The 'Public Hearing' must be completed within how many days of the request made by the project proponent to the SPCB?
- 45 days.
- 90 days.
- 60 days.
- 30 days.
Explanation: According to the EIA Notification 2006, the State Pollution Control Board must conduct the public hearing within 45 days of receiving the request.
With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), which of the following statements is correct?
- It is a constitutional body established under Article 323B.
- It is bound by the rules of evidence as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
- It is guided by the principles of natural justice and the 'Polluter Pays' principle.
- It has the jurisdiction to hear cases related to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Explanation: The NGT is a statutory body (NGT Act 2010). It is not bound by the CPC or Evidence Act and significantly, the Wildlife Protection Act is outside its jurisdiction.
What is the primary significance of 'Baseline Data' in an Environmental Impact Assessment study?
- It provides a statistical forecast of the project's profitability over a twenty-year period.
- It lists the names of all the local laborers who will be employed for the project construction.
- It establishes the existing environmental status of the area before the project begins.
- It identifies the exact geological locations of all mineral deposits within the project site.
Explanation: Baseline data is the reference point used to predict changes and impacts that the proposed project might cause to the environment.
The 'Public Hearing' notice must be published in at least two daily newspapers at least:
- 15 days before the hearing.
- 60 days before the hearing.
- 30 days before the hearing.
- 45 days before the hearing.
Explanation: A 30-day notice period is required to ensure that the public has enough time to study the draft EIA summary and prepare their concerns.
Which of the following describes the 'Screening' stage for Category B projects?
- Measuring the noise levels of the construction machinery.
- Checking the project site for any rare mineral deposits.
- Interviewing the local villagers to see if they support the project.
- Deciding if the project belongs to B1 (requires EIA) or B2 (exempted).
Explanation: Screening is the first step for Category B projects to determine the level of environmental scrutiny they require based on their potential impact.
What happens during the 'Impact Prediction' stage of the EIA?
- Experts use models to estimate the magnitude of environmental changes.
- The project proponent signs the final environmental clearance document.
- The local community votes on whether they want the project to proceed.
- The State Pollution Control Board collects the water and air permit fees.
Explanation: This stage uses scientific tools to quantify how much the air quality, water level, or noise will change due to the project.
Under the 'Precautionary Principle', the 'Burden of Proof' lies with:
- The local community protesting against the project.
- The judicial system or the NGT.
- The project proponent (developer).
- The Ministry of Environment (MoEFCC).
Explanation: The developer must prove that their proposed activity is environmentally sustainable and will not cause significant damage to the ecosystem.
In the context of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding its 'Umbrella' nature?
- It mandates that only the Supreme Court can adjudicate on matters related to environmental pollution and ecological degradation.
- It provides a framework for coordinating activities of various central and state authorities established under previous laws like the Water Act.
- It replaces all existing environmental laws, including the Forest Conservation Act and the Wildlife Protection Act, to create a single code.
- It focuses exclusively on the protection of endangered flora and fauna in the Western Ghats and Himalayan regions.
Explanation: The EPA 1986 is called 'umbrella' legislation because it provides the Central Government with wide powers to coordinate and fill gaps in existing environmental laws.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Category B' projects in the EIA process:
1. They are appraised at the State level by the SEIAA.
2. All Category B projects are required to prepare a full Environmental Impact Assessment report.
3. They are categorized into B1 and B2 based on their potential environmental impact.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because B2 projects are specifically exempt from the requirement of preparing an EIA report and conducting a public hearing.
The 'Zero Alternative' (or No-Action alternative) in an EIA study is used as:
- A plan to ensure the project has zero impact on the local water table.
- A design where zero carbon dioxide is emitted from the project chimney.
- A proposal to use zero electricity during the construction phase.
- A baseline to compare what happens if the project is NOT built.
Explanation: It helps decision-makers understand the environmental trade-offs between 'Development' and 'Conservation' in that specific site.
Which authority conducts the 'Public Hearing' for a project requiring environmental clearance?
- The Project Proponent.
- The Expert Appraisal Committee.
- The Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- The State Pollution Control Board.
Explanation: The SPCB (or UTPCC) is responsible for organizing the public hearing and submitting the proceedings to the regulatory authority.
With reference to 'Coastal Regulation Zones' (CRZ) in India, consider the following statements:
1. CRZ-I represents the most ecologically sensitive areas where no construction is allowed.
2. The CRZ notifications are issued under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
3. The 'Hazard Line' is used to determine the vulnerability of the coast to sea-level rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 only
- 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect; CRZ notifications are issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. CRZ-I (like mangroves, coral reefs) is the most sensitive.
Under the EIA framework, the 'Post-Project Monitoring' is intended to:
- Track the political affiliations of the workers in the industrial unit.
- Collect the final installment of the environmental clearance fee.
- Help the company market its products to the local residents.
- Ensure the actual impacts align with the predictions made in the EIA.
Explanation: Monitoring ensures compliance with environmental conditions and helps in refining the predictive models for future EIA studies.
Which of the following is an example of an 'EIA Violation' in India?
- Providing jobs to residents of a different state than the project site.
- Using solar panels instead of grid electricity for the office building.
- Inviting a foreign NGO to participate in the public hearing process.
- Starting construction before getting the Prior Environmental Clearance.
Explanation: Commencing work without EC is a 'violation' case, often leading to the project being stalled and subjected to heavy penalties.
Which body is responsible for conducting the 'Public Hearing' as part of the EIA process in India?
- The National Green Tribunal (NGT).
- The Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC).
- The State Pollution Control Board (SPCB).
- The Project Proponent's internal environment cell.
Explanation: The SPCB (or the Union Territory Pollution Control Committee) is mandated to conduct the public hearing in the presence of a representative of the District Collector.
With reference to 'Strategic Environmental Assessment' (SEA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a proactive tool used at the level of policies, plans, and programs.
2. It is narrower in scope compared to a project-level EIA.
3. It aims to integrate environmental considerations into higher-level decision making.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 3 only
Explanation: SEA is broader than EIA because it evaluates the cumulative impacts of entire policies or sectors rather than a single project.
Which of the following projects are generally exempted from the 'Public Consultation' process during an EIA?
- Expansion of National Highways.
- Off-shore oil and gas exploration.
- Modernization of irrigation projects.
- Strategic defense projects.
Explanation: Projects involving national defense and security, or those located within designated industrial estates (if the estate was previously cleared), are often exempt from public hearings.
What happens if a project proponent starts construction work before obtaining the 'Prior Environmental Clearance'?
- The local SPCB takes over the management of the construction site.
- The project is automatically granted a 'Post-Facto' clearance.
- The proponent is given a warning and 90 days to apply for the clearance.
- The project is treated as a 'violation' case and is subject to legal action and penalties.
Explanation: Prior Environmental Clearance is a mandatory 'pre-requisite'. Starting work without it is a serious violation of the EPA 1986.
Which of the following is a 'Permitted' activity in a typical Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ)?
- Commercial mining.
- Setting up of major hydroelectric projects.
- Ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities.
- Establishment of large-scale commercial wood-based industries.
Explanation: Traditional activities of the local community are protected and permitted, while large-scale industrial or extractive activities are prohibited or highly regulated.
Which of the following describes 'Secondary Impacts' in an EIA study?
- Indirect impacts that arise as a consequence of a primary impact.
- The impact of the project on the company's secondary stock market price.
- The impact of the second stage of the project after ten years.
- Impacts that occur as a direct result of the project's physical presence.
Explanation: For example, a dam (primary) might lead to changes in local climate or vector-borne diseases (secondary).
With reference to 'Cumulative Impact Assessment' (CIA), which of the following is true?
- It assesses the combined impact of multiple projects in a single region.
- It measures the impact of a project over a duration of 100 years.
- It evaluates the impact of a single project in isolation.
- It is used only for projects involving chemical weapons.
Explanation: CIA is vital in areas like 'Himalayan Hydro-power' where many small projects together can have a devastating impact that a single EIA might miss.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Social Impact Assessment' (SIA):
1. It evaluates how a project will affect the lives and livelihoods of local people.
2. It is governed by the LARR Act, 2013 in the context of land acquisition.
3. It is a secondary component and does not influence the environmental clearance.
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect; social impacts are a critical part of the holistic assessment and significantly influence the 'Public Consultation' stage.
In the context of EIA, the 'Carrying Capacity' of a region refers to:
- The limit of the environment to support human activities without permanent damage.
- The total number of industrial units that can be built in an estate.
- The total amount of water that a river basin can provide for irrigation.
- The maximum weight of equipment a forest road can support.
Explanation: Carrying capacity is a fundamental ecological concept that defines the maximum 'load' an ecosystem can sustain without degrading.
In the EIA process, the 'Scoping' stage is primarily intended to:
- Collect the post-monsoon water samples from the nearest river basin.
- Identify the specific environmental concerns to be addressed in the study.
- Approve the project's financial budget and technical feasibility.
- Finalize the land acquisition details and resettlement compensation.
Explanation: Scoping determines the 'Terms of Reference' (ToR), which sets the boundary and focus for the detailed environmental impact study.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Appraisal' stage of EIA:
1. It involves the detailed scrutiny of the final EIA report by the EAC or SEAC.
2. The appraisal committee can recommend either the grant or rejection of the clearance.
3. The public is allowed to participate in the appraisal committee meetings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. Appraisal is a technical review by experts; it is not a public forum, though it considers the outcomes of the public hearing.
Which of the following acts is often referred to as the 'Umbrella Legislation' for environment protection in India?
- The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Explanation: The EPA 1986 provides the framework for the Central Government to coordinate the activities of various central and state authorities established under other laws.
With reference to the 'Polluter Pays Principle', which statement is most accurate?
- The government must pay the industry to adopt cleaner technologies.
- Industry is exempt from paying for accidental damage if they provide jobs.
- The cost of environmental damage should be borne by the local taxpayers.
- The polluter should bear the cost of pollution prevention and control measures.
Explanation: This principle mandates that the costs of managing and cleaning up pollution should be internalised by the producer rather than externalised to society.
The validity of 'Environmental Clearance' for a mining project is usually:
- 5 years
- The project life (max 30 years)
- 10 years
- Infinite
Explanation: For mining, EC is valid for the project life mentioned in the application, subject to a maximum of 30 years.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Baseline Data' collection in EIA:
1. It involves monitoring environmental parameters for one full year (all four seasons).
2. It represents the state of the environment in the absence of the proposed project.
3. It is used as a reference point to predict the future impacts of the project.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because EIA studies in India typically require data for only one 'non-monsoon' season, not a full year (unless specifically directed).
In the EIA process, 'Post-Project Monitoring' is conducted primarily to:
- Ensure the project proponent is paying their taxes on time.
- Collect data for the next project to be built in the same area.
- Verify that the actual impacts match the predicted impacts in the EIA.
- Train the local community on how to operate the project machinery.
Explanation: Monitoring ensures compliance with the EMP and checks the accuracy of the initial impact predictions to improve future EIA models.
With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones' (ESZ), consider the following statements:
1. They are notified by the Central Government around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
2. All types of human activities are strictly prohibited within the ESZ.
3. The purpose is to create a 'shock absorber' for the protected areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. Human activities in ESZs are categorized into 'Prohibited', 'Regulated', and 'Permitted'. Activities like agriculture are generally permitted.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Expert Appraisal Committee' (EAC):
1. It consists of independent experts from various fields like ecology and risk assessment.
2. Its chairman is usually a senior serving officer of the MoEFCC.
3. It meets to scrutinize the Final EIA report and the Public Hearing proceedings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect; the Chairman is usually an eminent expert and not a serving government officer to maintain the committee's independence.
The concept of 'Carrying Capacity' in environmental planning refers to:
- The maximum weight a bridge near the project site can safely carry.
- The number of trees that must be planted to compensate for the forest loss.
- The maximum population or activity an ecosystem can sustain without degradation.
- The total amount of hazardous waste a landfill can hold before it is full.
Explanation: It defines the biophysical limits of an environment to support development or populations without permanent damage to the resource base.
The 'Red, Orange, Green, and White' classification of industries in India is based on:
- The proximity of the industry to a major city.
- The total number of employees in the industry.
- The amount of water consumed per day.
- The Pollution Index (PI) score of the industrial sector.
Explanation: The CPCB uses the PI score (based on emissions, effluents, and hazardous waste) to classify industries and determine their regulatory requirements.
With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements:
1. It was established under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. It is mandated to dispose of cases within six months of their filing.
3. It is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; it was established under the NGT Act 2010. Statement 3 is incorrect; NGT is guided by the principles of 'Natural Justice' and is not bound by the CPC.
According to the EIA Notification 2006, 'Category B1' projects differ from 'Category B2' projects because:
- B1 projects are located exclusively in eco-sensitive zones.
- B1 projects require a mandatory public hearing.
- B1 projects are appraised by the Central Government.
- B1 projects do not require an environmental impact study.
Explanation: Category B is split into B1 (requires EIA and Public Consultation) and B2 (exempted from both to fast-track small-scale projects).
Consider the following statements regarding 'Strategic Environmental Assessment' (SEA):
1. It is a proactive approach used at the level of policies and programs.
2. It is typically conducted after a specific project has been granted clearance.
3. It helps in assessing cumulative impacts across an entire sector or region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect; SEA is conducted at a higher level of decision-making *before* individual projects are planned, unlike the reactive nature of EIA.
What is the 'Screening' stage for in the EIA process for Category B projects?
- To screen the local residents for potential health issues before the project.
- To verify the criminal records of the project's board of directors.
- To decide if the project needs a full EIA (B1) or is exempt (B2).
- To determine the total amount of green tax the project must pay annually.
Explanation: Screening is the first step to filter Category B projects based on their potential impact to determine the level of environmental scrutiny required.
Which of the following is a 'Prohibited' activity in a notified Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)?
- Building of lighthouses for maritime safety.
- Setting up of new industries or expansion of existing ones.
- Construction of cyclone shelters for public safety.
- Traditional fishing by the local communities.
Explanation: Most new industrial activities are strictly prohibited in CRZs to protect the fragile coastal ecosystem, with exceptions only for port-related activities.
In the context of EIA, 'Cumulative Impact Assessment' (CIA) is used to analyze:
- The total amount of rainfall a region receives over a ten-year cycle.
- The impact of a single project over a very short time frame.
- The cumulative financial debt of the project proponent to various banks.
- The total combined impact of all past, present, and future projects in an area.
Explanation: CIA is critical in regions where multiple small impacts (like many small dams on one river) add up to a significant ecological change.
With reference to the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process in India, consider the following statements:
1. The 'Screening' stage is mandatory for all projects regardless of their scale.
2. Category 'A' projects require a mandatory environmental clearance from the Central Government.
3. The Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) provides the final environmental clearance to the project proponent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because screening is only for Category B projects to determine if they need a full EIA. Statement 3 is incorrect because the EAC only recommends; the final clearance is granted by the MoEFCC.
With reference to the 'Expert Appraisal Committee' (EAC) in the Indian EIA process, consider the following statements:
1. It is a multi-disciplinary body that functions at the Central level under the MoEFCC.
2. The recommendations of the EAC are legally binding on the regulatory authority.
3. It is responsible for the 'Scoping' and 'Appraisal' stages of Category A projects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the EAC is an advisory body; its recommendations are generally accepted, but the final decision-making power rests with the Regulatory Authority (MoEFCC).
The 'Precautionary Principle', often used in environmental adjudication in India, implies that:
- The government must pay for the restoration of the environment after an industrial accident.
- Private corporations are exempt from liability if they follow the local state pollution standards.
- All projects must be stalled until 100% scientific proof of zero impact is provided by the proponent.
- Lack of scientific certainty should not delay measures to prevent environmental degradation.
Explanation: This principle ensures that the absence of definitive scientific data isn't used as an excuse to ignore potential irreversible damage to the ecosystem.
Which document is provided to the public before the 'Public Consultation' stage to help them understand the project?
- The final Environmental Clearance certificate.
- The financial balance sheet of the project proponent.
- A draft EIA report and a summary in the local language.
- The confidential ToR document issued by the EAC.
Explanation: A summary of the EIA report in the local language is essential to ensure that the affected community can provide informed feedback during the hearing.
What is the significance of the 'Form 1' in the Indian EIA process?
- It is the report submitted after the public hearing is over.
- It is the final certificate of environmental clearance.
- It is the document used to appeal against the SEIAA's decision.
- It is the initial application submitted by the proponent for seeking ToR.
Explanation: Form 1 (and Form 1A for construction projects) contains the basic project details that help the EAC/SEAC decide the scope of the EIA study.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Environment Audit':
1. It is a mandatory annual requirement for all industries under the EPA 1986.
2. It evaluates the effectiveness of an organization's environmental management system.
3. It is primarily a tool for financial accountants to track green taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; while 'Environmental Statements' are submitted annually, a full-scale audit is often periodic or voluntary rather than a universal mandatory yearly requirement.
What is the primary role of the 'Environmental Management Plan' (EMP) in an EIA report?
- To summarize the total economic profit expected from the project.
- To list the names of all the experts who participated in the study.
- To provide a map of all protected areas within a 100 km radius.
- To detail the mitigation measures and monitoring schedules for the project.
Explanation: The EMP is the 'action' part of the EIA, outlining how the proponent will manage and mitigate the predicted environmental damage.
According to the EIA Notification 2006, which of the following projects requires 'Prior Environmental Clearance'?
- Only projects with a budget exceeding 500 Crores.
- Only projects located in the Himalayan states.
- Any new project listed in the Schedule.
- All micro-scale industries regardless of their sector.
Explanation: Any project or activity listed in the Schedule of the EIA Notification (Mining, Thermal, etc.) requires prior EC before any construction begins.
The 'Terms of Reference' (ToR) issued during the scoping stage remain valid for a period of:
- Five years
- One year
- Three years
- Indefinitely
Explanation: ToR usually remains valid for 3 years, within which the proponent must complete the EIA study and submit the final report for appraisal.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Public Hearing' stage in the EIA Notification, 2006:
1. It is mandatory for all projects regardless of their classification as Category A or B.
2. The proceedings must be supervised by the District Magistrate or his representative.
3. The hearing must be video-recorded and the minutes must be signed by the residents present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect (B2 projects are exempt). Statement 3 is partially incorrect; while it is recorded and minutes are prepared, every single resident present is not required to sign individual minutes.
Under the EIA Notification 2006, 'Category B' projects are appraised by which of the following authorities?
- District Magistrate in consultation with the State Pollution Control Board.
- State Level Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA).
- Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
- Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Explanation: Category B projects are handled at the state level by the SEIAA, which is assisted by the State Level Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC).
The 'Polluter Pays Principle' was formally incorporated into Indian jurisprudence primarily through which event?
- The enactment of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
- The inclusion of Article 48A in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- The signing of the Ramsar Convention by the Indian Government.
- The Supreme Court judgment in the Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum case.
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India recognized the Polluter Pays Principle and the Precautionary Principle as part of the environmental law of the land in this landmark case.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Social Impact Assessment' (SIA) within the EIA framework:
1. It evaluates the impact of the project on the lives and livelihoods of local people.
2. It is a mandatory part of every EIA report under the 2006 Notification.
3. It specifically addresses issues of resettlement and rehabilitation (R&R).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. While SIA is critical, it was formally integrated more deeply through the LARR Act 2013 rather than being a standalone mandatory 'EIA' requirement for every single project.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Scoping' in the EIA process:
1. It is the stage where the 'Terms of Reference' (ToR) for the EIA study are determined.
2. It occurs after the public hearing has been concluded to address citizen concerns.
3. It identifies the key environmental impacts that need detailed investigation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Scoping occurs early in the process, before the preparation of the draft EIA report and well before the public hearing stage.
In the EIA process, the 'Environmental Management Plan' (EMP) is primarily concerned with:
- Identifying the political stakeholders who support the project's implementation.
- Listing the mitigation measures and monitoring mechanisms for the project.
- Predicting the total market value of the project's shares after five years.
- Establishing the legal ownership of the land where the project is located.
Explanation: The EMP is the 'how-to' guide for the project proponent to ensure that the environmental impacts are managed and mitigated as promised in the EIA.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Eco-Sensitive Zones' (ESZ):
1. They act as 'shock absorbers' or transition zones around protected areas.
2. All human activities, including agriculture, are strictly prohibited in these zones.
3. They are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect; activities in ESZs are categorized as Prohibited, Regulated, and Permitted. Agriculture and traditional practices are usually permitted.
The 'Coastal Regulation Zone' (CRZ) notifications are issued under which of the following laws?
- The Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976.
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- The Coastal Management Act, 2011.
- The Indian Forest Act, 1927.
Explanation: Like the EIA and ECO-Sensitive Zone notifications, CRZ rules are issued under the powers granted to the Central Government by the EPA 1986.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Precautionary Principle':
1. It suggests that if there is a threat of serious damage, lack of scientific certainty should not be used as a reason for postponing measures.
2. It shifts the burden of proof to the developer to show that the project is environmentally benign.
3. It is not legally binding in India and acts only as a guideline for the MoEFCC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect; the Precautionary Principle is a core part of Indian environmental law, upheld by numerous National Green Tribunal and Supreme Court rulings.
What is the 'Zero Alternative' in an Environmental Impact Assessment study?
- The use of renewable energy instead of fossil fuels for the project.
- A project design that produces zero carbon emissions.
- A scenario where the project has zero impact on the local community.
- The scenario where the proposed project is not implemented at all.
Explanation: The 'No-Action' or 'Zero' alternative is used as a baseline to compare the environmental costs of the project versus the costs of doing nothing.
Which document is mandatory for a project proponent to submit to the SEIAA for seeking the 'Terms of Reference'?
- Final EIA Report
- National Green Tribunal Order
- Form 1
- NOC from the local MLA
Explanation: Form 1 (and 1A for construction) is the initial application form that provides project details to the appraisal committee for scoping.