Passage: Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.
According to the passage, which of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration? 1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountability of the civil services. 2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services. 3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services. 4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context.
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 4 only
- 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: The passage attributes adverse consequences to the tilt toward greater internal accountability to political leaders and the failure of the system for societal accountability, indicating an inability to balance internal and external accountability. It also highlights the need to define respective roles of civil services and political executive, implying that the lack of such constitutional definitions is a contributing factor. The passage does not mention inadequate professional training or service benefits.
Passage: Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of civil services to the society. 2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society. Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage notes that political leaders are expected to be externally accountable through elections, but the system has not worked out effectively. It does not characterize the political executive as an obstacle to accountability, nor does it state that the political executive is no longer accountable. The passage focuses on the need to balance accountability mechanisms rather than assigning blame to the political executive.
Passage: Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.
Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?
- Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving
- Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership
- The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services
- There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services
Explanation: The passage discusses deficiencies in governance due to lack of accountability, reviews constitutional provisions, and proposes measures such as the Civil Services Bill, statutory civil service boards, and decentralization. The central message is the need for reform to improve civil service accountability.
Passage: Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability.
According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?
- Better job security and safeguards
- Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission
- Judicial review of executive decisions
- Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making process
Explanation: The passage explicitly lists internal performance monitoring, supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission, and judicial review as means of internal accountability. Decentralization and enhanced participation by people in decision-making are presented as measures to strengthen external accountability by bringing government closer to the people, not internal accountability mechanisms.
Passage: In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced, virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions. 2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god. 3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice. Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage states that our duties to one another derive from religious traditions, supporting assumption 1. However, it mentions duty to god or some universal ethical principle, which invalidates the exclusivity in assumption 2. The passage emphasizes community solidarity as essential for justice, not religious traditions themselves, making assumption 3 invalid.
Passage: In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced, virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice.
Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?
- Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions
- Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue
- Balance between rights and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society
- Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to god
Explanation: While the passage mentions duties, rights, and religious traditions, its central argument is that the correspondence between rights and duties is critical to understanding justice, and that justice requires grounding in community solidarity. The balance between rights and duties best captures the crux.
A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was
- Apple
- Pineapple
- Grapes
- Oranges
Explanation: B and C are the ones who fell sick. The common fruit consumed by both B and C is oranges. A and D did not eat oranges and did not fall sick. Therefore, oranges are the most likely cause.
Consider the following statements: 1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country. 2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate. 3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate. 4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country. Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?
- The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration
- The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only
- The rate of population growth is increasing due to increase in birth rate only
- The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate
Explanation: Population growth rate depends on the difference between birth rate and death rate. If the death rate declines faster than the birth rate, the gap between them widens, causing population growth to increase. Rural-urban migration affects distribution, not the overall growth rate.
A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?
- 3 km east, then 2 km south
- 3 km east, then 1 km north
- 1 km north, then 2 km west
- 3 km south, then 1 km north
Explanation: Starting from the origin, moving 3 km north places the person at coordinate (0, 3). Moving 3 km west places them at (-3, 3). Moving 4 km south places them at (-3, -1). To return to the origin (0, 0), the person must travel 3 km east and 1 km north.
We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking. Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?
- We go for a picnic but not for trekking
- Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities
- We go for trekking and not for picnic
- We do not go either for picnic or for trekking
Explanation: The statement is an exclusive disjunction claiming that at least one of the two activities will occur. The claim is falsified when neither activity takes place. Going for only one activity satisfies the claim, and health authorities' encouragement is irrelevant to the truth value of the claim.
There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party it was discovered that no member knew music. The conclusion is that:
- the party comprised male faculty members only
- the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give renderings in music
- the party comprised both male and female faculty members
- nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party
Explanation: Since no male knew music, the six members could all be males. However, since only many (not all) females knew music, some females also did not know music. Therefore, the party could consist entirely of males, entirely of non-music females, or any mixture. The absence of musical knowledge does not determine gender composition.
Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. (i) C is seated next to A (ii) A is seated two seats from D (iii) B is not seated next to A. On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true? 1. D is seated next to B 2. B is seated next to A 3. D and C are separated by two seats
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3
Explanation: Placing A at a reference position, C must be adjacent to A. Since A is two seats from D, there is exactly one person between A and D. Given B cannot be adjacent to A, the only valid arrangements are A-C-D-B-E or A-E-D-B-C reading clockwise. In both valid arrangements, D is adjacent to B, B is not adjacent to A, and D and C are separated by one seat, not two. Therefore, only statement 1 must be true.
There are five hobby clubs in a college — photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?
Explanation: All five groups will meet on the same day at intervals equal to the least common multiple of their meeting frequencies. LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 is 60. Within 180 days, the common meeting days are day 60, day 120, and day 180, giving exactly 3 occasions.
There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are:
- 2 and 4
- 3 and 2
- 3 and 4
- 4 and 3
Explanation: Let the number of flowers be F and the number of bees be B. If one bee per flower leaves one bee out, then B = F + 1. If two bees per flower leaves one flower out, then B = 2(F - 1). Solving F + 1 = 2F - 2 yields F = 3 and B = 4.
There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor. Who is the doctor?
Explanation: Since Q is neither doctor nor artist, Q must be the lawyer. Since R is not doctor and Q is already the lawyer, R must be the artist. This leaves P, S, and T as potential doctors. P and S are unmarried students, making it unlikely they hold the professional role of doctor in this context, whereas T is an adult married man. Therefore, T is the doctor.
There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor. Who is the artist?
Explanation: Q is neither doctor nor artist, so Q is the lawyer. R is explicitly stated as not doctor. Since Q occupies the lawyer role, R must be the artist.
There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor. Who is the spouse of R?
Explanation: T is married to one of the group members. P and S are unmarried, eliminating them. Q is the brother of P, and no marital information is given for Q. Since T is married and R is the only remaining member without a determined spouse, T must be married to R.
There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor. Who is the lawyer?
Explanation: The group has exactly one doctor, one lawyer, and one artist. Q is explicitly stated as neither doctor nor artist. By elimination, Q must be the lawyer.
There are five persons in a group — P, Q, R, S and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and is neither doctor nor artist. R is not doctor. Who of the following is definitely a man?
Explanation: Q is explicitly described as the brother of P, which definitively establishes Q as male. T is also described as a man, but T is not listed among the first three options. Therefore, among the given choices, Q is definitely a man.
There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per day out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed?
Explanation: Daily production is 1000 units, but 5% are unfit, leaving 950 units fit for sale per day. To fulfill an order of 19000 units, the required number of days is 19000 divided by 950, which equals 20 days.
Passage: Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate. Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 - 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 ~ 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century. Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis, Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.
What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation? 1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass. 2. Biomass production competes with food production. 3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis.
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage identifies the challenge of long-term reliable supply as a key constraint. It notes that energy crops can compete with food production. It also states that some liquid biofuels may aggravate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis, indicating that bio-energy is not always low carbon. All three statements are valid constraints mentioned in the passage.
Passage: Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate. Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 - 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 ~ 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century. Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis, Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.
Which of the following can lead to food security problem? 1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation. 2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage. 3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops.
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. It does not link the use of agricultural and forest residues or biomass-based carbon capture and storage to food security problems.
Passage: Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate. Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 - 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 ~ 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century. Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis, Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.
In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel? 1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050. 2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources. 3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies.
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage states that the maximum sustainable technical potential without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 to 170 exajoules, supporting statement 2. It mentions that some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage to achieve negative emissions, supporting statement 3. However, it projects biomass at only around 150-200 exajoules, which is almost a quarter of world primary energy, not all of it, making statement 1 incorrect.
Passage: Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts of a changing climate. Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity. Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 - 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 ~ 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century. Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis, Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks — such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood — hold the promise of sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage.
With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been made: 1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions. 2. It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources. Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage opens by stating that biomass has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources, validating assumption 1. However, it explicitly mentions a maximum sustainable technical potential that can be achieved without disruption of food and forest resources, which contradicts assumption 2.
Passage: We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future.
Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
- In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides only due to green revolution
- Monocropping vast fields with high-yield varieties is possible due to green revolution
- Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the only way to ensure food security to millions
- Green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run
Explanation: The passage describes the green revolution as a mixed blessing that has led to dwindling biodiversity and reliance on genetically weaker crops, putting future food security at risk. This directly supports the inference that the green revolution threatens biodiversity and long-term food security. The other options are either too narrow or misrepresent the passage.
A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is:
- 48 minutes
- 50 minutes
- 51 minutes
- 53 minutes
Explanation: The total duration from 11:00 am to 2:27 pm is 3 hours and 27 minutes, which equals 207 minutes. With four periods and a rest of 5 minutes after each of the first three periods, the total rest time is 15 minutes. Subtracting 15 minutes from 207 leaves 192 minutes for the four periods. Dividing 192 by 4 gives 48 minutes per period.
Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows: A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?
- 23 minutes
- 22 minutes
- 21 minutes
- 20 minutes
Explanation: Since A is the fastest and must return the lamp each time, the optimal sequence is: A and B cross (2 minutes), A returns (1 minute), A and C cross (7 minutes), A returns (1 minute), A and D cross (10 minutes), A returns (1 minute) to return the lamp to the original place, and A crosses again without the lamp (1 minute). The total time is 2 + 1 + 7 + 1 + 10 + 1 + 1 = 23 minutes.
30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. The solution in vessel B is
- sweeter than that in C
- sweeter than that in A
- as sweet as that in C
- less sweet than that in C
Explanation: The sweetness depends on the concentration of sugar. Vessel A has 30/180 = 1/6 or approximately 16.7% sugar. Vessel B has 40/280 = 1/7 or approximately 14.3% sugar. Vessel C has 20/100 = 1/5 or 20% sugar. Since vessel B at 14.3% is less concentrated than vessel C at 20%, it is less sweet than C.
In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class?
Explanation: If there are N students, each contributes N rupees, giving a base collection of N^2 rupees. With one additional contribution of Rs. 2, the total becomes N^2 + 2 = 443. Therefore, N^2 = 441, and N = 21.
Anita's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e. 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is:
Explanation: Anita correctly answered 70% of 10 arithmetic questions (7 correct), 40% of 30 algebra questions (12 correct), and 60% of 30 geometry questions (18 correct), giving a total of 37 correct answers out of 70. To pass, she needs 60% of 70, which is 42 correct answers. The difference is 42 - 37 = 5 more questions.
In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class?
Explanation: If 18 boys represent three-fourths of all boys, then total boys equals 18 multiplied by 4/3, which is 24. Since boys are two-thirds of total students, total students equals 24 multiplied by 3/2, which is 36. Therefore, girls equal 36 minus 24, giving 12.
Consider the following statements: 1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B. 2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C. 3. B is older than C. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
- A is older than B
- B and D are of the same age
- D is older than C
- A is older than C
Explanation: From statement 3, B is older than C. From statement 1, either A equals B in age or A is older than B. In both cases, A is at least as old as B. Since B is older than C, it follows that A is older than C. Statement 2 does not provide information linking D to A or C in a way that produces the other conclusions.
The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the percentage of males employed in the company is
Explanation: Using the rule of alligation, the ratio of male to female employees is determined by the distances from the overall average: (5000 minus 4200) to (5200 minus 5000), which simplifies to 800:200 or 4:1. The percentage of male employees equals 4 divided by 5 multiplied by 100, which is 80 percent.
Passage: Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.
Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?
Explanation: Box A is at the extreme right position 6 with tennis and orange. Box C is fifth from right, meaning position 2 from left, with cricket and green. Since C is next to B, B is at position 1 or 3. B contains volleyball. The hockey ball must be between golf and volleyball. If B were at position 1, hockey would need to be at position 2, but position 2 is C with cricket. Therefore B is at position 3. Hockey must then be at position 4, and golf at position 5. Since hockey is neither in D nor E, hockey is in F at position 4. Golf is not in D, so golf must be in E at position 5.
Passage: Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- D is painted yellow
- F is painted indigo
- B is painted blue
- All of the above
Explanation: From the arrangement, positions 1 and 3 hold boxes D and B in some order, with colours blue and yellow. Position 4 holds F with hockey. The hockey ball is neither in blue nor yellow, so F must be indigo. The colours of D and B remain undetermined between blue and yellow, making the statements about them individually uncertain. Therefore, only the statement that F is painted indigo is definitively correct.
Passage: Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball.
The football is in the box of which colour?
- Yellow
- Indigo
- Cannot be determined
- Blue
Explanation: The six games are assigned as follows: tennis in A, cricket in C, volleyball in B, hockey in F, golf in E. By elimination, football must be in D at position 1. The colours for positions 1 and 3 are blue and yellow in some order. Since D occupies position 1, its colour could be either blue or yellow. Therefore, the colour of the box containing football cannot be determined.
A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the shuttle service?
Explanation: A train leaving at 6 AM takes 42 hours to reach the other station, arriving at midnight the following day. It can depart again at 6 AM on the next day, completing a full round trip cycle every 4 days. To maintain a daily departure at 6 AM from both stations simultaneously, four trains are required so that one is always available at each terminus for the scheduled departure.
A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is
Explanation: A closed cube has six square faces. The total surface area of the cube equals the area of the tin rectangle, which is 12 multiplied by 8, giving 96 square cm. If the side of the cube is s, then 6s squared equals 96. Solving gives s squared equals 16, so s equals 4 cm.
In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices - True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is
Explanation: Each of the five questions has two possible answers, so the total number of distinct answer sequences is 2 raised to the power 5, which equals 32. To ensure no two candidates have identical sequences, the maximum number of candidates is exactly equal to the number of possible unique sequences.
Passage: By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return for payoffs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economies like India is the middle-income trap where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth.
Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
- Launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for the current schemes are urgently needed
- Efforts should be made to push up economic growth by other means and provide licences to the poor
- Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present
- We should concentrate more on developing manufacturing sector than service sector
Explanation: The passage identifies crony capitalism as harmful because it kills transparency and competition, and describes how influence and payoffs distort resource allocation. The most direct corollary is to restore transparency and promote financial inclusion to counter these distortions.
Passage: Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated measures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest management and agricultural information services. Some of these measures may have to do with climate changes and others with economic development.
What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
- It is difficult to pursue climate adaptation in the developing countries
- Improving food security is a far more complex issue than climate adaptation
- Every developmental activity is directly or indirectly linked to climate adaptation
- Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options
Explanation: The passage argues that climate adaptation becomes ineffective when isolated from other development concerns, and uses food security as an example requiring both climate and economic measures. The inference is that climate adaptation must be considered alongside economic development.
Passage: Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle enables better policy-making. The term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and the ecosystems in which they occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions. In turn, vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. Every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacteria, soil and other organisms. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water is a critical service that the environment provides.
Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
- Biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water
- We cannot get potable water without the existence of living organisms
- Plants, animals and microorganisms continuously interact among themselves
- Living organisms could not have come into existence without hydrological cycle
Explanation: The passage emphasizes the interdependence of water and biodiversity, describing how ecosystems cleanse water and make it fit for consumption. The most critical inference is that biodiversity maintains the natural water recycling and purification process.
Passage: In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is a need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that does not exclude the common man.
Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?
- Need for more automation and more products of banks
- Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system
- Need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions
- Need to promote financial inclusion
Explanation: The passage contrasts the current banking focus on middle and upper-middle classes with the need for a new agenda that does not exclude the common man. This directly implies the need for financial inclusion to extend services to all segments of society.
Passage: Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dignity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, only goes to show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging.
With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: 1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only. 2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage calls for a sustained campaign on sanitation rights and focuses on abolishing manual scavenging, but it does not claim that abolition alone will fully solve all urban sanitation problems. Statement 2 is supported by the call for a large-scale campaign promoting safe sanitation practices.
Passage: To understand the nature and quantity of Government proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she intended. In all cases she made his natural wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is capable, without the aid of society, of supplying his own wants; and those wants, acting upon every individual, impel the whole of them into society.
Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
- Nature has created a great diversity in human society
- Any given human society is always short of its wants
- Social life is a specific characteristic of man
- Diverse natural wants forced man towards social system
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that natural wants exceed individual powers, and that these wants impel individuals into society. This directly supports the inference that diverse natural wants drove humans toward a social system.
Passage: The nature of the legal imperatives in any given state corresponds to the effective demands that state encounters, and that these, in their turn, depend, in a general way, upon the manner in which economic power is distributed in the society which the state controls.
The statement refers to:
- the antithesis of Politics and Economics
- the interrelationship of Politics and Economics
- the predominance of Economics over Politics
- the predominance of Politics over Economics
Explanation: The passage describes how legal imperatives reflect state demands, which in turn depend on economic power distribution. This portrays a mutual relationship between political and economic systems rather than dominance of one over the other.
Passage: About 15 per cent of global greenhouse gas emissions come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous oxide from fertilizers; methane from livestock, rice production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide (CO2) from burning biomass, but this excludes CO2 emissions from soil management practices, savannah burning and deforestation. Forestry, land use, and land-use change account for another 17 per cent of greenhouse gas emissions each year, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same amount of carbon is stored in the world's peatlands as is stored in the Amazon rainforest.
Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
- Organic farming should immediately replace mechanised and chemical dependant agricultural practices all over the world
- It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate climate change
- There are no technological solutions to the problem of greenhouse gas emissions
- Tropical areas are the chief sites of carbon sequestration
Explanation: The passage highlights substantial greenhouse gas contributions from agriculture, forestry, land use, and deforestation. The logical inference is that modifying land use practices is necessary to mitigate climate change.
A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point 'O' on the ground in the direction of north-east and reaches a point 'A' after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point 'A' he moves to point 'B' in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point 'O'?
Explanation: The path from O to A is 5 km northeast, and from A to B is 12 km northwest. The angle between northeast and northwest is 90 degrees, forming a right triangle with legs 5 km and 12 km. The distance from O to B is the hypotenuse: square root of (5 squared plus 12 squared), which equals square root of 169, giving 13 km.
An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X1 meters and breadth X2 meters (X1 and X2 are variable). If X1 plus X2 equals 40 meters, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values?
- 400 sq.m
- 300 sq.m
- 200 sq.m
- 80 sq.m
Explanation: For a rectangle with a fixed sum of length and breadth, the area is maximized when the rectangle is a square. If X1 plus X2 equals 40, the maximum area occurs when X1 equals X2 equals 20, giving an area of 20 multiplied by 20, which equals 400 square meters.
The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?
- 6 months
- 1 year
- 2 years
- 2 years and 6 months
Explanation: Three years ago, the average age of 5 members was 80 divided by 5, which equals 16 years. Today, with 6 members including the baby, the average remains 16, so the total age sum today is 16 multiplied by 6, which equals 96 years. The original 5 members have each aged 3 years, adding 15 years to their previous total of 80, giving 95 years. Therefore, the baby's age is 96 minus 95, which equals 1 year.
The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:
Explanation: Let the equal total emolument be E. For the first person, E equals basic pay multiplied by 1.65. For the second person, E equals basic pay multiplied by 1.80. Equating the two expressions gives the ratio of basic pays as 1.80 divided by 1.65, which simplifies to 180:165 or 12:11.
A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps does the ladder have?
Explanation: Starting from step 1 and climbing 4 more steps brings the person to step 5. If step 5 is exactly the middle step, then there are 4 steps below it and 4 steps above it. The total number of steps is 4 plus 1 plus 4, which equals 9.
AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 meters, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 meters from A, then the original height of the trunk is:
Explanation: The broken part CB forms the hypotenuse of a right triangle with vertical side AC equal to 12 meters and horizontal side AD equal to 5 meters. By the Pythagorean theorem, CB equals the square root of (12 squared plus 5 squared), which equals the square root of 169, giving 13 meters. The original height AB equals AC plus CB, which is 12 plus 13, giving 25 meters.
A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is:
Explanation: The big cube is divided into 4 by 4 by 4, yielding 64 small cubes. Small cubes with exactly one face painted are located in the center of each face, excluding edge and corner cubes. Each face has a 2 by 2 inner square of such cubes, giving 4 per face. With 6 faces, the total is 6 multiplied by 4, which equals 24.
Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?
- 6 days
- 8 days
- 10 days
- 11 days
Explanation: Let Ram's daily work rate be R and Shyam's be S. Working together for 4 days, they complete 60 percent, so 4 times (R plus S) equals 0.60, giving R plus S equals 0.15. Shyam alone completes the remaining 40 percent in 8 days, so 8S equals 0.40, giving S equals 0.05. Substituting, R equals 0.10. Therefore, Ram alone would require 1 divided by 0.10, which equals 10 days to complete the entire job.
How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?
- 110
- 100
- 90
- None of the above
Explanation: Numbers beginning with 2 range from 200 to 299, giving 100 numbers. Numbers ending with 2 between 100 and 300 are of the form 1_2 and 2_2, where the blank can be any digit 0 through 9. This yields 10 numbers in the 100-range and 10 in the 200-range, totaling 20. The overlap consists of numbers beginning with 2 and ending with 2, which are 202, 212, 222, 232, 242, 252, 262, 272, 282, and 292, giving 10 numbers. Using inclusion-exclusion, the total is 100 plus 20 minus 10, which equals 110.
Passage: As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed two billion more people, the question of which diet is best has taken on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the coming decades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put, a diet that revolves around meat and dairy, a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the developing world, will take a greater toll on the world's resources than one that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables.
What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?
- Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources
- Diets based on grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables are best suited for health in developing countries
- Human beings change their food habits from time to time irrespective of the health concerns
- From a global perspective, we still do not know which type of diet is best for us
Explanation: The passage compares meat and dairy diets with plant-based diets and explicitly states that the former takes a greater toll on the world's resources. The critical message is that rising animal-based food consumption increases the burden on natural resources.
Passage: All humans digest mother's milk as infants, but until cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the middle East and Africa. Groups not dependant on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant.
Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?
- About 10,000 years ago, the domestication of animals took place in some parts of the world
- A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members
- Lactose tolerant people only are capable of getting simple sugars in their bodies
- People who are not lactose tolerant cannot digest any dairy product
Explanation: The passage describes how the domestication of cattle and the resulting dietary shift to milk consumption led to the evolutionary development of lactose tolerance. This supports the assumption that sustained dietary changes in a community can drive genetic adaptations.
Passage: The conceptual difficulties in National Income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in various underdeveloped countries is produced without passing through the commercial channels.
In the above statement, the author implies that:
- the entire national output produced and consumed in industrialized countries passes through commercial channels
- the existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the national income comparisons over countries difficult
- no part of national output should be produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels
- a part of the national output being produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign of underdevelopment
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that national income comparisons are particularly serious because part of the output in underdeveloped countries bypasses commercial channels. This directly implies that the non-commercialized sector makes such comparisons difficult.
Passage: An increase in human-made carbon dioxide in the atmosphere could initiate a chain reaction between plants and microorganisms that would unsettle one of the largest carbon reservoirs on the planet— soil. In a study, it was found that the soil, which contains twice the amount of carbon present in all plants and Earth's atmosphere combined, could become increasingly volatile as people add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. This is largely because of increased plant growth. Although a greenhouse gas and a pollutant, carbon dioxide also supports plant growth. As trees and other vegetation flourish in a carbon dioxide-rich future, their roots could stimulate microbial activity in soil that may in turn accelerate the decomposition of soil carbon and its release into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
- Carbon dioxide is essential for the survival of microorganisms and plants
- Humans are solely responsible for the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
- Microorganisms and soil carbon are mainly responsible for the increased plant growth
- Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil
Explanation: The passage describes a chain reaction where increased atmospheric carbon dioxide promotes plant growth, which stimulates soil microbes, accelerating decomposition of soil carbon and releasing it back into the atmosphere. The logical corollary is that expanding vegetation could inadvertently trigger the release of stored soil carbon.