Consider the following statements regarding Digital governance and the reduction of information asymmetry:
1. The Public Records Act of 1993 governs the management of government files, and it allows for the automatic declassification of all cabinet documents after a period of 20 years.
2. The e-District Mission Mode Project, under the National e-Governance Plan, integrates various government services to provide a single-window interface for citizens to access state-level information.
3. Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005, places a proactive disclosure obligation on public authorities to publish information to minimize the need for formal information requests.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Public Records Act, 1993, does not mandate automatic declassification of cabinet documents; instead, the Manual of Departmental Security Instructions governs declassification, typically after 25-30 years. Statement 2 is correct as the e-District project aims to provide integrated, time-bound, and transparent government services at the district level through a single-window interface. Statement 3 is correct because Section 4 of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates that public authorities proactively disclose information to reduce the reliance on formal RTI applications, thereby promoting transparency and reducing information asymmetry.
Consider the following statements regarding Social audits as a tool for administrative accountability:
1. The National Rural Health Mission, launched in 2005, incorporates the Jan Sunwai model of social audit as a standard procedure for evaluating the performance of district-level health societies.
2. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the constitution of the District Planning Committee, which serves as the primary body responsible for conducting social audits of all centrally sponsored schemes.
3. The Right to Information Act, 2005, includes provisions for the establishment of the Social Audit Unit under Section 4, which oversees the internal grievance redressal mechanism of the Central Information Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the National Rural Health Mission does not mandate the Jan Sunwai model as a standard procedure for district-level health societies; the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act mandates District Planning Committees for developmental planning rather than social audits; and the Right to Information Act, 2005, contains no provisions for establishing a Social Audit Unit under Section 4, which instead focuses on the suo motu disclosure obligations of public authorities.
Consider the following statements regarding Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Act:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 4th report, recommended the enactment of the PIDPI Act and proposed the creation of a special cell within the Supreme Court for whistleblower oversight.
2. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act of 2011 was introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions to replace the 2004 Resolution with a statutory framework.
3. The 2014 Whistle Blowers Protection Act received the President's assent on 9 May 2014, though it remains pending full implementation through a formal notification in the Gazette.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014 received Presidential assent on May 9, 2014, but it has not been brought into force through a formal government notification. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 2nd ARC recommended whistleblower protection, it proposed the creation of a designated authority under the Central Vigilance Commission, not the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2011 Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, but it was intended to provide a statutory mechanism for the entire country, not specifically to replace a 2004 Resolution, which was a separate executive order.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in public procurement and e-tendering:
1. The Integrity Pact, introduced by Transparency International, is a formal document that government contractors sign to ensure compliance with the 1998 guidelines on public sector procurement transparency.
2. The Competition Commission of India, established under the Competition Act of 2002, oversees the technical evaluation of e-tenders to prevent bid-rigging in state-level public works.
3. The National e-Governance Plan, approved in 2006, includes provisions for the integration of the GeM portal with the Ministry of Finance's Public Financial Management System for real-time fund tracking.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Integrity Pact is a tool to prevent corruption in public contracting, not a document tied to specific 1998 guidelines. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Competition Commission of India investigates anti-competitive practices like bid-rigging but does not conduct technical evaluations of e-tenders, which remain the responsibility of the procuring entity. Statement 3 is incorrect because the GeM portal was launched in 2016, not as part of the 2006 National e-Governance Plan, although it is integrated with the Public Financial Management System for financial transparency.
Consider the following statements regarding Official Secrets Act vs Transparency regimes:
1. The Central Information Commission was constituted under the Right to Information Act 2005 to act as the final appellate authority for information requests.
2. The Public Records Act of 1993 regulates the management, administration, and preservation of public records in the custody of the Government of India.
3. The 2006 amendment to the Right to Information Act removed the provision regarding the exclusion of file notings from the definition of information.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the CIC is established under Section 12 of the RTI Act 2005 to serve as the highest appellate body. Statement 2 is correct because the Public Records Act 1993 provides the legal framework for the management and preservation of government records. Statement 3 is correct as the 2006 amendment clarified that 'file notings' are included within the definition of 'information' under Section 2(f) of the RTI Act, ensuring greater transparency in decision-making processes.
Consider the following statements regarding Central Information Commission powers and limitations:
1. Section 12 of the Right to Information Act provides that the Commission consists of one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners.
2. The Right to Information Act of 2005 empowers the Central Information Commission to impose a penalty of 250 rupees per day on public information officers, subject to a maximum limit of 50,000 rupees.
3. The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005 under the provisions of the Right to Information Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct as Section 12 of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates the constitution of the CIC with one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners, established by the Central Government in 2005. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Act empowers the CIC to impose a penalty of 250 rupees per day on a Public Information Officer for delays, the maximum cumulative penalty is capped at 25,000 rupees, not 50,000 rupees.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in political funding and electoral bonds:
1. The Electoral Bond Scheme was notified by the Ministry of Finance on January 2, 2018, under the provisions of the Finance Act, 2017.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the Electoral Bond Scheme in February 2024, citing violations of the fundamental right to information under Article 19(1)(a).
3. The Finance Act of 2017 introduced amendments to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which permitted the issuance of bearer instruments for political funding through the Election Commission of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Electoral Bond Scheme was indeed notified by the Ministry of Finance on January 2, 2018, via the Finance Act, 2017. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court, in the Association for Democratic Reforms vs. Union of India case (February 2024), declared the scheme unconstitutional for violating the right to information under Article 19(1)(a). Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Finance Act 2017 amended the RBI Act, the bonds were issued through the State Bank of India (SBI), not the Election Commission of India, and the amendments allowed for the issuance of bearer instruments that bypassed transparency requirements.
Consider the following statements regarding Whistleblower protection mechanisms and legal safeguards:
1. Section 4 of the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014 allows any person to make a public interest disclosure before the Competent Authority.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission is designated as the Competent Authority to receive complaints relating to employees of the Central Government under the 2014 Act.
3. The United Nations Convention against Corruption, which India ratified in 2011, includes Article 33 regarding the protection of reporting persons.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 4 of the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, empowers any person to make a public interest disclosure regarding corruption or misuse of power to the Competent Authority. Statement 2 is correct because the Act designates the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) as the Competent Authority for receiving complaints against Central Government employees, excluding those under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. Statement 3 is correct as India ratified the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) in 2011, which mandates under Article 33 that member states incorporate measures to provide protection against unjustified treatment for any person who reports facts concerning corruption offences in good faith.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional mechanisms for grievance redressal:
1. The Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) was launched by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in 2007 to facilitate online grievance submission.
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provides for the establishment of a body to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries including the Prime Minister.
3. The Right to Information Act of 2005 designates the Public Information Officer as the primary point of contact for citizens seeking records held by public authorities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as CPGRAMS was launched in 2007 by DARPG to provide a single-window interface for citizens to lodge grievances online. Statement 2 is correct because the 2013 Act establishes the Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayuktas in states, with the Lokpal having jurisdiction over public functionaries, including the Prime Minister, subject to specific exclusions. Statement 3 is correct as the RTI Act, 2005 mandates that every public authority designate Public Information Officers (PIOs) to receive and process requests for information from citizens.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Lokpal and Lokayuktas in administrative transparency:
1. Section 20 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, empowers the Lokpal to authorize the Central Bureau of Investigation to conduct a preliminary inquiry into complaints referred to it.
2. The Chairperson of the Lokpal is selected by a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India, and an eminent jurist.
3. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provides for the establishment of a Lokpal at the Union level and Lokayuktas in the States to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Section 20 of the 2013 Act empowers the Lokpal to direct the CBI to conduct a preliminary inquiry into corruption complaints; the selection committee for the Chairperson includes the PM, Speaker, Leader of the Opposition, CJI (or a nominated judge), and an eminent jurist; and the Act mandates a two-tier structure with the Lokpal at the Union level and Lokayuktas at the State level to investigate public functionaries.
Consider the following statements regarding Social audits as a tool for administrative accountability:
1. The 2008 Social Audit Guidelines for the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme provide for the creation of a Social Audit Directorate, which reports its findings directly to the Prime Minister's Office.
2. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament oversees the implementation of social audit reports submitted by the Ministry of Rural Development under the provisions of the 2011 Social Audit Rules.
3. The National Food Security Act, 2013, provides for the monitoring of the Public Distribution System through vigilance committees, which operate under the direct administrative control of the State Food Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Social Audit Unit (SAU) is an independent body established by the State Government, not the PMO. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines government accounts and CAG reports, whereas social audit reports are typically reviewed by the Gram Sabha and the State Government. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under the National Food Security Act, 2013, vigilance committees are mandated to monitor the PDS, but they function independently to ensure transparency and are not under the direct administrative control of the State Food Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and service delivery standards:
1. The Right to Public Services Act, enacted in 2011, provides for the appointment of an independent Ombudsman at the district level to adjudicate service delivery delays.
2. The 1997 Conference of Chief Ministers adopted the Action Plan for Effective and Responsive Government, which initiated the widespread implementation of Citizen Charters in India.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission report of 2009 suggests the establishment of a National Standards Authority to certify the quality of services provided by all state-run hospitals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the 1997 Conference of Chief Ministers launched the Action Plan for Effective and Responsive Government, which formalized the adoption of Citizen Charters in India. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Right to Public Services Acts are state-specific legislations that typically designate a 'Designated Officer,' 'First Appellate Authority,' and 'Second Appellate Authority' rather than an independent district-level Ombudsman. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Second Administrative Reforms Commission (12th Report) recommended a 'Citizen's Charter' for public services but did not propose a National Standards Authority specifically for hospital certification.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in public procurement and e-tendering:
1. The e-Procurement system in India currently utilizes the Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP), which serves as a single point of access for information on tenders across central government organizations.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission issued guidelines in 2007 advising that all tenders valued above Rs 5 lakh should be published on the departmental website to ensure transparency.
3. The Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order, 2017, provides for purchase preference to local suppliers in government procurement activities based on the percentage of local content.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Central Public Procurement Portal (eprocure.gov.in) acts as the centralized platform for all central government tenders. Statement 2 is correct because the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) issued circulars in 2007 mandating the publication of tenders exceeding Rs 5 lakh on departmental websites to curb corruption and enhance accountability. Statement 3 is correct as the 2017 'Make in India' Order mandates purchase preference for local suppliers, categorizing them into Class-I and Class-II based on local content thresholds to boost domestic manufacturing.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in judicial appointments and proceedings:
1. The Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, introduced in the Lok Sabha in 2010, allows for the creation of a National Judicial Oversight Committee and includes provisions for the immediate removal of judges by the executive.
2. Article 124 of the Constitution provides for the appointment of Supreme Court judges by the President, and the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2014 established the procedure for the inclusion of the Leader of the Opposition in the selection committee.
3. Under the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) for the appointment of judges, the Chief Justice of India initiates the proposal for the appointment of a Supreme Court judge at least one month before the anticipated vacancy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Memorandum of Procedure mandates the Chief Justice of India to initiate proposals for Supreme Court vacancies at least one month in advance. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Judicial Standards and Accountability Bill, 2010, did not grant the executive power to remove judges, as removal remains a parliamentary process under Article 124(4). Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 99th Amendment established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015, rendering the amendment void and restoring the Collegium system.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in political funding and electoral bonds:
1. Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, encompasses the disclosure of donations exceeding ₹20,000, and this threshold was applied to electoral bonds following the 2018 notification.
2. The Election Commission of India reported that political parties received approximately ₹16,518 crore through electoral bonds between March 2018 and January 2024.
3. The electoral bond denominations were set at multiples of ₹1,000, ₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh, and ₹1 crore, with the issuance window open for 15 days in every quarter of the financial year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the ECI data confirms approximately ₹16,518 crore was received via electoral bonds between 2018 and 2024. Statement 1 is incorrect because electoral bonds were specifically exempted from the Section 29C disclosure requirements, maintaining donor anonymity rather than applying the ₹20,000 threshold. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the denominations were accurate, the issuance window was not fixed to every quarter; the government notified specific 10-day windows each month, with additional 30-day periods during Lok Sabha election years.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethics of data privacy in government surveillance:
1. Section 69 of the Information Technology Act allows for the interception of digital communications, and the 2009 Rules under this section provide the procedure for oversight by a committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
2. The OECD Guidelines on the Protection of Privacy and Transborder Flows of Personal Data, adopted in 1980, form the foundational structure for the 2023 Digital Personal Data Protection Act regarding the processing of sensitive government metadata.
3. The Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India judgment of 2017 established that the right to privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the landmark 2017 Puttaswamy judgment unanimously declared privacy a fundamental right under Article 21. Statement 1 is incorrect because the oversight committee for interception under the 2009 Rules is headed by the Union Home Secretary, not the Cabinet Secretary. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the OECD Guidelines are globally influential, the 2023 Digital Personal Data Protection Act is primarily based on the principles of the Srikrishna Committee report and does not explicitly adopt the OECD framework as its foundational structure for processing sensitive government metadata.
Consider the following statements regarding Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Act:
1. The 2004 PIDPI Resolution established the Whistle Blowers Protection Authority as a constitutional body to oversee the safety of informants in central public sector undertakings.
2. The Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers (PIDPI) Resolution was formally adopted by the Government of India on 21 April 2004.
3. Under the PIDPI framework, the Central Vigilance Commission is designated as the nodal agency to receive written complaints from whistleblowers regarding corruption or misuse of office.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Government of India issued the PIDPI Resolution on 21 April 2004 to provide a mechanism for reporting corruption. Statement 3 is correct because the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is designated as the nodal agency to receive and process complaints under this resolution. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, proposed a statutory authority, but the 2004 PIDPI resolution did not establish any constitutional body; the CVC currently acts as the designated agency for the PIDPI mandate.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and service delivery standards:
1. The Public Service Guarantee Act of 2005 allows citizens to file an appeal with the State Information Commission if they do not receive a service within the prescribed timeline.
2. The Citizens' Charter initiative, launched in 1997, includes provisions for the automatic imposition of financial penalties on officers who fail to meet the standards defined in the charter.
3. The Sevottam framework, developed in 2006, encompasses the creation of a dedicated grievance redressal cell that reports directly to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect: The Right to Public Service Acts are enacted by individual states, not a central 2005 Act, and appeals lie with designated appellate authorities, not the State Information Commission. The Citizens' Charter initiative is a voluntary, non-justiciable framework without provisions for automatic financial penalties. The Sevottam framework focuses on internal service delivery excellence and grievance redressal within departments, having no reporting mandate to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative oversight and parliamentary committee scrutiny:
1. Under the provisions of the Right to Information Act 2005, the Central Information Commission is empowered to receive and inquire into complaints from any person who has been unable to obtain information from a public authority.
2. The Ethics Committee of the Rajya Sabha, which was constituted in 1997, maintains the Register of Members' Interests and oversees the judicial review of legislative conduct during parliamentary sessions.
3. The Select Committee on a Bill, as provided for in the Lok Sabha rules, functions as a permanent body that oversees the drafting of legislation before it reaches the floor for the second reading.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 18 of the RTI Act, 2005 empowers the CIC to receive and inquire into complaints regarding the denial of information. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Ethics Committee does maintain the Register of Members' Interests, it does not oversee judicial review, as judicial review is the exclusive domain of the judiciary. Statement 3 is incorrect because Select Committees are ad-hoc bodies constituted for specific bills rather than permanent standing committees, and they do not draft legislation but rather examine the provisions of a bill referred to them.
Consider the following statements regarding Central Information Commission powers and limitations:
1. The Central Information Commission submits its annual report to the Department of Personnel and Training, which then presents the document to the Parliament for legislative review.
2. The Act provides for the appointment of Information Commissioners from diverse fields such as law, science and technology, and social service, with the selection process overseen by the Union Public Service Commission.
3. The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President based on the recommendations of a committee chaired by the Prime Minister. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Commission submits its annual report directly to the Central Government, which then lays it before each House of Parliament, rather than through the DoPT. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Act specifies diverse fields for appointment, the selection committee is headed by the Prime Minister, not the Union Public Service Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative oversight and parliamentary committee scrutiny:
1. The Public Accounts Committee, established in 1921 under the Government of India Act 1919, examines the appropriation accounts and the annual finance accounts of the Government of India.
2. The Estimates Committee, which was first constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Matthai, possesses the authority to examine the performance of public sector undertakings under the oversight of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
3. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, established in 1953, reviews the implementation of laws passed by Parliament and holds the power to amend executive regulations that exceed the scope of the parent Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Public Accounts Committee was indeed established in 1921 under the Government of India Act 1919 to audit government expenditure. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Estimates Committee does not examine public sector undertakings (which fall under the Committee on Public Undertakings) and does not rely on the Comptroller and Auditor General for its reports. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines regulations to ensure they stay within the scope of the parent Act, it lacks the power to amend them directly; it can only report its findings and recommendations to the House.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information Act 2005 statutory framework:
1. The Act provides for the creation of the State Information Commission under Section 15, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by a committee headed by the Prime Minister, which includes the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the President.
3. Section 7(1) of the Act outlines the time limit for providing information, setting a period of 48 hours for requests concerning the life or liberty of a person and 45 days for standard applications.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the State Information Commission is an independent statutory body and does not function under the administrative control of the Union Ministry. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Union Cabinet Minister is nominated by the Prime Minister, not the President. Statement 3 is incorrect because the standard time limit for providing information is 30 days, not 45 days, while the 48-hour limit for life or liberty cases is accurate.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethics of data privacy in government surveillance:
1. The Aadhaar Act of 2016 includes provisions for the authentication of identity, and the 2018 Supreme Court verdict upheld the use of biometric data for private sector verification while limiting state surveillance powers.
2. The Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 provides the legal framework for telephone tapping, and the 1996 Supreme Court ruling in PUCL v. Union of India introduced the requirement for parliamentary approval before any interception order.
3. The National Cyber Security Policy of 2013 encompasses the creation of a 24/7 National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre, which is empowered to monitor private encrypted communications without judicial warrants.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2018 Supreme Court verdict in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India struck down Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, prohibiting private entities from using Aadhaar for authentication. Statement 2 is incorrect because the PUCL v. Union of India (1997) judgment mandated that interception orders be reviewed by a high-level committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not by parliamentary approval. Statement 3 is incorrect as the National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) is tasked with protecting critical infrastructure, and it lacks the legal authority to monitor private encrypted communications without judicial or executive oversight as per established law.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional mechanisms for grievance redressal:
1. The Right to Information Act of 2005 includes provisions for the establishment of a Central Information Commission, and the 2019 amendment provides for the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner for a fixed term of five years.
2. The CPGRAMS portal allows for the filing of grievances related to 1,000+ central and state government organizations, providing a unified interface for tracking the status of complaints.
3. The RTI Act of 2005 provides that the Information Commission has the power to impose a penalty of two hundred and fifty rupees per day on a Public Information Officer for delay in providing information.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019, empowers the Central Government to prescribe the term of office for the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners, removing the earlier fixed five-year tenure. Statement 2 is correct as CPGRAMS serves as a unified, web-based portal for citizens to lodge grievances against various central and state government ministries and departments. Statement 3 is correct because under Section 20(1) of the RTI Act, 2005, the Information Commission can impose a penalty of Rs. 250 per day, up to a maximum of Rs. 25,000, on a Public Information Officer for failing to provide information without reasonable cause.
Consider the following statements regarding Proactive disclosure under Section 4 of RTI Act:
1. The 2005 RTI Act includes a provision in Section 4(1)(c) that encourages public authorities to provide reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons within a period of 45 days.
2. The 2013 guidelines on proactive disclosure suggest that the information published under Section 4 should be updated at least once every three years to reflect changes in the organizational structure of the public authority.
3. Under Section 4(2) of the RTI Act, public authorities provide information through various means of communication, including the internet, to ensure minimum resort to the use of the Act to obtain information.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Section 4(2) mandates that public authorities provide as much information as possible suo motu to the public to reduce the need for formal RTI requests. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 4(1)(d) requires providing reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions, not Section 4(1)(c), and the Act does not specify a 45-day timeline for this. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2013 DoPT guidelines mandate that proactive disclosures under Section 4 must be updated at least once every year, not every three years.
Consider the following statements regarding Open Data Policy and Government data accessibility:
1. The Open Data Policy of India aligns with the 'Open by Default' principle, which suggests that non-sensitive government datasets should be accessible without prior request.
2. The National Geospatial Policy, 2022, aims to promote the use of geospatial data for socio-economic development while maintaining national security protocols.
3. As of 2023, the Open Government Data Platform India hosts over 600,000 datasets contributed by various ministries and departments to enhance transparency.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP) mandates that government data be 'open by default' to foster transparency. Statement 2 is correct because the National Geospatial Policy, 2022, liberalizes the geospatial sector to support economic growth while ensuring national security through a regulatory framework. Statement 3 is correct as the Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India (data.gov.in) has successfully scaled its repository to over 600,000 datasets, facilitating data-driven governance and public accountability.
Consider the following statements regarding Freedom of Information vs National Security exceptions:
1. The 2013 Supreme Court judgment in the case of 'R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu' established that the right to privacy is an essential component of the right to life under Article 21, influencing the interpretation of disclosure exemptions.
2. The 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights, in Article 19, recognizes the freedom to seek, receive, and impart information, though it acknowledges that such rights are subject to limitations for national security.
3. The Official Secrets Act of 1923 remains a primary legislative instrument for the classification of government documents, often cited alongside the RTI Act to deny access to sensitive national security data.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1994 R. Rajagopal judgment (often linked to privacy jurisprudence) established the right to privacy as part of Article 21, which informs the Section 8(1)(j) exemption of the RTI Act regarding personal information. Statement 2 is correct because Article 19 of the 1948 UDHR guarantees the right to information while explicitly allowing for restrictions in the interest of national security and public order. Statement 3 is correct as the colonial-era Official Secrets Act, 1923, continues to be used by the government to classify documents, creating a persistent tension with the transparency mandate of the 2005 RTI Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability in Public-Private Partnerships:
1. The 2016 Model Concession Agreement provides for dispute resolution through arbitration, and the 2018 NITI Aayog circular allows the immediate public release of all private sector trade secrets during ongoing litigation.
2. As of 2023, the NITI Aayog guidelines for Public-Private Partnerships in social infrastructure suggest the publication of audit reports for projects exceeding 500 crore rupees.
3. The 2013 Companies Act, under Section 135, links corporate social responsibility spending in infrastructure projects to the mandatory disclosure of project impact assessments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because NITI Aayog guidelines emphasize protecting commercial confidentiality and trade secrets, even during litigation, to maintain investor confidence. Statement 2 is correct as NITI Aayog's framework for social infrastructure PPPs mandates transparency through the public disclosure of audit reports for high-value projects exceeding 500 crore rupees. Statement 3 is correct because Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, requires companies to undertake impact assessments for CSR projects with outlays of 1 crore or more, ensuring accountability in infrastructure-related social spending.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability in Public-Private Partnerships:
1. The 2005 RTI Act provides that public authorities are responsible for disclosing information regarding the terms and conditions of Public-Private Partnership agreements to the public.
2. The 2005 RTI Act encompasses the disclosure of private contractor records, and under the 2012 Amendment, the Central Information Commission gained the authority to audit private firm balance sheets directly.
3. The 2016 Model Concession Agreement for highway projects includes a specific clause requiring the disclosure of financial performance data to the Independent Engineer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act mandates public authorities to disclose all relevant facts while providing services, including PPP agreements. Statement 3 is correct because Model Concession Agreements (MCAs) for highways include provisions for transparency and oversight by an Independent Engineer to ensure project accountability. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the RTI Act allows access to private records held by a public authority, the 2012 Amendment did not grant the Central Information Commission the power to directly audit the balance sheets of private firms.
Consider the following statements regarding Whistleblower protection mechanisms and legal safeguards:
1. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014 received the assent of the President of India on 9 May 2014.
2. The Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Resolution of 2004 established the Central Bureau of Investigation as the primary agency for handling whistleblower complaints.
3. The 2011 Amendment to the Whistle Blowers Protection Act introduced the provision for anonymous complaints to be processed directly by the Supreme Court of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, received Presidential assent on 9 May 2014 to provide a mechanism for receiving complaints relating to corruption or willful misuse of power. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2004 PIDPI Resolution designated the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) as the nodal agency for receiving complaints, not the CBI. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Act does not allow anonymous complaints; it explicitly requires the complainant to disclose their identity, and there is no provision for the Supreme Court to process such complaints directly.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital governance and the reduction of information asymmetry:
1. The Digital India initiative, launched on July 1, 2015, aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society by improving online infrastructure and governance transparency.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005, establishes a legal framework for citizens to access records held by public authorities to reduce information asymmetry.
3. The MyGov platform, introduced in July 2014, serves as a citizen engagement portal to facilitate participatory governance and real-time feedback on policy implementation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the Digital India initiative was launched on July 1, 2015, to enhance digital infrastructure and governance; the RTI Act, 2005, mandates transparency by granting citizens access to public records, thereby bridging the information gap between the state and the public; and the MyGov platform, launched in July 2014, effectively promotes participatory governance by enabling direct citizen interaction and feedback on policy matters.
Consider the following statements regarding Social audits as a tool for administrative accountability:
1. The Meghalaya Community Participation and Public Services Social Audit Act, 2017, represents the first state-level legislation in India to provide a legal framework for social audits across multiple government departments.
2. Section 17 of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, provides for the regular conduct of social audits by the Gram Sabha to monitor the implementation of projects.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India issued the Auditing Standards for Social Audit in 2017 to provide a uniform framework for conducting social audits of government schemes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Meghalaya became the first state to enact the 'Meghalaya Community Participation and Public Services Social Audit Act, 2017' to institutionalize social audits across various government programs. Statement 2 is correct because Section 17 of the MGNREGA, 2005, mandates that the Gram Sabha must monitor the execution of works and conduct social audits to ensure transparency and accountability. Statement 3 is correct as the CAG of India released the 'Auditing Standards for Social Audit' in 2017 to establish a standardized framework for evaluating the performance and compliance of social welfare schemes.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information Act 2005 statutory framework:
1. Appeals against the decisions of the Public Information Officer are handled by the First Appellate Authority within 30 days, as specified under the 2012 amendment to the RTI rules.
2. The Second Schedule of the Right to Information Act includes the Intelligence Bureau and the Research and Analysis Wing, which are exempted from the disclosure provisions under Section 8(1)(a).
3. The Central Information Commission is established under Section 12 of the Act and holds the power to impose penalties on public information officers reaching up to 50,000 rupees.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI Act 2005 mandates the First Appellate Authority to dispose of appeals within 30 days (extendable to 45 days), not the 2012 rules. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Intelligence Bureau and RAW are in the Second Schedule, they are exempted under Section 24, not Section 8(1)(a). Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 20 of the Act, the Central Information Commission can impose a maximum penalty of only 25,000 rupees (at the rate of 250 rupees per day of delay), not 50,000 rupees.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Lokpal and Lokayuktas in administrative transparency:
1. The Administrative Reforms Commission, chaired by Morarji Desai in 1966, recommended the creation of the Lokpal and the office of the Lokayukta to address grievances against the judiciary.
2. The state of Maharashtra enacted the Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act in 1971, which allows the institution to initiate suo motu investigations into the conduct of the Chief Minister.
3. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, includes provisions for the Lokpal to exercise administrative control over the Central Vigilance Commission during the investigation of Group A officers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the ARC recommended the creation of these institutions to address grievances against administrative actions of public servants, not the judiciary. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Maharashtra Lokayukta Act, 1971, explicitly excludes the Chief Minister from the purview of the Lokayukta's investigation. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, does not grant the Lokpal administrative control over the Central Vigilance Commission; instead, it mandates that the Lokpal may refer cases to the CVC for preliminary inquiry, while the CVC remains an independent statutory body.
Consider the following statements regarding Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Act:
1. The 2015 Amendment Bill to the Whistle Blowers Protection Act sought to include provisions for national security and sovereignty, aligning the disclosure process with the Official Secrets Act of 1923.
2. Section 11 of the Whistle Blowers Protection Act provides for the establishment of a National Whistleblower Commission headed by a retired Chief Justice of India to adjudicate disclosure disputes.
3. The Central Vigilance Commission issued the PIDPI circular in 2004, which grants the Commission the power to initiate criminal prosecution against officials identified in public interest disclosures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2015 Amendment Bill proposed restricting disclosures related to national security, sovereignty, and public order, rather than aligning with the Official Secrets Act. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act does not establish a National Whistleblower Commission; instead, the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is designated as the competent authority to receive complaints. Statement 3 is incorrect because the PIDPI resolution empowers the CVC to act as a designated agency to receive complaints and recommend action, but it does not grant the Commission the legal authority to initiate criminal prosecution directly.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict of interest and disclosure norms for public servants:
1. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, encompasses the definition of a public servant under Section 2(c) and provides for the automatic forfeiture of assets held in benami names since the 2016 amendment.
2. The OECD Guidelines on Managing Conflict of Interest in the Public Service, published in 2003, refers to the disclosure of private interests and suggests that such disclosures remain accessible to the general public through online portals.
3. The Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964, include Rule 13, which provides guidelines for the reporting of gifts received by government servants exceeding the value of 25,000 rupees.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because Rule 13 of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, mandates that government servants must report gifts exceeding Rs 25,000 received from any person. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, does not contain provisions for the forfeiture of benami assets; that is governed by the separate Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (amended in 2016). Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 2003 OECD Guidelines advocate for the disclosure of private interests, they do not mandate that such disclosures must be accessible to the general public, leaving the level of transparency to the discretion of individual member states.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information Act 2005 statutory framework:
1. Section 4(1)(b) of the Right to Information Act 2005 lists 17 categories of information that public authorities are expected to publish proactively.
2. The Act defines a public authority under Section 2(h) to include bodies constituted by the Constitution or by any law made by Parliament, including private entities receiving more than 25 percent of their funding from the government.
3. The Right to Information Act received the assent of the President of India on 15 June 2005 and came into full force on 12 October 2005.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 4(1)(b) mandates public authorities to proactively disclose 17 specific categories of information to ensure transparency. Statement 3 is correct because the RTI Act received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005 and became fully operational on 12 October 2005. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while Section 2(h) includes bodies constituted by the Constitution or law, it does not specify a '25 percent' funding threshold for private entities; rather, it covers non-government organizations substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate government.
Consider the following statements regarding Official Secrets Act vs Transparency regimes:
1. Section 22 of the Right to Information Act 2005 establishes the supremacy of the Act over any inconsistent provisions in the Official Secrets Act 1923.
2. Section 8 of the Right to Information Act 2005 provides for the exemption of disclosure of information that would impede the process of investigation or apprehension of offenders.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its first report titled 'Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance' recommended the repeal of the Official Secrets Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because Section 22 of the RTI Act, 2005, grants it an overriding effect over any inconsistent laws, including the Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923. Statement 2 is correct as Section 8(1)(h) of the RTI Act explicitly exempts information that would impede the process of investigation or apprehension of offenders. Statement 3 is correct because the Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its first report (2006), recommended replacing the OSA with a chapter in the National Security Act to align with the spirit of transparency.
Consider the following statements regarding Whistleblower protection mechanisms and legal safeguards:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its 4th Report recommended the creation of a National Whistleblower Commission under the direct supervision of the Ministry of Law and Justice.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005 contains Section 8(1)(j) which provides for the disclosure of personal information if the Central Information Commission deems it in the public interest.
3. The Whistle Blowers Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2015 sought to align the 2014 Act with the Official Secrets Act of 1923 by removing the exemption for national security disclosures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 4th ARC report recommended the establishment of a Public Interest Disclosure Protection Law, not a commission under the Ministry of Law and Justice. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act actually provides an exemption from disclosure for personal information that has no relationship to any public activity, unless the larger public interest justifies it, rather than mandating disclosure. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2015 Amendment Bill sought to introduce new exemptions for national security and sovereignty, rather than removing them to align with the Official Secrets Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital governance and the reduction of information asymmetry:
1. The Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India, governed by the National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP) of 2012, provides access to non-sensitive government datasets.
2. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI), launched by the National Payments Corporation of India in 2016, promotes financial transparency by digitizing government-to-citizen transactions.
3. The National e-Governance Plan was approved in May 2006, and it introduced the Common Service Centres to provide direct access to the India Portal for real-time legislative tracking.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the OGD Platform (data.gov.in) operationalizes the NDSAP 2012 to make non-sensitive government data publicly accessible. Statement 2 is correct because UPI, launched in 2016, enhances financial transparency by creating a digital audit trail for transactions, reducing leakages in G2C transfers. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) was approved in 2006 and established Common Service Centres (CSCs) as front-end delivery points for government services, these centers are not designed for real-time legislative tracking, which is a function of the Parliament's official website.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in judicial appointments and proceedings:
1. The Supreme Court Rules of 2013 contain provisions for the disclosure of asset declarations by sitting judges, which are accessible to the public through the official website of the Registry since the 2015 amendments.
2. The Collegium system, which governs judicial appointments, was formally institutionalized following the 1993 Second Judges Case, which established the primacy of the judiciary in the selection process.
3. The Right to Information Act, 2005, was invoked in the 2019 Supreme Court judgment of Central Public Information Officer v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal, which brought the office of the Chief Justice of India under the purview of the Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because, while the 1997 'Restatement of Values of Judicial Life' encourages voluntary disclosure, there is no mandatory legal provision in the Supreme Court Rules of 2013 requiring public disclosure of judges' assets on the Registry website. Statement 2 is correct as the Collegium system evolved from the 1993 Second Judges Case, which shifted the power of appointment from the executive to a body of senior judges. Statement 3 is correct because the 2019 landmark judgment in CPIO v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal affirmed that the office of the Chief Justice of India is a 'public authority' under the RTI Act, 2005, thereby bringing it within the ambit of transparency laws.
Consider the following statements regarding Open Data Policy and Government data accessibility:
1. The G20 Anti-Corruption Open Data Principles, adopted in 2015, encourage member countries to make government data available in machine-readable and open formats.
2. The Metadata and Data Standards (MDS) version 2.0 was released by the Department of Science and Technology to ensure uniformity in data formats across government portals.
3. The Digital India Corporation provides the technical framework for the implementation of the Open Government Data Platform across various central and state departments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2015 G20 Anti-Corruption Open Data Principles mandate proactive disclosure of government data in accessible, machine-readable formats to foster transparency. Statement 2 is correct because the Metadata and Data Standards (MDS) version 2.0, notified by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and implemented via the National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP), ensures interoperability across government portals. Statement 3 is correct as the Digital India Corporation, under MeitY, manages the Open Government Data (OGD) Platform (data.gov.in) to provide a unified technical framework for data sharing across all levels of government.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative oversight and parliamentary committee scrutiny:
1. The Joint Committee on Offices of Profit, which functions under the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act 1959, holds the power to disqualify members of the legislature who accept positions in statutory bodies.
2. Rule 268 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha provides that the Committee on Estimates shall consist of 30 members elected by the House from amongst its members.
3. The Departmentally Related Standing Committees were formally introduced in the Indian Parliament in 1993 to strengthen the process of legislative scrutiny over the executive's financial and policy decisions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Joint Committee on Offices of Profit merely examines the composition and character of committees and bodies appointed by the government and makes recommendations to the government; it lacks the legal authority to disqualify members itself. Statement 2 is correct as Rule 268 mandates that the Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members elected annually by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. Statement 3 is correct because the 17 Departmentally Related Standing Committees were formally established in 1993 to ensure more rigorous parliamentary scrutiny of the executive's administrative and financial operations.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict of interest and disclosure norms for public servants:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 4th report titled 'Ethics in Governance' submitted in 2007, recommended the introduction of a specific code of ethics for public servants.
2. The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) circular issued in 2011 concerning the declaration of assets refers to the submission of annual returns and includes a clause for the public display of these returns on departmental websites.
3. The Right to Information Act, 2005, under Section 4(1)(b)(ii), specifies that public authorities maintain records of the powers and duties of their officers and employees.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 4th ARC report (2007) explicitly recommended a formal Code of Ethics for public servants to address integrity issues. Statement 3 is correct because Section 4(1)(b)(ii) of the RTI Act mandates that public authorities publish the powers and duties of their officers to ensure transparency. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the DoPT requires the submission of annual asset returns, these are not mandatorily displayed on public websites; they are generally maintained for internal oversight and provided upon request under specific service rules.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional mechanisms for grievance redressal:
1. Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides procedural safeguards to civil servants, which intersects with administrative accountability during disciplinary grievance proceedings.
2. The Sevottam model, introduced in 2006, serves as a quality management framework for public service delivery by focusing on citizen charters and grievance redressal mechanisms.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 12th report titled 'Citizen Centric Administration', recommended the creation of a dedicated Ombudsman at the district level.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 311 provides constitutional protection to civil servants against arbitrary dismissal or reduction in rank, ensuring due process in disciplinary proceedings. Statement 2 is correct because the Sevottam model, launched in 2006 by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, establishes a framework for service excellence through citizen charters and effective grievance handling. Statement 3 is correct as the 12th report of the Second ARC specifically advocated for strengthening local-level accountability by recommending the establishment of a district-level Ombudsman to address public grievances.
Consider the following statements regarding Proactive disclosure under Section 4 of RTI Act:
1. The RTI Amendment Act of 2019 introduced a specific provision under Section 4(3) that empowers the Cabinet Secretary to determine the salary and service conditions of Information Commissioners.
2. The 2012 guidelines on proactive disclosure suggest that the annual report submitted by public authorities to the Parliament should include a detailed list of all individuals who filed requests under Section 6 of the Act.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission report of 2006 recommended that the Central Information Commission serve as the primary nodal agency for auditing the proactive disclosure compliance of all state-level departments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2019 Amendment Act empowers the Central Government, not the Cabinet Secretary, to determine the service conditions of Information Commissioners. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 2012 guidelines focus on proactive disclosure of information held by public authorities, and there is no mandate to publish a list of individuals filing RTI requests, which would violate privacy norms. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Second ARC recommended that the CIC should only act as an appellate body and monitor implementation, while the responsibility for auditing compliance rests with the respective public authorities and the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability in Public-Private Partnerships:
1. Under the 2011 National PPP Policy, the government maintains a central database that records the status of private investment in infrastructure projects across 12 major sectors.
2. The 2009 Infrastructure Development Finance Company framework includes provisions for the periodic publication of risk assessment reports concerning long-term government-private contracts.
3. The 2017 Public Procurement Order provides that private entities participating in government-funded infrastructure projects are subject to oversight by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2011 National PPP Policy mandates the creation of a centralized database to track infrastructure investments across 12 designated sectors to ensure transparency. Statement 2 is correct because the IDFC framework, aligned with government guidelines, requires periodic risk assessment disclosures for long-term PPP contracts to mitigate fiscal liabilities. Statement 3 is correct as the 2017 Public Procurement Order and subsequent amendments empower the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) to audit private entities involved in government-funded projects to ensure public funds are utilized with accountability.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Lokpal and Lokayuktas in administrative transparency:
1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provides for the inclusion of the Prime Minister under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal, subject to the approval of the President of India.
2. The search committee for the appointment of the Lokpal is tasked with preparing a panel of candidates, and the Act provides for the inclusion of at least two members from the civil society.
3. The institution of the Lokayukta in Karnataka is governed by the Karnataka Lokayukta Act, 1984, which grants the office the power to oversee the functioning of the State Human Rights Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Prime Minister is under the Lokpal's jurisdiction by default, with specific exclusions for corruption related to international relations, security, and public order, rather than requiring Presidential approval. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act mandates that the search committee must include at least one member from the SC, ST, OBC, minorities, or women, but does not explicitly mandate two members from civil society. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Karnataka Lokayukta Act, 1984, does not grant the Lokayukta the power to oversee the State Human Rights Commission, which is an independent statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and service delivery standards:
1. The Sevottam model, introduced by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in 2006, serves as a quality management framework for public service delivery.
2. The CPGRAMS portal, launched in 2007, functions as a centralized platform for the submission and monitoring of public grievances across various ministries and departments.
3. The Right to Information Act of 2005 includes Section 4, which directs public authorities to proactively disclose information to reduce the reliance of citizens on formal information requests.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the Sevottam model (2006) provides a structured framework for excellence in public service delivery, CPGRAMS (2007) acts as the primary government portal for real-time grievance redressal monitoring, and Section 4 of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates proactive disclosure (suo motu) by public authorities to ensure transparency and minimize the need for individual applications. Since all provided statements accurately reflect the legal and administrative mechanisms governing Indian public service delivery, there are no incorrect statements.
Consider the following statements regarding Official Secrets Act vs Transparency regimes:
1. The Right to Information Act 2005 includes provisions for the disclosure of cabinet papers under Section 8(1)(i) once the decision is taken and the matter is complete or over.
2. The Official Secrets Act of 1923 was amended in 1967 to include the definition of a 'protected area' and was subsequently repealed by the enactment of the National Security Act in 1980.
3. The Official Secrets Act of 1923 was modeled on the British Official Secrets Act of 1911 to protect state security during the colonial administration.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the 1923 Act was indeed a colonial-era legislation modeled after the British Act of 1911 to ensure state security. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 8(1)(i) of the RTI Act actually exempts cabinet papers from disclosure until decisions are made and the matter is complete, but it does not mandate automatic disclosure as the Act allows for continued non-disclosure if the public interest is not served. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Official Secrets Act, 1923, remains in force today and was never repealed by the National Security Act of 1980, which serves a distinct purpose regarding preventive detention.
Consider the following statements regarding Freedom of Information vs National Security exceptions:
1. The Right to Information Act, 2005, includes Section 8(1)(a) which exempts information that would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State.
2. The 1923 Official Secrets Act was amended in 2005 to align with the Right to Information Act, and it now provides for the automatic declassification of all defense-related documents after a period of 25 years.
3. The Central Information Commission was established under the 2005 Act to serve as the final appellate authority, and it holds the legal power to override the Cabinet Secretary's decision regarding the classification of nuclear energy blueprints.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 8(1)(a) of the RTI Act, 2005, explicitly exempts disclosure of information that compromises national sovereignty, security, and strategic interests. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Official Secrets Act, 1923, remains largely unamended in its core restrictive provisions and does not mandate automatic declassification of defense documents after 25 years. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the CIC is the final appellate authority under the RTI Act, it cannot override the legal classification of sensitive documents if they fall under the exempted categories of Section 8, and the Cabinet Secretary holds no such specific statutory power to classify nuclear blueprints that the CIC would then 'override'.
Consider the following statements regarding Open Data Policy and Government data accessibility:
1. The Open Government Data (OGD) Platform India, accessible at data.gov.in, is managed by the National Informatics Centre under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
2. Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005, outlines the obligations of public authorities to maintain records and proactively disclose information to the public.
3. The National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP) was notified by the Government of India in 2012 to facilitate the access of government-owned shareable data.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: The OGD Platform India (data.gov.in) is indeed managed by the NIC under MeitY to promote transparency, while Section 4 of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates that public authorities proactively disclose information to minimize the need for formal requests. Furthermore, the National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP) was notified in 2012 to establish a framework for proactive sharing of non-sensitive government data in machine-readable formats.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethics of data privacy in government surveillance:
1. The 2019 Srikrishna Committee Report proposed the establishment of a Data Protection Authority and suggested that government surveillance activities be exempted from the oversight of the proposed Data Protection Board.
2. The Information Technology Act of 2000 includes provisions for the Data Protection Board, which functions as the primary appellate authority for surveillance grievances under the 2023 Digital Personal Data Protection Act.
3. The Budapest Convention on Cybercrime, signed in 2001, provides a framework for international cooperation on data access and serves as the legal basis for India's current domestic surveillance protocols.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Srikrishna Committee proposed a Data Protection Authority, it explicitly recommended that government surveillance be subject to judicial or parliamentary oversight, not exempted. Statement 2 is incorrect as the IT Act, 2000 does not contain provisions for a Data Protection Board; that body was introduced under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, which is a distinct legislative framework. Statement 3 is incorrect because India is not a signatory to the Budapest Convention, and its domestic surveillance protocols are primarily governed by the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and the IT Act, 2000, rather than international cybercrime treaties.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in judicial appointments and proceedings:
1. The e-Courts Integrated Mission Mode Project, launched in 2007, encompasses the National Judicial Data Grid and provides for the publication of all judicial deliberations on a public domain portal.
2. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act of 2014 proposed a six-member panel for judicial selection and received the assent of the President on December 31, 2014, before being struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.
3. The Supreme Court of India introduced the live streaming of constitutional bench proceedings in September 2022, following the directions issued in the Swapnil Tripathi v. Supreme Court of India case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the e-Courts project does not publish judicial deliberations, which remain confidential to maintain judicial independence. Statement 2 is incorrect because the NJAC Act received Presidential assent on December 31, 2014, but it proposed a six-member panel only if the Chief Justice of India and two senior-most judges were included alongside the Law Minister and two eminent persons, and the statement's premise regarding the timeline is factually accurate but the NJAC composition is often debated; however, Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court operationalized live streaming of constitutional bench hearings in September 2022, building upon the foundational 2018 ruling in Swapnil Tripathi v. Supreme Court of India which established the right to access judicial proceedings.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in political funding and electoral bonds:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, was amended in 2017 to exempt political parties from disclosing donations received through electoral bonds in their contribution reports.
2. Under the 2018 scheme, State Bank of India was the only authorized financial institution designated to issue and encash electoral bonds.
3. The Supreme Court judgment in February 2024 directed the State Bank of India to transfer all unencashed electoral bonds to the Prime Minister's National Relief Fund by March 31, 2024.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Finance Act 2017 amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951, to exempt parties from disclosing donations via electoral bonds to the Election Commission. Statement 2 is correct because the 2018 Electoral Bond Scheme exclusively authorized the State Bank of India (SBI) to issue and encash these bonds. Statement 3 is incorrect because, in its February 2024 verdict declaring the scheme unconstitutional, the Supreme Court directed the SBI to transfer the details of bond purchasers and recipients to the Election Commission for public disclosure, not to the Prime Minister's National Relief Fund.
Consider the following statements regarding Central Information Commission powers and limitations:
1. The tenure of the Chief Information Commissioner is fixed at five years from the date of entering office, or until the incumbent attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever occurs earlier.
2. The First Appellate Authority is designated as the officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer, and appeals against their decisions are directed to the High Court of the respective state.
3. The Commission holds the authority to conduct an inquiry into any matter where a citizen has been denied access to information by a public authority, provided the request was filed under Section 8 of the Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019, empowers the Central Government to prescribe the term of office for Information Commissioners, removing the earlier fixed five-year tenure. Statement 2 is incorrect as appeals against the First Appellate Authority lie with the Central or State Information Commission, not the High Court. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 8 of the RTI Act pertains to exemptions from disclosure, whereas the Commission's inquiry powers under Section 18 are triggered by complaints regarding the refusal of access or non-compliance, not specifically limited to Section 8 requests.
Consider the following statements regarding Freedom of Information vs National Security exceptions:
1. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, ratified by India in 1979, contains a specific clause that permits governments to restrict access to information during periods of economic instability or fiscal deficit.
2. Section 8(2) of the RTI Act allows for the disclosure of information covered under the Official Secrets Act if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to protected interests, a provision introduced by the 2019 amendment.
3. The 1966 Freedom of Information Act in the United States served as the model for the Indian RTI Act, and it includes a specific provision that allows citizens to challenge the classification of 'Top Secret' documents in the Supreme Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 19 of the ICCPR protects the right to seek and impart information, and restrictions are permitted only for respect of rights, national security, or public order, not for economic or fiscal reasons. Statement 2 is incorrect as Section 8(2) of the RTI Act, which allows for disclosure in the public interest despite the Official Secrets Act, was part of the original 2005 Act, not the 2019 amendment. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the US FOIA influenced global transparency movements, it does not allow citizens to challenge the classification of 'Top Secret' documents in the Supreme Court, as the judiciary generally defers to executive branch determinations regarding national security classifications.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict of interest and disclosure norms for public servants:
1. The All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, includes provisions regarding the private trade or employment of officers and allows for the retention of shares in private companies if the value remains below 50,000 rupees.
2. The Nolan Committee Report on Standards in Public Life, released in 1995, identifies seven principles of public life and establishes the legal framework for the disqualification of members of parliament based on conflict of interest.
3. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, contains provisions under Section 44 that concern the declaration of assets and liabilities by public servants to the competent authority.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Section 44 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, mandates public servants to declare their assets and liabilities. Statement 1 is incorrect because the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, generally prohibit officers from engaging in any trade or business, and the specific monetary threshold mentioned is not a blanket allowance for share retention. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 1995 Nolan Committee defined the seven principles of public life, it provided ethical guidelines rather than establishing the legal framework for the disqualification of Members of Parliament.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in public procurement and e-tendering:
1. The General Financial Rules (GFR) were revised in 2005 to introduce the mandatory use of reverse auctions for all infrastructure projects exceeding a valuation of Rs 10 crore.
2. Section 4(1)(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, requires public authorities to publish details of all plans, proposed expenditures, and reports on disbursements made by them.
3. The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal was launched on August 9, 2016, to facilitate online procurement of common-use goods and services by various government ministries and departments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because GFR 2005 did not mandate reverse auctions for all infrastructure projects over Rs 10 crore; reverse auctions are a tool for price discovery, not a universal mandate for such projects. Statement 2 is correct as Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act mandates proactive disclosure of information by public authorities to promote transparency in governance. Statement 3 is correct because the GeM portal was indeed launched on August 9, 2016, as a national public procurement platform to ensure efficiency, transparency, and cost-effectiveness in the purchase of common-use goods and services.
Consider the following statements regarding Proactive disclosure under Section 4 of RTI Act:
1. Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act 2005 enumerates seventeen categories of information that public authorities are expected to publish proactively.
2. The Department of Personnel and Training issued guidelines in 2013 suggesting that public authorities appoint a Transparency Officer to oversee the implementation of proactive disclosure.
3. The Right to Information Rules of 2012 provide for the appointment of a Nodal Officer in every public authority who holds the authority to reject requests for information that fall under the proactive disclosure categories.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act mandates public authorities to maintain and proactively publish seventeen specific categories of information to minimize reliance on formal applications. Statement 2 is correct because the DoPT issued comprehensive guidelines in 2013, based on the CIC's recommendations, requiring the appointment of a Transparency Officer to monitor the implementation of Section 4 disclosures. Statement 3 is incorrect because the RTI Rules of 2012 do not grant a Nodal Officer the authority to reject requests based on proactive disclosure status; in fact, the Act encourages maximum disclosure, and any rejection must strictly adhere to the exemption clauses under Section 8.