If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then how is the first month of the second half of the year written?
Explanation: The pattern alternates starting with B as lowercase: odd-positioned letters are uppercase and even-positioned letters are lowercase. In July, J (10th, even) is lowercase, U (21st, odd) is uppercase, l (12th, even) is lowercase, and Y (25th, odd) is uppercase, giving jUlY.
Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the average of the three single digit odd prime numbers. Length of the second piece is equal to that of the first plus one-third the length of the third. The third piece is as long as the other two pieces together. The length of the original sheet of paper is
- 13 units
- 15 units
- 16 units
- 30 units
Explanation: The three single-digit odd primes are 3, 5, and 7. First piece = (3+5+7)/3 = 5. Let second piece = Y. Third piece = Y + 5. Given Y = 5 + (Y+5)/3, solving gives Y = 10. Third piece = 15. Total length = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 units.
In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how many such 5s are there which are not immediately preceded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7?
Explanation: The sequence is 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7. The 5 at position 2 is preceded by 1 (not 3) and followed by 7. The other two 5s are both preceded by 3. Thus only one 5 satisfies the condition.
A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of D's father F. B and D are siblings and A is daughter of B. C is cousin of B. Who is E? Wife of F. Grandmother of A. Aunt of C. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: G is widow and sister-in-law of F, so F is married to E. Since B and D are siblings and A is daughter of B, E is grandmother of A. C is cousin of B, making C the child of F's sibling, so E is aunt of C. All three statements are correct.
Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours. In how many different ways can the cube be painted?
Explanation: Counting by number of white faces accounting for rotational symmetry: 0 white (1 way), 1 white (1 way), 2 white (2 ways: adjacent or opposite), 3 white (2 ways), 4 white (2 ways), 5 white (1 way), 6 white (1 way). Total = 1+1+2+2+2+1+1 = 10.
How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the equation x + y + z = 6, where x, y and z are natural numbers?
Explanation: Natural numbers start at 1. Substituting x'=x-1, y'=y-1, z'=z-1 gives x'+y'+z'=3 with non-negative integers. Using stars and bars: (3+3-1) choose (3-1) = 5C2 = 10. The triplets are (1,1,4), (1,4,1), (4,1,1), (1,2,3), (1,3,2), (2,1,3), (2,3,1), (3,1,2), (3,2,1), and (2,2,2).
If $ means 'divided by'; @ means 'multiplied by'; # means 'minus', then the value of 10#5@1$5 is
Explanation: Replacing symbols gives 10 - 5 * 1 / 5. Using order of operations: 1/5 = 0.2, then 5 * 0.2 = 1, then 10 - 1 = 9.
An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when divided by 3. How many values of B are possible?
Explanation: Sum of digits = 4+2+5+2+7+4+6+B = 30+B. For divisibility by 3, 30+B must be divisible by 3. B can be 0, 3, 6, or 9, giving 4 possible values.
Directions for the following 3 items: Read the following information and answer the three items that follow: Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least. In all the tests they got different marks; D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A.
If F stands second in the ranking, then the position of B is
Explanation: If F is second, then C must be first (since either C or F is highest). When C is highest, E is least. From D > A > B and C > A, the complete ranking is C, F, D, A, B, E. Therefore B is fifth.
Directions for the following 3 items: Read the following information and answer the three items that follow: Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least. In all the tests they got different marks; D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A.
If B scores the least, the rank of C will be
- Second
- Third
- Fourth
- Second or third
Explanation: If B is last, C cannot be first (since C first implies E last). Thus F is first and B is last. The middle four positions are filled by E, C, D, A with C > D > A. E can occupy any of the four middle positions. If E is second, C is third. If E is third or later, C is second. Thus C is second or third.
Directions for the following 3 items: Read the following information and answer the three items that follow: Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least. In all the tests they got different marks; D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A.
If E is ranked third, then which one of the following is correct?
- E gets more marks than C
- C gets more marks than E
- A is ranked fourth
- D is ranked fifth
Explanation: If E is third, E is not last, so C cannot be first. Therefore F is first and B is last. Using D > A > B and C > A, the ranking is F, C, E, D, A, B. Thus C is second and gets more marks than E.
Read the following statements S1 and S2 followed by a question: S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan. S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than the weight of Mohan or that of Sohan. Which one of the following statements is correct?
- Weight of Mohan is greatest
- Weight of Sohan is greatest
- Weight of Rohan is greatest
- Whose weight is greatest' cannot be determined
Explanation: Let S, M, R be the weights. From S1: 2S < M and 2S < R, so S is the least. From S2: 2R > M, which allows R > M, R = M, or R < M (as long as 2R > M). The relationship between M and R cannot be determined.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- Weight of Mohan is least
- Weight of Sohan is least
- Weight of Rohan is least
- 'Whose weight is least' cannot be determined
Explanation: From the given statements, twice Sohan's weight is less than both Mohan's and Rohan's weights, meaning Sohan is lighter than both. Therefore Sohan's weight is the least.
Passage: India's economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn from other economies, yet must implement solutions that fit its unique circumstances. India especially needs an effective long-term regulatory system based on collaboration rather than the current top-down approach. Regulations seek desirable outcomes yet are repeatedly used as political tools to push one agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to consider impacts on jobs and economic growth or less restrictive alternatives. Regulations may be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the future. Additionally, regulations inevitably result in numerous unintended consequences. In today's hyper competitive global economy, regulations need to be viewed as weapons that seek cost-justified social and environmental benefits while improving the economic well-being of most citizens.
Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?
- A better regulatory system will help India achieve the size of economy appropriate to its population.
- In a competitive global economy, India must use regulations strategically.
- Regulations in India do not favour its integration with today's hyper competitive global economy.
- Job creation and economic growth should be dominant considerations in developing India's regulatory system.
Explanation: The passage opens by noting India's small economic footprint relative to its population and then discusses regulatory failures. The most logical inference connects improving the regulatory system to achieving an economic size appropriate to India's population, which captures the passage's primary concern.
Passage: India's economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn from other economies, yet must implement solutions that fit its unique circumstances. India especially needs an effective long-term regulatory system based on collaboration rather than the current top-down approach. Regulations seek desirable outcomes yet are repeatedly used as political tools to push one agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to consider impacts on jobs and economic growth or less restrictive alternatives. Regulations may be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the future. Additionally, regulations inevitably result in numerous unintended consequences. In today's hyper competitive global economy, regulations need to be viewed as weapons that seek cost-justified social and environmental benefits while improving the economic well-being of most citizens.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: In today's global economy, regulations are not effectively used to protect local markets. social and environmental concerns are generally ignored by the governments across the world while implementing the regulations. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage indicates regulations are used to protect local markets at the expense of broader prosperity, supporting the first assumption. The second assumption is incorrect because the passage suggests governments do consider social and environmental concerns, though often at the expense of economic growth, rather than ignoring them entirely.
Passage: In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes of poorly nourished and well nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were isolated from faecal samples of malnourished and healthy children. The microbiome was immature and less diverse in malnourished children compared to the better developed mature microbiome found in healthy children of the same age. According to some studies, the chemical composition of mother's milk has shown the presence of a modified sugar (sialylated oligosaccharides). This is not utilized by the baby for its own nutrition. However, the bacteria constituting the infant's microbiome thrive on this sugar which serves as their food. Malnourished mothers have low levels of this sugar in their milk. Consequently, the microbiomes of their infants fail to mature. That in turn, leads to malnourished babies.
Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?
- If malnourished condition in children is caused by gut bacteria, it cannot be treated.
- The guts of malnourished babies should be inoculated with mature microbiomes.
- Babies of malnourished mothers should be fed with dairy milk fortified with sialylated oligosaccharides instead of mother's milk.
- Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.
Explanation: The passage identifies low sialylated oligosaccharides in malnourished mothers' milk as the cause of immature microbiomes. The most direct inference is that providing this sugar through fortified dairy milk could address the deficiency. Other options are either unsupported or too broad.
Passage: In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes of poorly nourished and well nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were isolated from faecal samples of malnourished and healthy children. The microbiome was immature and less diverse in malnourished children compared to the better developed mature microbiome found in healthy children of the same age. According to some studies, the chemical composition of mother's milk has shown the presence of a modified sugar (sialylated oligosaccharides). This is not utilized by the baby for its own nutrition. However, the bacteria constituting the infant's microbiome thrive on this sugar which serves as their food. Malnourished mothers have low levels of this sugar in their milk. Consequently, the microbiomes of their infants fail to mature. That in turn, leads to malnourished babies.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Processed probiotic foods are a solution to treat the children suffering from malnutrition due to immature gut bacteria composition. The babies of malnourished mothers generally tend to be malnourished. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage suggests that providing the missing sugar through alternative means could compensate for inadequate mother's milk, supporting the assumption about probiotic foods. The second assumption is explicitly confirmed by the passage's final sentences linking malnourished mothers to malnourished babies.
Passage: Temperatures have risen nearly five times as rapidly on the Western Antarctic Peninsula than the global average over the past five decades. Researchers have now found that melting glaciers are causing a loss of species diversity among benthos in the coastal waters off the Antarctic Peninsula, impacting an entire seafloor ecosystem. They believe increased levels of suspended sediment in water to be the cause of the dwindling biodiversity in the coastal region.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been Made: Regions of glaciers warm faster than other regions due to global warming. Global warming can lead to seafloor sedimentation in some areas. Melting glaciers can reduce marine biodiversity in some areas. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage states the Western Antarctic Peninsula warmed faster than the global average, melting glaciers increased suspended sediment, and this reduced benthos diversity. All three assumptions are directly supported.
Passage: A research team examined a long-term owl roost. Owls prey on small mammals and the excreted remains of those meals that accumulated over the time, provide us an insight into the composition and structure of small mammals over the past millennia. The research suggested that when the Earth went through a period of rapid warming about 13,000 years ago, the small mammal community was stable and resilient. But, from the last quarter of the nineteenth century, human-made changes to the environment had caused an enormous drop in biomass and energy flow. This dramatic decline in energy flow means modern ecosystems are not adapting as easily as they did in the past.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Global warming is a frequently occurring natural phenomenon. The impending global warming will not adversely affect small mammals. Humans are responsible for the loss of the Earth's natural resilience. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: One historical example of warming cannot establish it as a frequent phenomenon. The passage states modern ecosystems are not adapting easily, contradicting the assumption that global warming will not affect small mammals. The passage explicitly blames human-made changes for the loss of natural resilience, supporting the third assumption.
Passage: Food varieties extinction is happening all over the world and it is happening fast. For example, of the 7,000 apple varieties that were grown during the nineteenth century, fewer than o hundred remain. In the Philippines, thousands of varieties of rice once thrived; now only up to a hundred are grown there. In China, 90 percent of the wheat varieties cultivated just a century ago have disappeared. Farmers in the past painstakingly bred and developed crops well suited to the peculiarities of their local climate and environment. In the recent past, our heavy dependence on a few high yielding varieties and technology-driven production and distribution of food is causing the dwindling of diversity in food crops. If some mutating crop disease or future climate change decimates the few crop plants we have come to depend on to feed our growing population, we might desperately need some of those varieties we have let go extinct.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Humans have been the main reason for the large scale extinction of plant species. Consumption of food mainly from locally cultivated crops ensures crop diversity. The present style of production and distribution of food will finally lead to the problem of food scarcity in the near future. Our food security may depend on our ability to preserve the locally cultivated varieties of crops. Which of the above assumptions are valid?
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 4
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 4
Explanation: The passage discusses extinction of food varieties, not all plant species. The assumption that locally cultivated crops ensure diversity aligns with the passage's emphasis on local breeding. The passage warns about dependence on few varieties but does not claim near-term universal scarcity. Preserving local varieties is implied for future food security.
What is X in the sequence 132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X?
Explanation: The differences between consecutive terms are 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, which are consecutive odd primes starting from 3. The next difference is 17. Therefore X = 93 - 17 = 76.
A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hours. The clock was set right to show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on Monday. When the clock shows the time 6:00 p.m. on Wednesday, what is the correct time?
- 5:36 p.m.
- 5:30 p.m.
- 5:24 p.m.
- 5:18 p.m.
Explanation: The fast clock runs 1450 minutes for every 1440 correct minutes. From Monday 8:00 a.m. to Wednesday 6:00 p.m. on the fast clock is 58 hours = 3480 minutes. Correct time elapsed = 3480 * 1440 / 1450 = 3456 minutes = 57 hours 36 minutes. Adding to Monday 8:00 a.m. gives Wednesday 5:36 p.m.
If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the resulting fraction is
- always less than the original fraction
- always greater than the original fraction
- always equal to the original fraction
- such that nothing can be claimed definitely
Explanation: For a positive proper fraction where the numerator is smaller than the denominator, adding the same positive quantity to both increases the value. However, if the fraction is negative, the result differs. Since the sign is not specified, no definite claim can be made.
What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X?
Explanation: The sequence alternates between two patterns. Odd positions are squares of even numbers: 2^2=4, 4^2=16, 6^2=36, 8^2=64. Even positions are squares of descending even numbers from 14: 14^2=196, 12^2=144, 10^2=100, 8^2=64. Thus X = 64.
In a group of 15 people; 7 can read French, 8 can read English while 3 of them can read neither of these two languages. The number of people who can read exactly one language is
Explanation: Total who read at least one language = 15 - 3 = 12. Using the principle n(A union B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A intersect B), we get 12 = 7 + 8 - n(intersection), so n(intersection) = 3. Exactly one language = (7-3) + (8-3) = 4 + 5 = 9.
A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?
Explanation: Digits used for pages 1-9: 9. Pages 10-99: 180. Pages 100-999: 2700. Total through 999 = 2889 digits. Remaining digits = 3089 - 2889 = 200. Each 4-digit page number uses 4 digits, giving 200/4 = 50 more pages. Total = 999 + 50 = 1049.
Consider the following sequence that follows some arrangement: c_accaa_aa_bc_b. The letters that appear in the gaps are
Explanation: Grouping the filled sequence into sets of five gives ccacc aabaa bbcbb. The pattern repeats every five characters with the gaps filled by c, b, b, and b respectively.
A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of the children and their father is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what is the weight of the mother?
Explanation: Let the sum of the two children's weights be C. Then C + mother = 150 and C + father = 156. Given father = 60, we get C = 96. Substituting back, mother = 150 - 96 = 54 kg.
Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations: Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs. 107?
Explanation: Case 1 (two 50-rupee notes): 1 way. Case 2 (one 50-rupee note): the number of 10-rupee notes can range from 0 to 5, giving 6 ways. Case 3 (no 50-rupee notes): the number of 10-rupee notes can range from 1 to 10, giving 10 ways. Case 4 (only 1-rupee notes): 1 way. Total = 1 + 6 + 10 + 1 = 18.
A started from his house and walked 20 m towards East, where his friend B joined him. They together walked 10 m in the same direction. Then A turned left while B turned right and travelled 2 m and 8 m respectively. Again B turned left to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right to reach his office. A turned right and travelled 12 m to reach his office. What is the shortest distance between the two offices?
Explanation: Using coordinate geometry with A's house at the origin, A's office is at (42, 2) and B's office is at (34, -13). The horizontal separation is 8 m and vertical separation is 15 m. The shortest distance is sqrt(8^2 + 15^2) = sqrt(289) = 17 m.
Consider two statements S1 and S2 followed by a question: S1: p and q both are prime numbers. S2: p + q is an odd integer. Question: Is pq an odd integer? Which one of the following is correct?
- S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question
- S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
- Both S1 and S2 taken together are not sufficient to answer the question
- Both S1 and S2 are necessary to answer the question
Explanation: S1 alone is insufficient because the set of primes includes 2, which is even, so the product pq could be even or odd depending on whether 2 is included. S2 alone is insufficient because p and q may not be integers. Combining both: if p and q are prime and their sum is odd, one must be 2 (the only even prime) and the other must be odd, making the product pq always even. Therefore both statements together are necessary to determine that pq is not odd.
Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009?
Explanation: To match calendars, both the first day of the year and the year type (ordinary or leap) must align. From 2009 to 2015, the cumulative odd days are: 2009 (1), 2010 (1), 2011 (1), 2012 (2, leap year), 2013 (1), 2014 (1), 2015 (1). Total = 7 odd days, which is equivalent to 0. Since both 2009 and 2015 are ordinary years starting on the same day, they share the same calendar.
Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is
Explanation: Adding the unit digits: 6 + 7 = 13, giving a carry of 1. Then 1 + 3 + B = 10 + A, which simplifies to B - A = 6. For 7A3 to be divisible by 3, the digit sum 7 + A + 3 = 10 + A must be divisible by 3, so A can be 2, 5, or 8. Only A = 2 satisfies both conditions with a single-digit B, yielding B = 8.
Passage: What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of Genetic Modification (GM) technology is an Intellectual Property Rights regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses.
Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
- Public research institutions should take the lead in GM technology and prioritise the technology agenda.
- Developing countries should raise this issue in WTO and ensure the abolition of Intellectual Property Rights.
- Private corporations should not be allowed to do agribusiness in India, particularly the seed business.
- Present Indian circumstances do not favour the cultivation of genetically modified crops.
Explanation: The passage criticizes corporate-driven GM technology for prioritizing short-term profit traits like herbicide tolerance over long-term resilience traits like drought resistance. It implies that public institutions, rather than profit-driven corporations, should lead GM research to address these national priorities.
Passage: What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of Genetic Modification (GM) technology is an Intellectual Property Rights regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: The issue of effects of natural calamities on agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies. In the long run, GM technology will not be able to solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that corporations invest in herbicide and pest resistance while neglecting drought and salinity resistance, supporting the first assumption. The second assumption is too absolute; the passage does not claim that GM technology will never solve climate-related agricultural problems, only that current corporate priorities are misaligned.
Passage: Most invasive species are neither terribly successful nor very harmful. Britain's invasive plants are not widespread, not spreading especially quickly, and often less of a nuisance than vigorous natives such as bracken. The arrival of new species almost always increases biological diversity in a region; in many cases, a flood of newcomers drives no native species to extinction. One reason is that invaders tend to colonise disturbed habitats like polluted lakes and post-industrial wasteland, where little else lives. They are nature's opportunists.
Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
- Invasive species should be used to rehabilitate desert areas and wastelands of a country.
- Laws against the introduction of foreign plants are unnecessary.
- Sometimes, the campaigns against foreign plants are pointless.
- Foreign plants should be used to increase the biodiversity of a country.
Explanation: The passage describes invasive species as opportunists that colonize disturbed habitats like wasteland and increase biodiversity without driving natives to extinction. The most logical inference is utilizing this characteristic to rehabilitate degraded lands. The other options are either too extreme or not directly supported.
Passage: Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are mostly due to food and water contamination. Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe chemicals in agriculture, poor hygiene in storage and handling of food items to food cooked and distributed in unhygienic surroundings; there are myriad factors that need regulation and monitoring. People need to have awareness of adulteration and ways of complaining to the relevant authorities. Surveillance of food-borne diseases involves a number of government agencies and entails good training of inspection staff. Considering the proportion of the urban population that depends on street food for its daily meals, investing in training and education of street vendors is of great significance.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Food safety is a complex issue that calls for a multipronged solution. Great investments need to be made in developing the manpower for surveillance and training. India needs to make sufficient legislation for governing food processing industry. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage identifies multiple factors requiring regulation and monitoring, supporting the assumption that food safety is complex and needs multipronged solutions. It also implies the need for legislation through regulation and surveillance. However, the passage does not state that 'great investments' in manpower development are needed, only that training and education are significant.
Passage: The interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of our cities. Our cities are increasingly intolerant, unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old ways — the static Development Plan — that draws exclusively from technical expertise, distanced from people's live experiences and needs, and actively excluding large number of people, places, activities and practices that are an integral part of the city.
The passage seems to argue
- against the monopoly of builders and the interests of elite groups.
- against the need for global and smart cities.
- in favour of planning cities mainly for working class and poor people.
- in favour of participation of peoples' groups in city planning.
Explanation: While the passage highlights the neglect of working and poor people, its broader argument is against planning that is distanced from people's lived experiences. The most comprehensive inference is that city planning should involve participation from peoples' groups to address these exclusions.
Passage: A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely 10 percent employed in the organised sector. We are being convinced that vigorous economic growth is generating substantial employment. But this is not so. When our economy was growing at 3 percent per year, employment in the organised sector was growing at 2 percent per year. As the economy began to grow at 7 - 8 percent per year, the rate of growth of employment in the organised sector actually declined to 1 percent per year.
The above passage seems to imply that most of modern economic growth is based on technological progress. much of modern Indian economy does not nurture sufficient symbiotic relationship with labour-intensive, natural resource-based livelihoods. service sector in India is not very labour-intensive. literate rural population is not willing to enter organised sector. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 and 4 only
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: The passage notes that despite higher economic growth, organized sector employment declined, implying growth is driven by technological progress rather than labor-intensive expansion. It suggests a disconnect between growth and labor-intensive livelihoods. Statements about the service sector and rural willingness are not supported.
Passage: India has banking correspondents, who help bring people in the hinterland into the banking fold. For them to succeed, banks cannot crimp on costs. They also cannot afford to ignore investing in financial education and literacy. Banking correspondents are way too small to be viewed as a systemic risk. Yet India's banking regulator has restricted them to serving only one bank, perhaps to prevent arbitrage. Efforts at banking outreach may succeed only if there are better incentives at work for such last-mile workers and also those providers who ensure not just basic bank accounts but also products such as accident and life insurance and micro pension schemes.
Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?
- Efforts to bring people in India's hinterland into the banking system are not successful.
- For meaningful financial inclusion, India's banking system needs more number of banking correspondents and other such last-mile workers.
- Meaningful financial inclusion in India requires that banking correspondents have diverse skills
- Better banking outreach would be impossible unless each banking correspondent is allowed to serve a number of banks
Explanation: The passage explicitly identifies the restriction that each correspondent serves only one bank as a barrier and links better outreach to improved incentives for last-mile workers. The core inference is that removing this single-bank restriction is essential for better banking outreach.
The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is
Explanation: Counting occurrences of digit 5 by number length: one-digit numbers contribute 1 occurrence. Two-digit numbers contribute 17 single occurrences plus 1 double occurrence (55), totaling 19. Three-digit numbers contribute 225 single occurrences, 26 double occurrences, and 1 triple occurrence (555). Summing all: 1 + 17 + 1 + 225 + 26 + 1 = 271.
A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?
Explanation: Let the weight of block A be 100 kg. When B is placed on A, the total weight becomes 160 kg, so block B weighs 60 kg. Removing B reduces the weight by 60 kg from a total of 160 kg, which is a reduction of 60/160 multiplied by 100 = 37.5%.
Mr 'X' has three children. The birthday of the first child falls on the 5th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the 5th Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which falls on 20th December?
- Monday
- Thursday
- Saturday
- Sunday
Explanation: November has 30 days, so any day occurring five times must be among the first two or last two days of the month. The fifth Thursday must fall on either November 29 or November 30. If November 29 is Thursday, then December 20 is Thursday. If November 30 is Thursday, then December 20 would be Wednesday, which is not among the options. Therefore December 20 must be Thursday.
Consider the following Statements and Conclusions: Statements: Some rats are cats. Some cats are dogs. No dog is a cow. Conclusions: No cow is a cat. No dog is a rat. Some cats are rats. Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn from the statements?
- I, II and III
- Only I and II
- Only III
- Only II and III
Explanation: From the first statement 'Some rats are cats,' the converse 'Some cats are rats' follows directly, making the third conclusion valid. No valid inference connects all cows to cats or all dogs to rats, as the premises use 'some' and the middle term is not distributed appropriately. Thus only the third conclusion is valid.
The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines, is
Explanation: A parallelogram is formed by selecting any two lines from the first set of four parallel lines and any two lines from the second set of four parallel lines. The number of ways to choose two lines from four is 4 choose 2 = 6. Therefore the total number of parallelograms is 6 multiplied by 6 = 36.
In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer if and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to 100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as football?
Explanation: A student plays both cricket and football if their identification number is divisible by both 4 and 6, which means divisible by the least common multiple of 4 and 6, which is 12. Between 1 and 100, the multiples of 12 are 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, and 96, giving exactly 8 students.
When a runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she was informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometres was the runner supposed to run in this event?
Explanation: If 12 km represents 80% of the total race distance, then the total distance equals 12 divided by 0.8, which equals 15 km.
Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he wants to buy a mobile handset; but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset. Therefore, he borrows 2000 from a friend. Then
- Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the handset.
- Raju has exactly the same amount as required to buy the handset.
- Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 500 with him after buying the handset.
- Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 1000 with him after buying the handset.
Explanation: Since 9000 rupees is 75% of the handset price, the full price is 9000 divided by 0.75, which equals 12000 rupees. After borrowing 2000 rupees, Raju has 11000 rupees, which is still 1000 rupees short of the required amount.
In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu's age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu's year of birth?
Explanation: Let Meenu's age in 2002 be M and Meera's age be R. Then M = R/3 and M + 8 = (R + 8)/2. Substituting R = 3M into the second equation gives 2M + 16 = 3M + 8, which yields M = 8. Therefore Meenu was 8 years old in 2002, meaning she was born in 1994.
Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket costs three times a ball does, then what is the price of a racket?
- Rs. 70
- Rs. 90
- Rs. 210
- Rs. 240
Explanation: Let the cost of each ball be X rupees. Then each racket costs 3X rupees. The total cost of 10 balls and 10 rackets is 10X + 30X = 40X, which equals 1300 + 1500 = 2800. Solving 40X = 2800 gives X = 70, so the price of a racket is 3 multiplied by 70 = 210 rupees.
In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the following statements is/are correct? At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian. At least 10 Indian participants are non-vegetarian.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: To maximize non-Indian vegetarians, all 30 non-Indians could be vegetarian, leaving 60 - 30 = 30 Indian vegetarians as the minimum. To minimize Indian non-vegetarians, if all 60 vegetarians are Indian, then 70 - 60 = 10 Indians must be non-vegetarian. Thus both statements are always true.
Passage: Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that continue into the present in some form or the other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons might account for resistance to repair. One, not only are the roots of injustice buried deep in history, injustice itself constitutes economic structures of exploitation, ideologies of discrimination and modes of representation. Two, the category of historical injustice generally extends across a number of wrongs such as economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. This category is complex, not only because of the overlap between a number of wrongs, but because one or the other wrong, generally discrimination, tends to acquire partial autonomy from others. This is borne out by the history of repair in India.
What is the main idea that we can infer from the passage?
- Untouchability in India has not been taken seriously by political theorists.
- Historical injustice is inevitable in any society and is always beyond repair.
- Social discrimination and deprivation have their roots in bad economies.
- It is difficult, if not impossible, to repair every manifestation of historical injustice.
Explanation: The passage discusses how historical injustice resists repair due to deep historical roots and the complex overlap of economic, social, and recognition-based wrongs. The main inference is that complete repair of all manifestations is extremely difficult.
Passage: Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that continue into the present in some form or the other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons might account for resistance to repair. One, not only are the roots of injustice buried deep in history, injustice itself constitutes economic structures of exploitation, ideologies of discrimination and modes of representation. Two, the category of historical injustice generally extends across a number of wrongs such as economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. This category is complex, not only because of the overlap between a number of wrongs, but because one or the other wrong, generally discrimination, tends to acquire partial autonomy from others. This is borne out by the history of repair in India.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Removal of economic discrimination leads to removal of social discrimination. Democratic polity is the best way to repair historical wrongs. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2.
Explanation: The passage states that historical injustice involves overlapping wrongs where discrimination can acquire partial autonomy from economic deprivation, so removing economic discrimination does not automatically remove social discrimination. Democratic polity as the best solution is not mentioned in the passage.
Passage: Education plays a great transformatory role in life, particularly so in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. Universities are the custodians of the intellectual capital and promoters of culture and specialized knowledge. Culture is an activity of thought, and receptiveness to beauty and human feelings. A merely well informed man is only a bore on God's earth. What we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and expert knowledge. Their expert knowledge will give them a firm ground to start from and their culture will lead them as deep as philosophy and as high as art. Together it will impart meaning to human existence.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: A society without well educated people cannot be transformed into a modern society. Without acquiring culture, a person's education is not complete. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage emphasizes education's transformative role in a globalizing world, supporting the first assumption when 'well educated' is understood to include both knowledge and culture. The second assumption is explicitly supported by the passage's argument that culture and expert knowledge together are necessary.
Passage: Soil, in which nearly all our food grows, is a living resource that takes years to form. Yet it can vanish in minutes. Each year 75 billion tonnes of fertile soil is lost to erosion. That is alarming — and not just for food producers. Soil can trap huge quantities of carbon dioxide in the form of organic carbon and prevent it from escaping into the atmosphere.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Large scale soil erosion is a major reason for widespread food insecurity in the world. Soil erosion is mainly anthropogenic. Sustainable management of soils helps in combating climate change. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage does not establish a direct causal link between soil erosion and widespread food insecurity, nor does it attribute soil erosion primarily to human activity. It explicitly states that soil traps carbon dioxide, which directly supports the assumption that sustainable soil management helps combat climate change.
Passage: Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not measurable... Like the force of gravity, power is the organising principle of inequality, be it of income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and region. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure.
On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society. Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc, reinforces power. Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage describes power as the organizing principle but does not claim it is the sole reason for inequality. It states power drives inequality, not that inequality reinforces power. It explicitly notes that power's effects are visible while its mechanisms remain obscure, supporting the third assumption that analysis must proceed through effects rather than direct empirical measurement.
Passage: Climate change may actually benefit some plants by lengthening growing seasons and increasing carbon dioxide. Yet other effects of a warmer world, such as more pests, droughts, and flooding, will be less benign. How will the world adapt? Researchers project that by 2050, suitable croplands for four commodities — maize, potatoes, rice and wheat — will shift, in some cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some farmlands may benefit from warming, but others won't. Climate alone does not dictate yields; political shifts, global demand, and agricultural practices will influence how farms fare in the future.
Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
- Farmers who modernize their methods and diversify their fields will be in an advantageous position in future.
- Climate change will adversely affect the crop diversity.
- Shifting major crops to new croplands will lead to a great increase in the total area under cultivation and thus an increase in overall agricultural production.
- Climate change is the most important factor affecting the agricultural economy in the future.
Explanation: The passage centers on how climate change will shift suitable croplands and alter agricultural conditions by 2050. While other factors like politics and practices matter, the dominant theme is climate change as the primary force reshaping agricultural geography and economics.
Passage: A bat's wings may look like sheets of skin. But underneath, a bat has the same five fingers as an orangutan or a human, as well as a wrist connected to the same cluster of wrist bones connected to the same long bones of the arm. What can be more curious than that the hand of a man, formed for grasping, that of a mole for digging, the leg of the horse, the paddle of the porpoise, and the wing of the bat, should all be constructed on the same pattern?
Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
- Different species having similar structure of hands is an example of biodiversity.
- Limbs being used by different species for different kinds of work is an example of biodiversity.
- Man and the aforementioned animals having similar structure of limbs is an example of coincidence in evolution.
- Man and the aforementioned animals have a shared evolutionary history.
Explanation: The passage describes homologous structures — the same underlying bone pattern adapted for different functions across species. This anatomical similarity is evidence of common ancestry and shared evolutionary history rather than coincidence or biodiversity.
Passage: Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean had not fully opened and animals, perhaps including our primate ancestors, could walk from Asia to North America through Europe and across Greenland. Earth was warmer than it is today, but as the Palaeocene epoch gave way to Eocene, it was about to get much warmer still — rapidly and radically. The cause was a massive geologically sudden release of carbon. During this period called Palaeocene - Eocene Thermal Maximum or PETM, the carbon injected into the atmosphere was roughly the amount that would be injected today if humans burned all the Earth's reserves of coal, oil and natural gas. The PETM lasted for about 1,50,000 years, until the excess carbon was reabsorbed. It brought on drought, floods, insect plagues and a few extinctions. Life on Earth survived — indeed, it prospered — but it was drastically different.
Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: Global warming has a bearing on the planet's biological evolution. Separation of land masses causes the release of huge quantities of carbon into the atmosphere. Increased warming of Earth's atmosphere can change the composition of its flora and fauna. The present man-made global warming will finally lead to conditions similar to those which happened 56 million years ago. Which of the assumptions given above are valid?
- 1 and 2
- 3 and 4
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 4
Explanation: The passage states that life survived but was drastically different after PETM, supporting assumptions that global warming affects biological evolution and can alter flora and fauna. It does not link land mass separation to carbon release, nor does it equate present warming conditions to the extreme PETM scenario.
A five-storeyed building with floors from I to V is painted using four different colours and only one colour is used to paint a floor. Consider the following statements: The middle three floors are painted in different colours. The second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in different colours. The first (I) and the fifth (V) floors are painted red. To ensure that any two consecutive floors have different colours
- Only statement 2 is sufficient
- Only statement 3 is sufficient
- Statement 1 is not sufficient, but statement 1 along with statement 2 is sufficient
- Statement 3 is not sufficient, but statement 3 along with statement 2 is sufficient.
Explanation: With four colors available for five floors, if floors I and V are both red, the remaining three floors must each use one of the other three colors. Since there are exactly three remaining floors and three remaining colors, each middle floor gets a unique non-red color, ensuring no two consecutive floors share the same color. Thus the third statement alone is sufficient.