits; social audits are instead conducted by community-based organizations or local committees at the village level.
Consider the following statements regarding DPI regulatory sandboxes:
1. The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) launched a dedicated regulatory sandbox in 2021 to support fintech solutions within the GIFT City ecosystem.
2. The Ministry of Finance issued the 2021 guidelines for the Digital Public Infrastructure Sandbox, which facilitates the testing of interoperable identity verification protocols across state-run welfare portals.
3. The Digital India Stack, which serves as the foundation for various DPIs, includes the Aadhaar authentication layer and the Unified Payments Interface as core components.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as IFSCA introduced its Regulatory Sandbox in 2021 to promote innovation in fintech within the GIFT-IFSC. Statement 3 is correct because the India Stack is a comprehensive set of APIs, including Aadhaar (identity) and UPI (payments), that forms the bedrock of India's DPI ecosystem. Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no such 'Ministry of Finance 2021 guidelines for the Digital Public Infrastructure Sandbox'; DPI-related sandboxes are typically sectoral, managed by regulators like the RBI or SEBI, rather than being a centralized cross-state welfare protocol.
Consider the following statements regarding The impact of the Consumer Protection Act on consumer advocacy groups:
1. Section 2(5) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines a complainant to include any voluntary consumer association registered under any law for the time being in force.
2. The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 established the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance.
3. The Consumer Protection Act of 2019 replaced the 1986 legislation to include provisions for e-commerce transactions and direct selling entities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 2(5) of the 2019 Act explicitly recognizes registered voluntary consumer associations as complainants, empowering them to file cases on behalf of consumers. Statement 3 is correct because the 2019 Act modernized the legal framework to address contemporary challenges by specifically regulating e-commerce platforms and direct selling entities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) functions under the administrative control of the Department of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, not the Ministry of Finance.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for reservation of seats for SC/ST and women in boards:
1. Article 243ZJ of the Constitution, introduced in 2011, outlines that the term of office of the elected members of the board and its office bearers shall be five years from the date of election.
2. Under the provisions of the 97th Amendment, two seats are reserved for women on the board of every cooperative society having members from such sections of society.
3. The 97th Amendment added Part IXB to the Constitution, which specifies that the legislature of a State may provide for the reservation of seats for the weaker sections in cooperative societies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 243ZJ(2) mandates a five-year term for the board of cooperative societies. Statement 2 is correct because Article 243ZI mandates the reservation of one seat for SC/ST and two seats for women on the board of every cooperative society. Statement 3 is correct as Part IXB, inserted by the 97th Amendment Act, 2011, empowers State Legislatures to make provisions for the reservation of at least one seat for SC or ST and two seats for women in the board of every cooperative society.
Consider the following statements regarding International vs domestic CSR project eligibility:
1. The CSR Policy Rules were amended in 2020 to include international cooperation projects, specifically those aligned with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, as eligible activities for domestic companies.
2. The Department of Public Enterprises guidelines for Central Public Sector Enterprises provide for the categorization of cross-border infrastructure development as a recognized CSR activity if the project benefits the Indian diaspora.
3. The Companies Act, 2013, contains a clause that permits the Board of Directors to approve CSR projects in foreign jurisdictions if the company maintains a subsidiary presence in that specific country.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Under the Companies Act, 2013 and the Companies (CSR Policy) Rules, 2014, CSR activities must be undertaken within India to be eligible, and there is no provision allowing for international projects or cross-border infrastructure development regardless of diaspora benefits or subsidiary presence. Statement 1 is false because CSR spending is strictly restricted to the Indian territory. Statement 2 is false as the Department of Public Enterprises guidelines do not authorize international infrastructure as CSR. Statement 3 is false because the Companies Act does not contain any clause permitting CSR expenditure in foreign jurisdictions.
Consider the following statements regarding All India Services Act 1951 and the framework for AIS recruitment:
1. The Indian Police Service (Probation) Rules of 1954 were drafted under the 1951 Act to define the disciplinary procedures for officers, incorporating the recommendations of the 1948 Pay Commission.
2. Under the 1951 Act, the Department of Personnel and Training functions as the nodal agency for cadre management, having been separated from the Ministry of Home Affairs during the 1970 administrative restructuring.
3. The Joint Cadre Authority for the AGMUT region operates under the specific regulatory powers granted by the 1951 Act, which was updated in 1985 to include the Union Territory of Delhi.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the IPS (Probation) Rules of 1954 govern probation and training, not disciplinary procedures, which are covered under the AIS (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1969. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Department of Personnel was created in 1970 following the Administrative Reforms Commission recommendations, but it was not established under the 1951 Act itself; the Act merely provides the framework for rules, not the administrative structure of the government. Statement 3 is incorrect because the AGMUT cadre was constituted through executive orders and the State Reorganisation Act, and the 1951 Act does not contain specific provisions for the creation or regulation of the AGMUT joint cadre authority.
Consider the following statements regarding Feedback Call Centre (FCC) mechanism for grievance verification:
1. Citizens receive automated feedback calls within 48 hours of grievance closure, a timeline established by the 2019 Right to Public Services Act to ensure timely verification.
2. The FCC mechanism operates under the oversight of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, which publishes the annual CPGRAMS performance report in the Gazette of India.
3. The CPGRAMS portal was upgraded to version 7.0 in 2022, which introduced the FCC as a mandatory feature for state-level grievance portals under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the Feedback Call Centre (FCC) is an initiative of the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), not the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Statement 1 is false as the FCC feedback mechanism is an administrative process under CPGRAMS, not mandated by the 2019 Right to Public Services Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because the FCC was integrated into CPGRAMS by DARPG to enhance citizen satisfaction, and it is not a requirement under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, which pertains to urban local bodies.
Consider the following statements regarding Advisory role in policy formulation for women's empowerment:
1. The NCW is associated with the implementation of the 1979 CEDAW treaty, and it provides for the automatic suspension of state police officers who fail to register FIRs in cases of gender-based violence.
2. The Commission includes a member representing the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, and it serves as the final arbiter for policy disputes between the Union and State governments regarding gender quotas.
3. The Commission consists of a Member Secretary who is a civil servant, and it functions as a quasi-judicial tribunal with the jurisdiction to finalize divorce settlements in civil courts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the NCW, established under the NCW Act, 1990, acts as a recommendatory body rather than an enforcement agency; it lacks the power to suspend police officers or finalize divorce settlements. Furthermore, the Commission does not serve as an arbiter for Union-State policy disputes, nor does its composition include a mandatory representative from the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. While the NCW reviews policies and suggests amendments to laws to protect women's rights, it functions as a civil court only for summoning witnesses and examining documents, not for adjudicating civil matrimonial disputes.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between Official Secrets Act and whistleblower disclosures:
1. The Official Secrets Act of 1923 contains a specific sunset clause under Section 15 that limits the classification of documents to a period of thirty years from the date of origin.
2. Section 8(1)(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, provides an exemption from disclosure of personal information which has no relationship to any public activity or interest.
3. The Whistleblowers Protection Act of 2014 received Presidential assent on 9 May 2014, though it remains pending notification for implementation by the central government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Official Secrets Act, 1923, does not contain a sunset clause; in fact, it lacks a declassification mechanism, often leading to indefinite secrecy. Statement 2 is correct as Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act exempts personal information from disclosure unless it serves a larger public interest. Statement 3 is correct because the Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014, received Presidential assent on 9 May 2014, but it has not yet been brought into force by the central government through a notification.
Consider the following statements regarding Relationship between NHRC and State Human Rights Commissions:
1. State Human Rights Commissions are empowered to inquire into violations of human rights related to matters specified in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, provided the National Commission grants prior written consent.
2. The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 allows the National Human Rights Commission to transfer complaints to a State Human Rights Commission if the subject matter falls within the jurisdiction of the state.
3. The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission holds the authority to remove a member of a State Human Rights Commission on grounds of proved misbehavior, following an inquiry conducted by the Supreme Court of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the NHRC can transfer complaints to the SHRC if they fall within the state's jurisdiction. Statement 1 is incorrect because SHRCs are specifically barred from inquiring into matters listed in the Union List (List I) of the Seventh Schedule, and they cannot override this restriction even with NHRC consent. Statement 3 is incorrect because the power to remove a member of an SHRC lies solely with the President of India, not the NHRC Chairperson, following an inquiry by the Supreme Court.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional mechanism of State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (SCPCR):
1. The Chairperson of the State Commission is appointed by the Governor of the State based on the advice of the State Human Rights Commission, as per the provisions of the 2005 Act.
2. The State Commission for Protection of Child Rights submits its annual report to the Governor of the State, who then presents it before the State Legislative Council under Article 168 of the Constitution.
3. The Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act was enacted by the Parliament in 2005 to provide for the constitution of a National Commission and State Commissions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005, was enacted to establish the NCPCR and SCPCRs for the protection of child rights. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chairperson of the SCPCR is appointed by the State Government, not the Governor, based on the recommendations of a three-member selection committee, not the State Human Rights Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SCPCR submits its annual report to the State Government, which is then laid before the State Legislature, not specifically the Legislative Council under Article 168.
Consider the following statements regarding Alagh Committee calorie-based consumption norms:
1. For urban areas, the Alagh Committee recommended a nutritional intake benchmark of 2100 calories per person per day.
2. The methodology adopted by the Alagh Committee relied on a nutritional requirement of 2400 calories per person per day for rural areas.
3. The Alagh Committee was constituted by the Planning Commission in 1977 to define the poverty line in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
The Alagh Committee, constituted by the Planning Commission in 1977, was the first to formally define the poverty line based on nutritional requirements. It established a calorie benchmark of 2400 calories per person per day for rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day for urban areas, accounting for differences in physical activity levels. As all three statements accurately reflect the committee's mandate and its specific caloric recommendations, they are entirely correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Monitoring of child rights by NCPCR and SCPCR:
1. Section 31 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, empowers the NCPCR to monitor the child's right to education.
2. The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights was established in 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005.
3. The NCPCR was constituted following the ratification of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1992 and operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 31 of the RTE Act, 2009, mandates NCPCR/SCPCR to monitor the child's right to education. Statement 2 is correct because the NCPCR was indeed established in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the NCPCR was constituted following the 1992 UN Convention ratification, it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, not the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education).
Consider the following statements regarding The concept of 'Public Servant' as defined under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act:
1. The Act includes the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and the Chief Election Commissioner as public servants, granting the Lokpal investigative powers over their administrative staff.
2. The definition of public servant extends to employees of private sector companies that have entered into contracts with the government for projects valued above fifty crore rupees.
3. State-level ministers and members of the Legislative Assembly are included in the definition of public servant under the 2013 Act, which provides a uniform standard for both central and state entities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, does not include the CAG or CEC under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act does not extend to employees of private sector companies, regardless of the value of government contracts. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2013 Act is primarily concerned with central-level public functionaries; the establishment and jurisdiction of Lokayuktas for state-level ministers and MLAs are governed by separate state-specific legislations, not the central Act.