Under the amended WPA, if a person imports an exotic parrot listed in CITES Appendix II, the bird is regulated under:
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
- Schedule IV
- Schedule III
Explanation: All species listed under the Appendices of CITES are incorporated into the domestic law through Schedule IV, requiring registration and trade regulation.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Chief Wild Life Warden':
1. They have the authority to permit hunting of a Schedule II animal for the purpose of scientific research.
2. They are appointed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. The Chief Wild Life Warden is appointed by the respective State Government, not the Central Ministry.
Which of the following species is NOT listed in Schedule I?
- Bengal Tiger
- Golden Jackal
- Snow Leopard
- Blackbuck
Explanation: Tigers, Snow Leopards, and Blackbucks are Schedule I species. The Golden Jackal is listed under Schedule II.
The penalty for committing an offense relating to a Schedule I animal under the amended WPA includes a minimum fine of:
- âš 10,000
- âš 25,000
- âš 1,00,000
- âš 50,000
Explanation: The 2022 Amendment enhanced the penalties significantly, raising the minimum fine for offenses involving Schedule I or II animals to âš 25,000.
Common Crows were previously in the Vermin schedule. Post-2022, they are:
- Upgraded to Schedule II
- Listed as Invasive Alien Species
- Omitted from the schedules entirely
- Moved to Schedule IV
Explanation: With the removal of Schedule V, species like common crows, fruit bats, and mice were omitted from the WPA schedules.
The Dhole, also known as the Asiatic Wild Dog, is a highly threatened apex predator. It is listed in:
- Schedule III
- Schedule II
- Schedule IV
- Schedule I
Explanation: Dholes are endangered and play a crucial role in forest ecosystems, thus they are afforded the highest protection under Schedule I.
Under the 2022 Amendment, captive elephants can be transferred for:
- Religious or any other purposes
- Circus performances
- Zoo breeding programs only
- Commercial logging only
Explanation: A specific exception allows the transfer of captive elephants for religious or 'any other purposes' subject to central conditions.
The Whale Shark, the largest living fish, is protected under:
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
- Schedule IV
Explanation: The Whale Shark is a Schedule I species, making its hunting and trade strictly prohibited in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the alteration of Schedule entries:
1. The State Government has the power to add a species to Schedule I if it is locally endangered.
2. The Central Government can transfer a species from Schedule II to Schedule I via notification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The power to amend the Schedules (adding, deleting, or transferring entries) lies exclusively with the Central Government under Section 61.
Consider the following statements regarding the hunting of Schedule I animals:
1. It can be permitted if the animal is diseased or disabled beyond recovery.
2. Only the Chief Wild Life Warden has the statutory authority to grant this permission.
3. The hunted animal becomes the private property of the person who killed it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect. Under Section 39 of the WPA, any wild animal hunted or killed (even legally or in self-defense) becomes the absolute property of the Government.
Which authority is empowered to declare an animal as 'vermin' under the WPA?
- Chief Wild Life Warden
- Central Government
- State Government
- National Board for Wildlife
Explanation: Section 62 empowers the Central Government to declare wild animals (other than Schedule I and II) as vermin for a specified period.
Which of the following is responsible for regulating trade of Schedule IV species?
- Animal Welfare Board
- Central Zoo Authority
- Management Authority
- State Biodiversity Board
Explanation: The Management Authority is specifically established to regulate the international trade of CITES-listed species in Schedule IV.
The Monitor Lizard (Varanus) is granted maximum protection under:
- Schedule II
- Schedule III
- Schedule I
- Schedule IV
Explanation: All species of Monitor Lizards found in India are listed under Schedule I to protect them from the illegal skin and meat trade.
The King Cobra is listed in which schedule of the WPA?
- Schedule III
- Schedule IV
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
Explanation: The King Cobra is an apex reptile predator and is strictly protected under Schedule I.
The Olive Ridley Turtle receives absolute protection under:
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
- Schedule IV
- Schedule III
Explanation: All marine turtles found in Indian waters, including the Olive Ridley, are listed in Schedule I.
Which of the following correctly describes the fate of the old 'Schedule VI' (Specified Plants) after the 2022 Amendment?
- It was re-designated as Schedule III.
- It was deleted entirely and plants are no longer protected.
- It was merged with Schedule IV to align with CITES.
- It was transferred to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Explanation: The amendment rationalized the schedules. The previous Schedule VI, which dealt with protected plants, became the new Schedule III.
Which of the following species is most likely to be listed under Schedule II of the amended WPA?
- Wild Pig (Boar)
- Great Indian Bustard
- Bengal Tiger
- Snow Leopard
Explanation: Tigers, Bustards, and Snow Leopards are Schedule I species. The Wild Pig is listed in Schedule II, though it can be declared vermin in specific areas if it becomes a menace.
Which schedule contains animal species that require a 'lesser' degree of protection?
- Schedule II
- Schedule III
- Schedule I
- Schedule IV
Explanation: Schedule II consolidates species that are protected but do not require the absolute highest level of protection assigned to Schedule I.
The Spotted Deer (Chital) is listed under which schedule of the amended WPA?
- Schedule IV
- Schedule III
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
Explanation: While protected, the Spotted Deer requires a comparatively lesser degree of protection than Schedule I species, placing it in Schedule II.
Consider the following statements regarding hunting in self-defense under the WPA:
1. A Schedule I animal killed in self-defense must be reported to the wildlife authorities.
2. The animal killed in self-defense belongs to the person whose life was threatened.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect. Any animal killed or wounded in defense of a person becomes the absolute property of the Government, not the individual.
Under the WPA 1972, the term 'Hunting' legally includes which of the following activities?
1. Capturing or trapping a wild animal.
2. Driving or baiting a wild animal.
3. Injuring or destroying the eggs of a wild bird.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Section 2(16) of the WPA defines 'hunting' very broadly to include capturing, killing, poisoning, snaring, trapping, driving, baiting, and destroying eggs or nests.
The Sangai (Brow-antlered deer) of Manipur is listed in:
- Schedule III
- Schedule IV
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
Explanation: The Sangai is highly endangered and endemic to Keibul Lamjao, warranting Schedule I protection.
The Indian Star Tortoise is protected under which schedule?
- Schedule II
- Schedule III
- Schedule I
- Schedule IV
Explanation: Due to heavy illegal wildlife trade and poaching, the Indian Star Tortoise is granted Schedule I protection.
With reference to Schedule IV of the WPA 1972, consider the following statements:
1. It contains species listed in the Appendices of the CITES treaty.
2. Any person possessing a live specimen of a Schedule IV species must report it to the Management Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Schedule IV was added specifically to implement CITES. Possession of live CITES-listed specimens must be registered with the designated Management Authority.
The Great Indian Bustard is granted the highest protection under:
- Schedule III
- Schedule IV
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
Explanation: Being critically endangered, the Great Indian Bustard is listed in Schedule I.
The minimum fine for an offense involving a Schedule I animal was increased in 2022 to:
- Rs. 1,00,000
- Rs. 50,000
- Rs. 10,000
- Rs. 25,000
Explanation: The 2022 amendment increased the minimum fine for Schedule I or II violations from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 25,000 to enhance deterrence.
Which of the following plants is protected under Schedule III and requires a specific license for cultivation?
- Banyan Tree
- Neem Tree
- Blue Vanda
- Tulsi
Explanation: The Blue Vanda (Vanda coerulea) is a rare and endangered orchid listed in Schedule III, meaning its collection from the wild is prohibited and cultivation is strictly regulated.
The Rhesus Macaque is granted protection under which schedule of the WPA?
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
- Schedule III
- Schedule IV
Explanation: Common primates like the Rhesus Macaque are placed in Schedule II, offering protection but with slightly lower penalties than Schedule I.
Consider the following statements regarding trade in wild animals:
1. Commercial trade in ivory of the Indian Elephant is strictly prohibited.
2. A recognized zoo can transfer a Schedule I animal to another recognized zoo for breeding purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Trade in ivory is banned to protect elephants. Zoos, however, can exchange or transfer animals for conservation breeding programs with the approval of the Central Zoo Authority.
Protected plant species, such as the Pitcher Plant, are listed in:
- Schedule II
- Schedule IV
- Schedule III
- Schedule I
Explanation: The old Schedule VI for specified plants was restructured and is now designated as Schedule III.
The Jerdon's Courser, a nocturnal bird restricted to the Eastern Ghats, is protected under:
- Schedule IV
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
- Schedule II
Explanation: The Jerdon's Courser is critically endangered and is granted the highest protection under Schedule I of the Act.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Invasive Alien Species':
1. They are explicitly listed and managed under Schedule II of the Act.
2. The Central Government has the authority to regulate their import and possession.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Invasive Alien Species do not have a specific schedule. They are regulated under the newly inserted Section 62A by the Central Government.
The Indian Rhinoceros, heavily poached for its horn, is granted absolute protection under:
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
- Schedule IV
- Schedule III
Explanation: Due to severe poaching threats and habitat loss, the Indian Rhinoceros is listed in Schedule I.
Under the 2022 Amendment, which entity is responsible for granting 'certificates of origin' for the export of Schedule IV species?
- The Management Authority
- The National Tiger Conservation Authority
- The State Biodiversity Board
- The Scientific Authority
Explanation: The Management Authority, established to fulfill CITES obligations, is responsible for issuing permits and certificates of origin for the international trade of Schedule IV species.
Under the amended WPA, the cultivation, collection, and trade of Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) are regulated because it is listed in:
- Schedule IV
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
- Schedule III
Explanation: Schedule III is exclusively dedicated to specified protected plant species, which includes highly valued endemic flora like Red Sanders.
The Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus), a critically endangered crocodilian, is granted protection under:
- Schedule IV
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
Explanation: Due to its critically endangered status and dwindling habitats in riverine ecosystems, the Gharial is listed in Schedule I.
Which of the following authorities is specifically constituted to advise on whether the export of a Schedule IV species threatens its survival?
- The Scientific Authority
- The Management Authority
- The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
- The Central Zoo Authority
Explanation: Under the CITES provisions integrated into the WPA (Chapter VB), the Scientific Authority advises the Management Authority on the ecological sustainability of such trade.
Who can authorize the hunting of a Schedule I animal if it becomes dangerous to human life?
- Chief Wild Life Warden
- Inspector General of Forests
- District Magistrate
- State Governor
Explanation: Only the Chief Wild Life Warden has the statutory authority to permit the hunting of a Schedule I animal that has become a threat to human life.
Sambar Deer, a common prey species for tigers, is protected under:
- Schedule IV
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
- Schedule III
Explanation: Sambar Deer are listed in Schedule II, representing species that require protection but are relatively more abundant than Schedule I species.
The Sloth Bear is listed under which schedule of the WPA?
- Schedule III
- Schedule IV
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
Explanation: Sloth Bears face significant threats from habitat loss and poaching, placing them in Schedule I.
With reference to the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB), which of the following is correct?
- It operates under the direct command of the Interpol.
- Its jurisdiction is strictly limited to protecting Schedule I species only.
- It was established under the WPA to combat organized wildlife crime networks.
- It is an NGO that assists the Central Government in intelligence gathering.
Explanation: The WCCB is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established under Section 38Z of the WPA to gather intelligence and coordinate actions against organized wildlife crime.
Nilgai (Blue Bull) is naturally listed in which schedule, despite often being declared vermin locally?
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
- Schedule II
- Schedule IV
Explanation: Nilgai is listed in Schedule II, though the Central Government frequently issues notifications declaring it vermin in specific crop-damaged regions.
What is the current status of the old 'Vermin' schedule (formerly Schedule V)?
- Upgraded to Schedule I
- Renamed to Schedule IV
- Deleted entirely
- Merged into Schedule II
Explanation: The dedicated vermin schedule was deleted. The Central Government now issues temporary notifications to declare species as vermin in specific areas.
In which schedule of the amended WPA is the Indian Pangolin listed?
- Schedule I
- Schedule IV
- Schedule II
- Schedule III
Explanation: The Indian Pangolin is highly endangered and is granted the absolute highest level of protection under Schedule I.
Which schedule is exclusively dedicated to species listed under CITES?
- Schedule II
- Schedule IV
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
Explanation: Schedule IV was introduced in 2022 to align Indian law with the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).
The Nilgiri Tahr, the state animal of Tamil Nadu, is listed in:
- Schedule III
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
- Schedule IV
Explanation: The Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered mountain ungulate endemic to the Western Ghats and is strictly protected under Schedule I.
Consider the following statements regarding the surrender of captive animals or animal articles:
1. A person surrendering a Schedule I animal article receives financial compensation from the state.
2. Once surrendered, the item or animal becomes the property of the State Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The newly inserted Section 39A explicitly states that no compensation shall be payable to a person who voluntarily surrenders a captive animal or animal article.
How many schedules exist in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 after the 2022 amendment?
Explanation: The 2022 Amendment rationalized the WPA by reducing the number of schedules from six to four.
Consider the following statements regarding the declaration of 'Vermin':
1. Species listed in Schedule I and Schedule II cannot be declared as vermin.
2. The Central Government can declare a species as vermin for a specific area and a specific period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Under Section 62, the Central Government can declare any wild animal, other than those in Schedule I and II, as vermin for a specified time and region.
The Indian Peafowl (Peacock), the national bird of India, is granted protection under which schedule of the WPA?
- Schedule IV
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
Explanation: Given its status as the national bird and its conservation needs, the Indian Peafowl is strictly protected under Schedule I.
Invasive Alien Species are regulated under the amended WPA through:
- Schedule IV
- Section 11
- Schedule II
- Section 62A
Explanation: Invasive Alien Species do not have a dedicated schedule. They are regulated by the Central Government under the new Section 62A.
Red Sandalwood (Red Sanders) as a protected domestic plant falls under which schedule?
- Schedule IV
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
Explanation: Protected plant species, whose cultivation and trade are strictly regulated, are listed in Schedule III.
With reference to 'Captive Elephants', the 2022 Amendment allows their transfer or transport primarily under which of the following conditions?
- They cannot be transferred under any circumstances whatsoever.
- For religious or any other purposes subject to Central Government conditions.
- Only for international exchange programs between recognized zoos.
- For strictly commercial logging operations in North-East India.
Explanation: Section 43 of the amended Act provides an exception allowing the transfer of captive elephants for religious or 'any other purposes' subject to prescribed rules.
Consider the following statements regarding the schedules of the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022:
1. Schedule I species are granted the highest level of protection, with severe penalties for violations.
2. Schedule II species are not protected from hunting unless specifically notified by the State Government.
3. The power to amend the schedules lies exclusively with the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect as Schedule II species are protected, just with relatively lower penalties compared to Schedule I. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Central Government has the power to amend the schedules via official notification.
The Indian Wild Ass (Ghudkhur) is protected under:
- Schedule IV
- Schedule III
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
Explanation: Endemic to the Little Rann of Kutch, the Indian Wild Ass is an endangered species listed in Schedule I.
The Dugong (Sea Cow) is listed under which schedule?
- Schedule IV
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
- Schedule II
Explanation: Dugongs are vulnerable marine mammals and are strictly protected under Schedule I.
The Snow Leopard, found in the high-altitude Himalayas, is protected under:
- Schedule III
- Schedule I
- Schedule II
- Schedule IV
Explanation: The Snow Leopard is a vulnerable apex predator and is granted the highest protection under Schedule I.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Animal Articles' and 'Trophies':
1. Transferring a wildlife trophy between individuals requires prior permission from the Chief Wild Life Warden.
2. A person cannot acquire an animal article of a Schedule I species by way of a gift.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Section 43 strictly regulates the transfer of animal articles and trophies, requiring permission from the CWLW to prevent illegal wildlife trade masquerading as gifts.
Which of the following highly endangered marine species is listed under Schedule I of the amended WPA 1972?
- Bombay Duck
- Whale Shark
- Indian Mackerel
- Common Carp
Explanation: The Whale Shark (Rhincodon typus) is a globally endangered species and receives the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I in India.
The Ganges River Dolphin, India's national aquatic animal, is listed in:
- Schedule IV
- Schedule II
- Schedule I
- Schedule III
Explanation: The Ganges River Dolphin is highly endangered and receives the maximum protection under Schedule I.