Passage: The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent years. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who want to 'impose' democracy on countries in the non-Western world (in these countries' 'own interest', of course) and those who are opposed to such 'imposition' (because of the respect for the countries' 'own ways'). But the entire language of 'imposition', used by both sides, is extraordinarily inappropriate since it makes the implicit assumption that democracy belongs exclusively to the West, taking it to be a quintessentially 'Western' idea which has originated and flourished only in the West. But the thesis and the pessimism it generates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be extremely hard to justify. There were several experiments in local democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only in terms of European and American evolution. We would fail to understand the pervasive demands for participatory living, on which Aristotle spoke with far-reaching insight, if we take democracy to be a kind of a specialized cultural product of the West. It cannot, of course, be doubted that the institutional structure of the contemporary practice of democracy is largely the product of European and American experience over the last few centuries. This is extremely important to recognize since these developments in institutional formats were immensely innovative and ultimately effective. There can be little doubt that there is a major 'Western' achievement here.
Which of the following is closest to the view of democracy as mentioned in the above passage?
- The subject of democracy is a muddle due to a desire to portray it as a Western concept, 'alien' to non-Western countries.
- The language of imposition of democracy is inappropriate. There is, however, a need to consider this concept in the backdrop of culture of 'own ways' of non-Western society.
- While democracy is not essentially a Western idea belonging exclusively to the West, the institutional structure of current democratic practices has been their contribution.
- None of the statements given above is correct.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that democracy is not exclusively Western and cites ancient Indian experiments, while also acknowledging that the institutional structure of contemporary democratic practice is largely a product of European and American experience. This matches the option stating that democracy is not essentially a Western idea but the institutional structure has been their contribution.
Passage: The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent years. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who want to 'impose' democracy on countries in the non-Western world (in these countries' 'own interest', of course) and those who are opposed to such 'imposition' (because of the respect for the countries' 'own ways'). But the entire language of 'imposition', used by both sides, is extraordinarily inappropriate since it makes the implicit assumption that democracy belongs exclusively to the West, taking it to be a quintessentially 'Western' idea which has originated and flourished only in the West. But the thesis and the pessimism it generates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be extremely hard to justify. There were several experiments in local democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only in terms of European and American evolution. We would fail to understand the pervasive demands for participatory living, on which Aristotle spoke with far-reaching insight, if we take democracy to be a kind of a specialized cultural product of the West. It cannot, of course, be doubted that the institutional structure of the contemporary practice of democracy is largely the product of European and American experience over the last few centuries. This is extremely important to recognize since these developments in institutional formats were immensely innovative and ultimately effective. There can be little doubt that there is a major 'Western' achievement here.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Many of the non-Western countries are unable to have democracy because they take democracy to be a specialized cultural product of the West. 2. Western countries are always trying to impose democracy on non-Western countries. Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage criticizes the assumption that democracy belongs exclusively to the West but does not state that non-Western countries are unable to have democracy because of this. It also criticizes the language of 'imposition' used by both sides but does not say Western countries are always trying to impose democracy. Both assumptions extend beyond what the passage actually states.
Passage: Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness, being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another point which is highlighted on corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company. Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for companies to source capital at more reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam.
According to the passage, which of the following should be the practice/practices in good corporate governance? 1. Companies should always comply with labour and tax laws of the land. 2. Every company in the country should have a government representative as one of the independent directors on the board to ensure transparency. 3. The manager of a company should never invest his personal funds in the company.
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage explicitly mentions complying with all laws of the land, which supports the first statement. It mentions independent directors but does not say they must be government representatives, so the second statement is unsupported. It mentions distinguishing between personal and corporate funds but does not say managers should never invest personal funds, so the third statement is also unsupported.
Passage: Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness, being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another point which is highlighted on corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company. Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for companies to source capital at more reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam.
According to the passage, which of the following is/are the major benefit/benefits of good corporate governance? 1. Good corporate governance leads to increase in share price of the company. 2. A company with good corporate governance always increases its business turnover rapidly. 3. Good corporate governance is the main criterion for foreign institutional investors when they decide to buy a company.
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage states that corporate governance has a positive influence on share price and is one of the criteria foreign institutional investors depend on. It does not mention rapid increase in business turnover. Therefore only the statements about share price and foreign institutional investors are supported.
Passage: Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child's food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 per cent of children-under-five do not consume enough food. The child's dependence on someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial to increase awareness regarding the child's food needs and how to satisfy them.
According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced
- if the children have regular intake of food.
- after they cross the age of five.
- if the food needs of younger children are known.
- if the responsibility of feeding younger children is given to adults.
Explanation: The passage concludes that it is crucial to increase awareness regarding the child's food needs and how to satisfy them. This directly supports the option that malnutrition can be reduced if the food needs of younger children are known.
Passage: Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child's food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 per cent of children-under-five do not consume enough food. The child's dependence on someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial to increase awareness regarding the child's food needs and how to satisfy them.
According to the author, poverty is not the main cause of malnutrition, but the fact that 1. taking care of younger ones is not a priority for working mothers. 2. awareness of nutritional needs is not propagated by the Public Health authorities.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage states that very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding is left to an older sibling, indicating that taking care of younger ones is not a priority for working mothers. It does not mention Public Health authorities at all.
Passage: A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk-averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is also evidence to show that farmers' risk aversion results in cropping patterns and input use designed to reduce risk rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt a number of strategies to manage and cope with agricultural risks. These include practices like crop and field diversification, non-farm employment, storage of stocks and strategic migration of family members. There are also institutions ranging from share tenancy to kinship, extended family and informal credit agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that the same type of risks can affect a large number of farmers in the region. Empirical studies show that the traditional methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need for policy interventions, especially measures that cut across geographical regions. Policies may aim at tackling agricultural risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific policies are crop insurance, price stabilization and the development of varieties resistant to pests and diseases. Policies which affect risk indirectly are irrigation, subsidized credit and access to information. No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy measure to tackle agricultural risk directly, deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many other developing countries - because the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture and in many areas yield variability is the predominant cause of their income instability.
The need for policy intervention to mitigate risks in agriculture is because
- farmers are extremely risk-averse.
- farmers do not know how to mitigate risks.
- the methods adopted by farmers and existing risk sharing institutions are not adequate.
- majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that empirical studies show traditional methods are not adequate, hence there is a need for policy interventions. This directly corresponds to the option about methods and existing institutions being inadequate.
Passage: A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk-averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is also evidence to show that farmers' risk aversion results in cropping patterns and input use designed to reduce risk rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt a number of strategies to manage and cope with agricultural risks. These include practices like crop and field diversification, non-farm employment, storage of stocks and strategic migration of family members. There are also institutions ranging from share tenancy to kinship, extended family and informal credit agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that the same type of risks can affect a large number of farmers in the region. Empirical studies show that the traditional methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need for policy interventions, especially measures that cut across geographical regions. Policies may aim at tackling agricultural risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific policies are crop insurance, price stabilization and the development of varieties resistant to pests and diseases. Policies which affect risk indirectly are irrigation, subsidized credit and access to information. No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy measure to tackle agricultural risk directly, deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many other developing countries - because the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture and in many areas yield variability is the predominant cause of their income instability.
Which of the following observations emerges from the above passage?
- One can identify a single policy that can reduce risk without any side-effect.
- No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce agricultural risk.
- Policies which affect risk indirectly can eliminate it.
- Government's policy intervention can mitigate agricultural risk completely.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that no single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only indirectly. This matches the option about no single risk-specific policy being sufficient.
Consider the following statements: (i) A primary group is relatively smaller in size. (ii) Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group. (iii) A family may be an example of a primary group. In the light of the above statements, which one of the following is true?
- All families are primary groups.
- All primary groups are families.
- A group of smaller size is always a primary group.
- Members of a primary group know each other intimately.
Explanation: Statement (ii) states that intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group, which directly supports the option that members of a primary group know each other intimately. The other options make absolute universal claims that are not supported by the given statements.
Four friends, A, B, C and D distribute some money among themselves in such a manner that A gets one less than B, C gets 5 more than D, D gets 3 more than B. Who gets the smallest amount?
Explanation: Let B receive amount x. Then A receives x-1, D receives x+3, and C receives (x+3)+5 which equals x+8. Comparing all amounts, A receives the smallest sum.
Directions: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. S and R are connected by bus and boat. Q and T are connected by air only. P and R are connected by boat only. T and R are connected by rail and bus.
Which mode of transport would help one to reach R starting from Q, but without changing the mode of transport?
Explanation: Q is connected to P by boat, and P is connected to R by boat. Therefore one can travel from Q to R via P using boat throughout without changing the mode. Rail would require Q to P by rail but P to R is only by boat, necessitating a change.
Directions: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. S and R are connected by bus and boat. Q and T are connected by air only. P and R are connected by boat only. T and R are connected by rail and bus.
If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back to P, which of the following places must he visit twice?
Explanation: To visit all cities starting from P and returning to P, one must use R as a hub because S is only connected to R, and T is connected to R and Q. Any valid route such as P-Q-T-R-S-R-P requires passing through R twice. The other cities can be visited exactly once in an optimal route.
Directions: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. S and R are connected by bus and boat. Q and T are connected by air only. P and R are connected by boat only. T and R are connected by rail and bus.
Which one of the following pairs of cities is connected by any of the routes directly without going to any other city?
- P and T
- T and S
- Q and R
- None of these
Explanation: Checking direct connections: P connects to Q and R; Q connects to P and T; R connects to P, S, and T; S connects only to R; T connects to Q and R. None of the listed pairs have a direct connection between them.
Directions: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. S and R are connected by bus and boat. Q and T are connected by air only. P and R are connected by boat only. T and R are connected by rail and bus.
Between which two cities among the pairs of cities given below are there maximum travel options available?
- Q and S
- P and R
- P and T
- Q and R
Explanation: Among the given pairs, only P and R have a direct connection by boat. The other pairs have no direct routes. Therefore P and R has the maximum travel options available.
Directions: A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament. For this 7 players are available: males A, B and C; and females W, X, Y and Z. All players have equal capability and at least 2 males will be there in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y.
If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?
- A, C, W and Y
- A, C, X and Y
- A, C, Y and Z
- A, W, Y and Z
Explanation: With B rejected and at least 2 males required, the males must be A and C. W cannot play with Y, so W is excluded. C cannot play with Z, so Z is excluded. The only remaining female is X, making the team A, C, X, and Y.
Directions: A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament. For this 7 players are available: males A, B and C; and females W, X, Y and Z. All players have equal capability and at least 2 males will be there in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y.
If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?
- A, B, C and W
- A, B, C and Z
- A, B, C and X
- A, W, Y and Z
Explanation: With B selected and Y rejected, and needing at least 2 males, selecting all three males A, B, and C satisfies the male requirement. Among females, W cannot play with B and Z cannot play with C, leaving only X as the compatible fourth member.
Directions: A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament. For this 7 players are available: males A, B and C; and females W, X, Y and Z. All players have equal capability and at least 2 males will be there in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. But, B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y.
If all the three males are selected, then how many combinations of four member teams are possible?
Explanation: With all three males selected, one female must be chosen. The constraints eliminate W because B cannot play with W, and eliminate Z because C cannot play with Z. This leaves only X and Y as eligible females, giving exactly 2 possible teams.
The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on different aspects of the composition of a piece of music. Seven persons are available for this work: they are Rohit, Tanya, Shobha, Kaushal, Kunal, Mukesh and Jaswant. Rohit and Tanya will not work together. Kunal and Shobha will not work together. Mukesh and Kunal want to work together. Which of the following is the most acceptable group of people that can be selected by the music director?
- Rohit, Shobha, Kunal and Kaushal
- Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha and Rohit
- Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and Jaswant
- Shobha, Tanya, Rohit and Mukesh
Explanation: The first option includes Kunal and Shobha who will not work together. The second and fourth options include Rohit and Tanya who will not work together. The third option includes Mukesh and Kunal who want to work together, and has no conflicting pairs, making it the most acceptable group.
Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. (i) C is seated next to A. (ii) A is seated two seats from D. (iii) B is not seated next to A. Which of the following must be true? (I) D is seated next to B. (II) E is seated next to A.
- I only
- II only
- Both I and II
- Neither I nor II
Explanation: Given the round table of five chairs, if C is next to A, A is two seats from D meaning one person sits between them, and B is not next to A, the only possible arrangement is C-A-E-D-B or its mirror image. In this arrangement, D is next to B and E is next to A, so both statements must be true.
Directions: Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football and cricket, B and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, C and D play hockey and basketball.
Who does not play hockey?
Explanation: From the given information, A plays football, cricket and basketball. B plays football, cricket and hockey. C plays cricket, hockey and basketball. D plays basketball, football and hockey. Therefore A is the only one who does not play hockey.
Directions: Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football and cricket, B and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, C and D play hockey and basketball.
Who plays football, basketball and hockey?
Explanation: From the given information, A plays football, cricket and basketball. B plays football, cricket and hockey. C plays cricket, hockey and basketball. D plays basketball, football and hockey. Therefore D is the one who plays all three sports: football, basketball and hockey.
Directions: Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football and cricket, B and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, C and D play hockey and basketball.
Which game do B, C and D play?
- Basketball
- Hockey
- Cricket
- Football
Explanation: B plays football, cricket and hockey. C plays cricket, hockey and basketball. D plays basketball, football and hockey. The only game common to all three is hockey. Cricket is not played by D, football is not played by C, and basketball is not played by B.
Geeta is older than her cousin Meena. Meena's brother Bipin is older than Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena wins the game more often than Geeta. Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above? While playing chess with Geeta and Meena, Bipin often loses. Geeta is the oldest among the three. Geeta hates to lose the game. Meena is the youngest of the three.
- While playing chess with Geeta and Meena, Bipin often loses.
- Geeta is the oldest among the three.
- Geeta hates to lose the game.
- Meena is the youngest of the three.
Explanation: From the given information, the age order is Bipin older than Geeta, and Geeta older than Meena. Therefore Meena is the youngest. There is no information about Bipin playing chess, or about Geeta hating to lose, and Geeta is not the oldest since Bipin is older than her.
Passage: Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies including India. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further globalization, consolidation, deregulation, and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance.
According to the passage, the financial markets in the emerging market economies including India had the adverse impact in recent years due to 1. weak global economic prospects. 2. uncertainties in the international financial markets. 3. sovereign risk concerns in the Euro area. 4. bad monsoons and the resultant crop loss.
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: The passage explicitly mentions weak global economic prospects, continuing uncertainties in international financial markets, and sovereign risk concerns in the Euro area as factors affecting emerging markets including India. It does not mention bad monsoons or crop loss.
Passage: Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies including India. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further globalization, consolidation, deregulation, and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance.
The Indian financial markets are affected by global changes mainly due to the
- increased inflow of remittances from abroad.
- enormous increase in the foreign exchange reserves.
- growing global linkages and integration of the Indian financial markets.
- contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem.
Explanation: The passage states that steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy, which is why global changes affect Indian markets. While Greece's debt problem is mentioned as a specific manifestation, the fundamental reason is the growing global linkages and integration.
Passage: Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies including India. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further globalization, consolidation, deregulation, and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance.
According to the passage, in the Indian financial system, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to ensure overall financial stability because Indian financial system is
- controlled by the Government of India.
- less integrated with banks.
- controlled by Reserve Bank of India.
- dominated by banks.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. This directly matches the option stating that the system is dominated by banks.
Passage: Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies including India. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further globalization, consolidation, deregulation, and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance.
Risk and liquidity management assumes more importance in the Indian banking system in future due to 1. further globalization. 2. more consolidation and deregulation of the financial system. 3. further diversification of the financial system. 4. more financial inclusion in the economy.
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 and 4 only
Explanation: The passage states that with further globalization, consolidation, deregulation, and diversification of the financial system, banking business may become more complex and riskier, making risk and liquidity management more important. The first three statements are all mentioned together in the passage, while financial inclusion is not mentioned.
There are five hobby clubs in a college viz., photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?
Explanation: All five groups will meet on the same day at intervals equal to the least common multiple of their meeting cycles. LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 is 60. Therefore they meet together every 60 days. Within 180 days, this occurs 180 divided by 60 which equals 3 times.
A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city. Further it is given that: 1. B and C do not belong to Q. 2. B and E do not belong to P and R. 3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T. 4. D and E do not belong to Q and T. Which one of the following statements is not correct? C belongs to P. D belongs to R. A belongs to Q. B belongs to S.
- C belongs to P.
- D belongs to R.
- A belongs to Q.
- B belongs to S.
Explanation: From the constraints, A and C must belong to P and Q. Since C cannot be Q, C is P and A is Q. B and E cannot be P or R, so they must be S and T. Since E cannot be T, E is S and B is T. D then must be R. Therefore the statement that B belongs to S is incorrect because B actually belongs to T.
Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is
Explanation: Since D sees green and blue but not violet among those in front, violet is not worn by A, B, or C. E sees violet and yellow but not red among those in front, so violet must be worn by D and yellow by one of A, B, or C. Since E wears indigo and red is not seen by E, red must be worn by F or G. G can see all colours except orange, meaning G wears orange. Therefore F must be wearing red.
There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying on a table. There are as many red balls as there are yellow balls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of red balls
- is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls.
- is double the number of green balls.
- is equal to yellow balls minus green balls.
- cannot be ascertained.
Explanation: Let the number of green balls be G. Then yellow balls equal 2G, and red balls equal the number of yellow balls, which is 2G. Therefore red balls are double the number of green balls.
Passage: Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt, and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea. Over millions of years, these dead creatures form large deposits under the sea-bed, and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen, so preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath. The layers of sedimentary rock become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today.
Mineral oil deposits under the sea do not get completely decomposed because they
- are constantly washed by the ocean currents.
- become rock and prevent oxygen from entering them.
- contain a mixture of hydrogen and carbon.
- are carcasses of organisms lying in saline conditions.
Explanation: The passage states that as the mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen, preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath.
Passage: Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt, and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea. Over millions of years, these dead creatures form large deposits under the sea-bed, and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen, so preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath. The layers of sedimentary rock become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today.
Sedimentary rock leads to the formation of oil deposits because
- there are no saline conditions below it.
- it allows some dissolved oxygen to enter the dead organic matter below it.
- weight of overlying sediment layers causes the production of heat.
- it contains the substances that catalyze the chemical reactions required to change dead organisms into oil.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that the layers of sedimentary rock become thicker and heavier, and their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil.
In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end?
Explanation: Originally 45 students with rank 20th from the top means rank 26th from the end. After two boys join, there are 47 students and his rank becomes 21st from the top. His new rank from the end is 47 minus 21 plus 1, which equals 27th.
A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be
Explanation: The relative speed of the policeman with respect to the thief is 10 minus 8, which equals 2 km/hr. To cover a distance of 100 meters at 2 km/hr, the time required is 0.1 divided by 2 hours, which equals 0.05 hours or 3 minutes.
A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is the original speed of the train in km/hr?
Explanation: Let the original speed be x km/hr. The equation is 63/x plus 72/(x+6) equals 3. Solving yields x squared minus 39x minus 126 equals 0, which factors as (x minus 42)(x plus 3) equals 0. The positive solution is 42 km/hr.
Passage: The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus-based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many 'healthy' oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 square km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities.
According to the passage, why should the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses be restricted? 1. Losing nutrients in this way is not a good practice economically. 2. Watercourses do not contain the microorganisms that can decompose organic components of agricultural slurry. 3. The discharge may lead to the eutrophication of water bodies.
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage states that returning the material to the land is the most economically sound practice, supporting statement 1. It also describes how nutrient enrichment causes eutrophication, supporting statement 3. It does not claim that watercourses lack microorganisms, so statement 2 is unsupported.
Passage: The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus-based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many 'healthy' oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 square km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities.
The passage refers to the conversion of 'pollutant to fertilizer'. What is pollutant and what is fertilizer in this context?
- Decomposed organic component of slurry is pollutant and microorganisms in soil constitute fertilizer.
- Discharged agricultural slurry is pollutant and decomposed slurry in soil is fertilizer.
- Sprayed slurry is pollutant and watercourse is fertilizer.
- None of the above expressions is correct in this context.
Explanation: The passage describes returning agricultural slurry to the land, where soil microorganisms decompose it and release mineral nutrients that vegetation absorbs, thereby converting what would be a pollutant in watercourses into fertilizer in the soil.
Passage: The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus-based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many 'healthy' oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 square km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities.
According to the passage, what are the effects of indiscriminate use of fertilizers? 1. Addition of pollutants to the soil and water. 2. Destruction of decomposer microorganisms in soil. 3. Nutrient enrichment of water bodies. 4. Creation of algal blooms.
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 1, 3 and 4 only
- 2 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: The passage describes nutrient enrichment of water bodies, algal blooms, and the resulting pollution of water and soil. It does not mention destruction of decomposer microorganisms; in fact, it notes that soil microorganisms decompose organic components. Therefore statements 1, 3, and 4 are supported.
Passage: The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus-based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many 'healthy' oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 square km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities.
What is/are the characteristics of a water body with cultural eutrophication? 1. Loss of ecosystem services 2. Loss of flora and fauna 3. Loss of mineral nutrients
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage states that important ecosystem services are lost and that cultural eutrophication kills invertebrates and fish while eliminating large plants, indicating loss of flora and fauna. It does not mention loss of mineral nutrients; rather, there is an excess of nutrients. Therefore statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Passage: The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus-based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many 'healthy' oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 square km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities.
What is the central theme of this passage?
- Appropriate legislation is essential to protect the environment.
- Modern agriculture is responsible for the destruction of environment.
- Improper waste disposal from agriculture can destroy the aquatic ecosystems.
- Use of chemical fertilizers is undesirable in agriculture.
Explanation: The passage focuses on how agricultural slurry and nutrient runoff from fertilizers cause eutrophication, dead zones, and destruction of aquatic life, emphasizing the damage caused by improper disposal of agricultural waste into water bodies.
Passage: The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man's nature changes, his physical needs will always arise, and miseries will always be felt, and no amount of physical help will remove them completely. The only solution of the problem is to make mankind pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil and of all the misery we see. Let men have light, let them be pure and spiritually strong and educated; then alone will misery cease in the world. We may convert every house in the country into a charitable asylum, we may fill the land with hospitals, but human misery will continue until man's character changes.
According to the passage, which of the following statements is most likely to be true as the reason for man's miseries?
- The poor economic and social conditions prevailing in society.
- The refusal on the part of man to change his character.
- The absence of physical and material help from his society.
- Ever increasing physical needs due to changing social structure.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that human misery will continue until man's character changes, and that the only solution is to make mankind pure, indicating that the root cause is man's refusal to change his character.
Passage: The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man's nature changes, his physical needs will always arise, and miseries will always be felt, and no amount of physical help will remove them completely. The only solution of the problem is to make mankind pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil and of all the misery we see. Let men have light, let them be pure and spiritually strong and educated; then alone will misery cease in the world. We may convert every house in the country into a charitable asylum, we may fill the land with hospitals, but human misery will continue until man's character changes.
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The author gives primary importance to physical and material help in eradicating human misery. 2. Charitable homes, hospitals, etc. can remove human misery to a great extent. Which of the assumptions is/are valid?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The passage explicitly rejects physical help as the sole cure, stating that charitable asylums and hospitals will not end misery until character changes. Therefore neither assumption is valid.
Consider the following matrix: the first row contains 3, 370, and 7. The second row contains 2, 224, and 6. The third row contains 1, 730, and X. What is the number at 'X' in the above matrix?
Explanation: The pattern is that the middle number in each row equals the sum of the cubes of the two outer numbers. For the first row, 3 cubed plus 7 cubed equals 27 plus 343, which equals 370. For the second row, 2 cubed plus 6 cubed equals 8 plus 216, which equals 224. For the third row, 1 cubed plus X cubed equals 730, so X cubed equals 729 and X equals 9.
Four cars are hired at the rate of Rs. 6 per km plus the cost of diesel at Rs. 40 a litre. Car A has mileage 8 km per litre, runs for 20 hours, and total payment is Rs. 2120. Car B has mileage 10 km per litre, runs for 25 hours, and total payment is Rs. 1950. Car C has mileage 9 km per litre, runs for 24 hours, and total payment is Rs. 2064. Car D has mileage 11 km per litre, runs for 22 hours, and total payment is Rs. 1812. Which car maintained the maximum average speed?
Explanation: Distance equals total payment divided by the sum of 6 and 40 divided by mileage. For Car A, distance is 2120 divided by 11, which equals approximately 192.73 km, giving a speed of about 9.64 km/hr. For Car B, distance is 1950 divided by 10, which equals 195 km, giving a speed of 7.8 km/hr. For Car C, distance is approximately 197.62 km, giving a speed of about 8.23 km/hr. For Car D, distance is approximately 188.04 km, giving a speed of about 8.55 km/hr. Car A has the highest average speed.
Passage: Ecological research over the last quarter of the century has established the deleterious effects of habitat fragmentation due to mining, highways and such other intrusions on forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted affecting several extinction-prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant illegal mining is aggravating this threat.
What is the central focus of this passage?
- Illegal mining in forests
- Extinction of wildlife
- Conservation of nature
- Disruption of habitat
Explanation: The passage focuses primarily on how habitat fragmentation caused by mining, highways, and other intrusions disrupts forest continuity and degrades the entire forest ecosystem, making disruption of habitat the central theme.
Passage: Ecological research over the last quarter of the century has established the deleterious effects of habitat fragmentation due to mining, highways and such other intrusions on forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted affecting several extinction-prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant illegal mining is aggravating this threat.
What is the purpose of maintaining the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors? 1. Preservation of biodiversity. 2. Management of mineral resources. 3. Grant of forest lands for human activities.
- 1 only
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The passage states that continuity disruption affects extinction-prone species and that habitat fragmentation is the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. It does not mention mineral resource management or granting forest lands for human activities as purposes of maintaining continuity.
In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more gold coins are added to the collection and the ratio of gold coins to non-gold coins would be 1:2. Based on the information, the total number of coins in the collection now becomes
Explanation: Let the original number of gold coins be x and non-gold coins be 3x. After adding 10 gold coins, the ratio becomes (x plus 10) to 3x equals 1 to 2. Solving gives x equals 20. The new total is 30 plus 60, which equals 90 coins.
A gardener has 1000 plants. He wants to plant them in such a way that the number of rows and the number of columns remains the same. What is the minimum number of plants that he needs more for this purpose?
Explanation: For the number of rows and columns to be equal, the total must be a perfect square. The nearest perfect square greater than 1000 is 32 squared, which equals 1024. Therefore the gardener needs 1024 minus 1000, which equals 24 more plants.
A sum of Rs. 700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs. 20 less than its preceding prize, what is the least value of the prize?
- Rs. 30
- Rs. 40
- Rs. 60
- Rs. 80
Explanation: Let the highest prize be x. The seven prizes form an arithmetic descending sequence with a common difference of 20. The sum is 7x minus 20 times the sum of 0 through 6, which equals 7x minus 420. Setting this equal to 700 gives x equals 160. The least prize is x minus 120, which equals 40.
Out of 120 applications for a post, 70 are male and 80 have a driver's license. What is the ratio between the minimum to maximum number of males having driver's license?
- 1 to 2
- 2 to 3
- 3 to 7
- 5 to 7
Explanation: There are 70 males and 50 females. The maximum number of males with a license is the lesser of 70 and 80, which is 70. The minimum is the excess of licenses over females, which is 80 minus 50, equaling 30. The ratio of minimum to maximum is 30 to 70, which simplifies to 3 to 7.
In a garrison, there was food for 1000 soldiers for one month. After 10 days, 1000 more soldiers joined the garrison. How long would the soldiers be able to carry on with the remaining food?
- 25 days
- 20 days
- 15 days
- 10 days
Explanation: The total food is sufficient for 1000 soldiers times 30 days, which equals 30000 soldier-days. After 10 days, 10000 soldier-days have been consumed, leaving 20000 soldier-days. With 2000 soldiers remaining, the food will last 20000 divided by 2000, which equals 10 days.
The tank full petrol in Arun's motor-cycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts using 25% more everyday, how many days will the tank full petrol last?
Explanation: If the original daily consumption is 1 unit, the tank contains 10 units. A 25% increase makes the daily consumption 1.25 units. The tank will now last 10 divided by 1.25, which equals 8 days.
A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in six hours. He can also walk both ways in 10 hours. How much time will he take to drive both ways?
- Two hours
- Two and a half hours
- Five and a half hours
- Four hours
Explanation: Walking both ways takes 10 hours, so a one-way walk takes 5 hours. Since walking one way and driving back takes 6 hours, driving one way takes 1 hour. Therefore driving both ways takes 2 hours.
Passage: Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. 'An old man and a little boy borrowed it,' he explained. 'They are going to bring it back at four o'clock.' His parents were upset that he had given his expensive new bicycle, but were secretly proud of his kindness and faith. Came four o'clock, no bicycle. The parents were anxious. But at 4:30, the door bell rang, and there stood a happy man and a boy, with the bicycle and a box of chocolates. Jim suddenly disappeared into his bedroom, and then came running out. 'All right,' he said, after examining the bicycle, 'You can have your watch back!'
When Jim came home without his bicycle, his parents
- were angry with him.
- were worried.
- did not feel concerned.
- were eager to meet the old man and the little boy.
Explanation: The passage states that his parents were upset and later anxious when the bicycle did not return on time, which corresponds to being worried rather than angry, unconcerned, or eager.
Passage: Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. 'An old man and a little boy borrowed it,' he explained. 'They are going to bring it back at four o'clock.' His parents were upset that he had given his expensive new bicycle, but were secretly proud of his kindness and faith. Came four o'clock, no bicycle. The parents were anxious. But at 4:30, the door bell rang, and there stood a happy man and a boy, with the bicycle and a box of chocolates. Jim suddenly disappeared into his bedroom, and then came running out. 'All right,' he said, after examining the bicycle, 'You can have your watch back!'
Jim returned the watch to the old man and the little boy because
- they gave him chocolates.
- his father was proud of him.
- he was satisfied with the condition of his bicycle.
- they were late only by 30 minutes.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that after examining the bicycle, Jim said they could have their watch back, indicating he returned the watch because he was satisfied with the condition of his bicycle.
Passage: It was already late when we set out for the next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometres away on the other side of the hills. There we felt that we would find a bed for the night. Darkness fell soon after we left the village, but luckily we met no one as we drove swiftly along the narrow winding road that led to the hills. As we climbed higher, it became colder and rain began to fall, making it difficult at times to see the road. I asked John, my companion, to drive more slowly. After we had travelled for about twenty kilometres, there was still no sign of the town which was marked on the map. We were beginning to get worried. Then without warning, the car stopped and we found we had run out of petrol.
The author asked John to drive more slowly because
- the road led to the hills.
- John was an inexperienced driver.
- the road was not clearly visible.
- they were in wilderness.
Explanation: The passage states that rain began to fall, making it difficult at times to see the road, and immediately after this the author asked John to drive more slowly. Therefore the reason was that the road was not clearly visible.
Passage: A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traffic and no small peril to herself. It was pointed out to her that the pavement was the place for foot-passengers, but she replied, 'I'm going to walk where I like. We've got liberty now.' It did not occur to the dear lady that if liberty entitled the foot-passenger to walk down the middle of the road it also entitled the taxi-driver to drive on the pavement, and that the end of such liberty would be universal chaos. Everything would be getting in everybody else's way and nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy.
It was pointed out to the lady that she should walk on the pavement because she was
- a pedestrian.
- carrying a basket.
- stout.
- an old lady.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that it was pointed out to her that the pavement was the place for foot-passengers, which means she was told to walk there because she was a pedestrian.
You are the head of your office. There are certain houses reserved for the allotment to the office staff and you have been given the discretion to do so. A set of rules for the allotment of the houses has been laid down by you and has been made public. Your personal secretary, who is very close to you, comes to you and pleads that as his father is seriously ill, he should be given priority in allotment of a house. The office secretariat that examined the request as per the rules turns down the request and recommends the procedure to be followed according to the rules. You do not want to annoy your personal secretary. In such circumstances, what would you do?
- Call him over to your room and personally explain why the allotment cannot be done.
- Allot the house to him to win his loyalty.
- Agree with the office note to show that you are not biased and that you do not indulge in favouritism.
- Keep the file with you and not pass any orders.
Explanation: Since the rules were made public and the secretariat has correctly applied them, agreeing with the office note upholds institutional integrity and demonstrates impartiality, which is the most appropriate administrative response.
While travelling in a Delhi-registered commercial taxi from Delhi to an adjacent city (another State), your taxi driver informs you that as he has no permit for running the taxi in that city, he will stop at its Transport Office and pay the prescribed fee of Rs. forty for a day. While paying the fee at the counter you find that the transport clerk is taking an extra fifty rupees for which no receipt is being given. You are in a hurry for your meeting. In such circumstances, what would you do?
- Go up to the counter and ask the clerk to give back the money which he has illegally taken.
- Do not interfere at all as this is a matter between the taxi driver and the tax authorities.
- Take note of the incident and subsequently report the matter to the concerned authorities.
- Treat it as a normal affair and simply forget about it.
Explanation: Because you are in a hurry for a meeting, confronting the clerk immediately may not be practical. However, the illegal taking of money without receipt is a serious matter that should be documented and reported to the appropriate authorities later.