Consider the following statements regarding Professionalism and the merit principle in public appointments:
1. Section 14 of the All India Services Act, 1951, provides the framework for the rules governing the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to the All India Services.
2. The Supreme Court in the 1996 Indra Sawhney II judgment observed that the principle of merit is a constitutional requirement for maintaining the efficiency of administration under Article 335.
3. The 2004 Hota Committee report suggested the implementation of a 360-degree appraisal system to improve the objectivity of performance evaluations for senior civil servants.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 3 of the All India Services Act, 1951, empowers the Central Government to make rules for the regulation of recruitment and conditions of service. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Indra Sawhney (1992) and subsequent interpretations emphasized that Article 335 mandates the maintenance of administrative efficiency alongside reservation policies. Statement 3 is correct as the 2004 Hota Committee, chaired by P.C. Hota, specifically recommended the 360-degree appraisal mechanism to introduce greater objectivity and multi-stakeholder feedback in the evaluation of senior civil servants.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of empathy and compassion in public service delivery:
1. Section 3 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, emphasizes that the government provides for reasonable accommodation to ensure that persons with disabilities enjoy equality in public service delivery.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 10th report titled 'Refurbishing of Personnel Administration', identifies empathy as a foundational value for civil servants interacting with marginalized groups.
3. The 1997 Seventh Pay Commission report suggests that emotional intelligence training for district-level officers leads to a 20 percent increase in grievance redressal efficiency across all administrative departments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 3 of the RPWD Act, 2016, mandates the government to ensure reasonable accommodation for persons with disabilities to uphold equality. Statement 2 is correct because the 10th Report of the Second ARC explicitly highlights empathy and compassion as essential ethical pillars for civil servants when engaging with vulnerable sections of society. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Seventh Pay Commission (2016) focused on salary and service conditions, and there is no such official record or statistical claim regarding a 20 percent increase in grievance redressal efficiency linked to emotional intelligence training.
Consider the following statements regarding Integrity and probity in public procurement:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964 based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee, and it reports its annual findings directly to the Prime Minister's Office.
2. The Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General, and it possesses the authority to cancel procurement contracts that violate the GFR 2017.
3. The Right to Information Act, 2005, allows citizens to seek details of public contracts, and the Supreme Court in the 2011 '2G Spectrum' judgment interpreted this as a fundamental right under Article 14.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the CVC submits its annual report to the President, who causes it to be laid before each House of Parliament, not the PMO. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) is a parliamentary committee with recommendatory powers; it lacks the legal authority to cancel procurement contracts. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the RTI Act facilitates transparency in contracts, the Supreme Court's 2G Spectrum judgment (2012) emphasized the 'public trust doctrine' and the requirement for fair allocation of natural resources under Article 14, rather than establishing the RTI Act as a fundamental right under that specific article.
Consider the following statements regarding Neutrality and anonymity in the Weberian bureaucracy:
1. The 1947 Mountbatten Plan included provisions for the continuation of the Indian Civil Service, and it formally codified the doctrine of ministerial responsibility as the primary mechanism for ensuring bureaucratic anonymity.
2. The 1921 Northcote-Trevelyan Report established the principle of political neutrality in the British Civil Service and introduced the competitive examination system for entry into the administrative cadre.
3. The 1976 42nd Amendment to the Constitution introduced the concept of the committed bureaucracy, which redefined the role of civil servants to prioritize ideological alignment with the party in power over the Weberian principle of neutrality.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1947 Mountbatten Plan focused on the partition of India and transfer of power, not the codification of ministerial responsibility, which is a constitutional convention rather than a statutory provision. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Northcote-Trevelyan Report was published in 1854, not 1921, and while it introduced competitive examinations, the principle of political neutrality evolved later through subsequent practices. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 42nd Amendment did not introduce 'committed bureaucracy' into the Constitution; this was a political debate during the 1970s, and the Constitution continues to uphold the principle of a neutral, permanent civil service.
Consider the following statements regarding Corruption as a systemic failure of institutional ethics:
1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act of 2013 establishes the Chairperson of the Lokpal as a person who has served as a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of a High Court, and it covers the Prime Minister under its jurisdiction without any exemptions.
2. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act of 2014 provides for the protection of persons making public interest disclosures, and it extends its legal coverage to the state of Jammu and Kashmir through the 2019 Reorganization Act.
3. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, was amended in 2018 to introduce Section 7A, which criminalizes the act of giving a bribe as a substantive offense.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because the 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act introduced Section 7A, making the act of giving a bribe a specific criminal offense. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Lokpal Act provides specific exemptions for the Prime Minister regarding allegations related to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy, and space. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, has not yet been brought into force by the Central Government, and thus, its provisions regarding legal coverage remain legally inoperative.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional morality vs administrative discretion:
1. In the 1973 Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case, the judiciary established the doctrine of basic structure, which acts as a constitutional limit on the exercise of discretionary powers by the legislature.
2. The 1997 Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan guidelines were formulated by the Supreme Court to address gaps in legislation, demonstrating the role of the judiciary in guiding administrative action through constitutional principles.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its 2007 report on Ethics in Governance highlighted that administrative discretion is a necessary tool for effective service delivery in a diverse society.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Basic Structure doctrine limits legislative power, ensuring discretionary actions remain within constitutional bounds. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court invoked Article 32 and 141 to fill legislative voids regarding workplace sexual harassment, setting binding administrative standards. Statement 3 is correct as the 2nd ARC (2007) recognized that while discretion is prone to abuse, it is essential for civil servants to exercise professional judgment in a complex, diverse nation like India.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional mechanisms for conflict of interest resolution:
1. The OECD Guidelines for Managing Conflict of Interest in the Public Service, published in 2003, serve as the foundational legal framework for the internal disciplinary proceedings of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its 2007 report on Ethics in Governance recommended that the office of the Cabinet Secretary oversee the resolution of conflicts of interest for all state-level bureaucrats.
3. The Prevention of Corruption Act of 1988 was amended in 2018 to include a definition of conflict of interest that covers both pecuniary and non-pecuniary benefits received by public officials.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the OECD Guidelines are non-binding international policy instruments and not the legal framework for UPSC disciplinary proceedings, which are governed by the Constitution and Civil Services Rules. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 2nd ARC recommended the establishment of an independent 'Ethics Commissioner' or similar body, not the Cabinet Secretary, to handle such matters. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act focused on 'giving' and 'taking' bribes and criminalizing supply-side corruption, but it did not introduce a formal legal definition of 'conflict of interest' covering non-pecuniary benefits.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical implications of performance-based incentive systems:
1. The 7th Central Pay Commission, in its 2015 report, recommended the implementation of the Performance Related Pay (PRP) model for civil servants, drawing parallels from the existing incentive structures in the Department of Atomic Energy.
2. The 2014 introduction of the 'Pragati' platform by the Prime Minister's Office serves as a mechanism for monitoring project implementation, where the resolution of inter-departmental grievances influences the performance appraisal metrics of senior officials.
3. The 2017 study by the OECD on public sector motivation indicates that extrinsic rewards, such as monetary bonuses, can lead to a crowding-out effect where intrinsic public service values are diminished in favor of short-term output maximization.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 7th CPC report recommended extending the Performance Related Pay (PRP) model, modeled after the Department of Atomic Energy, to enhance civil service efficiency. Statement 2 is correct because PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation), launched in 2014, uses real-time monitoring of inter-departmental grievances to hold senior officials accountable in their performance appraisals. Statement 3 is correct as the OECD study highlights the 'crowding-out effect,' where over-reliance on monetary incentives can undermine the intrinsic 'public service motivation' (PSM) that drives civil servants to work for the public good.
Consider the following statements regarding Code of conduct vs code of ethics in public service:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 2007 report on Ethics in Governance, distinguishes the Code of Ethics as a broad statement of values rather than a specific list of prohibited actions.
2. The 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights includes a specific clause on civil service neutrality, which forms the legal basis for the Code of Ethics adopted by the Indian Constitution in 1950.
3. The 1964 Santhanam Committee report proposed the creation of a unified National Ethics Board, which currently oversees the implementation of the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2nd ARC (2007) defines the Code of Ethics as a guiding framework of core values, whereas the Code of Conduct consists of specific, enforceable rules. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Universal Declaration of Human Rights does not contain a clause on civil service neutrality, and the Indian Constitution does not contain a formal 'Code of Ethics' document. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Santhanam Committee (1964) recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), not a National Ethics Board, and the AIS (Conduct) Rules are administered by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), not an ethics board.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information as an ethical instrument for accountability:
1. The Central Information Commission, established under Section 12 of the Act, consists of one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005 received the assent of the President of India on 15 June 2005 and came into force fully on 12 October 2005.
3. Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act outlines 17 categories of information that public authorities are expected to publish proactively to reduce the need for formal requests.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Section 12 of the RTI Act, 2005 mandates the composition of the Central Information Commission with one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners. The Act received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005 and became fully operational on 12 October 2005, following a partial implementation of some sections earlier. Finally, Section 4(1)(b) serves as the cornerstone of proactive disclosure, mandating public authorities to maintain and publish 17 specific categories of information to ensure transparency and minimize the need for individual RTI applications.
Consider the following statements regarding Corruption as a systemic failure of institutional ethics:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its 4th Report on Ethics in Governance suggested the introduction of a Code of Ethics for Ministers, which was formally adopted by the Union Cabinet in 2009.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission was granted statutory status through the CVC Act of 2003, which empowers the commission to conduct inquiries into offenses alleged to have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act by officials of the rank of Joint Secretary and above.
3. The Right to Information Act of 2005 facilitates transparency in public institutions, and Section 8(1)(j) of the Act allows for the disclosure of personal information if the Public Information Officer determines it serves a larger public interest.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Code of Conduct for Ministers was adopted in 1964, long before the 4th ARC report. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CVC Act, 2003 empowers the commission to inquire into offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act for officials of the rank of Secretary and above, not Joint Secretary. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act provides an exemption from disclosure for personal information unless the PIO is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies it, but it does not mandate disclosure; rather, it acts as a restrictive clause to protect privacy.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical implications of whistleblowing in government institutions:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 4th Report titled 'Ethics in Governance' submitted in 2007, recommended the enactment of a specific law to protect whistleblowers in the public sector.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission Act of 2003 established the office of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner and provides for the direct oversight of all whistleblower complaints originating from private sector enterprises.
3. The 2004 PIDPI Resolution, which serves as the primary administrative framework for whistleblowing, was formulated under the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, and covers all elected representatives of the Union Cabinet.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 4th Report of the 2nd ARC explicitly recommended a legal framework to protect whistleblowers, leading to the Whistleblowers Protection Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CVC Act, 2003, mandates the CVC to oversee vigilance administration in central government organizations, not private sector enterprises. Statement 3 is incorrect because the PIDPI (Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers) Resolution is an executive order, not a statutory provision of the Prevention of Corruption Act, and it specifically excludes elected representatives like Ministers from its purview.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical challenges in digital governance and data privacy:
1. The National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP) of 2012 encourages the proactive release of government datasets, and it classifies all geospatial data as 'open access' by default to promote transparency.
2. The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, as proposed by the Srikrishna Committee, suggested that the Data Protection Authority would be chaired by the Union Cabinet Secretary to ensure high-level administrative coordination.
3. The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016, allows for the storage of core biometric information in third-party cloud servers provided the service provider is a government-empanelled entity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because NDSAP 2012 classifies data into 'open' and 'restricted' categories, and specifically excludes sensitive geospatial data related to national security from open access. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Srikrishna Committee recommended that the Data Protection Authority be an independent regulator, not chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, to avoid executive overreach. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Aadhaar Act strictly mandates that core biometric information must be stored only in the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR) managed by UIDAI, explicitly prohibiting storage by any third-party service provider.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical challenges in digital governance and data privacy:
1. The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) of the European Union includes provisions for the 'right to be forgotten', and Indian courts have incorporated this principle into domestic law via the 2018 amendment to the Indian Penal Code.
2. The e-Governance standards issued by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology include the Interoperability Framework for e-Governance, which defines the technical protocols for data exchange and permits the sharing of sensitive health records without user consent for public research.
3. The Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) judgment affirmed that the right to privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because the landmark 2017 Puttaswamy judgment established privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 'right to be forgotten' is not part of the Indian Penal Code, but is instead recognized under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Interoperability Framework facilitates data exchange, it does not permit the sharing of sensitive health records without user consent, as such actions would violate data protection norms and the principle of informed consent.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information as an ethical instrument for accountability:
1. The Supreme Court of India in the case of Raj Narain v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1975) observed that the people of this country have a right to know every public act.
2. The Freedom of Information Act, 2002 was enacted by the Parliament to promote transparency, and it was subsequently replaced by the RTI Act, 2005 to include the office of the President under its direct oversight.
3. Under Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, a Public Information Officer is expected to provide information within 30 days of the receipt of a request.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in State of U.P. v. Raj Narain (1975) established that in a government of responsibility like ours, citizens have a right to know about every public act. Statement 3 is correct because Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 mandates that a PIO must provide information within 30 days of receiving a request. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Freedom of Information Act, 2002 was indeed replaced by the RTI Act, 2005, the latter does not place the office of the President under its direct oversight; instead, it covers all 'public authorities' as defined under Section 2(h).
Consider the following statements regarding The concept of 'Public Interest' in policy formulation:
1. The Pareto efficiency criterion, introduced in 1906, is incorporated into the 2013 Land Acquisition Act to ensure that public interest projects provide net gains for all displaced stakeholders.
2. The 1994 Nolan Committee Report on Standards in Public Life identifies objectivity as a core value, which functions as the foundational principle for the 1950 Constitution's Article 370 provisions.
3. The Utilitarian framework for public interest, popularized by Jeremy Bentham in 1789, serves as the primary legal basis for the 1947 Industrial Disputes Act in defining collective bargaining rights.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2013 Land Acquisition Act focuses on social impact assessments and fair compensation rather than the Pareto efficiency criterion, which requires that no one is made worse off. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Nolan Committee (1994) established the seven principles of public life for the UK, whereas Article 370 was a constitutional provision rooted in the historical accession of J&K, not the Nolan Committee's principles. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Industrial Disputes Act (1947) aims to balance industrial peace and labor rights, it is based on the principles of industrial relations and labor welfare rather than being derived from Bentham’s Utilitarian framework.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability mechanisms for discretionary power:
1. The principle of 'Wednesbury Unreasonableness' serves as a judicial standard in Indian courts to review administrative decisions that are so irrational that no sensible authority could have arrived at them.
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, established a statutory body to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries, including those exercising discretionary authority.
3. The Ombudsman institution in India traces its origin to the 1966 Morarji Desai Committee report, which recommended the creation of the Lokpal and the office of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner at the state level.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Wednesbury principle, derived from the 1948 UK case, is a standard used by Indian courts to invalidate administrative decisions that are perverse or irrational. Statement 2 is correct because the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provides a robust statutory framework to investigate corruption allegations against public officials, including those wielding discretionary powers. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the 1966 First Administrative Reforms Commission headed by Morarji Desai recommended the Lokpal, it did not recommend the Chief Vigilance Commissioner at the state level; the CVC was established following the Santhanam Committee recommendations in 1964.
Consider the following statements regarding Responsiveness vs rule-bound bureaucratic rigidity:
1. The Sevottam model, launched by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in 2006, serves as a framework to assess the service delivery standards of government organizations.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005, introduced a 30-day timeline for public authorities to respond to requests, aiming to reduce the information asymmetry inherent in traditional bureaucratic structures.
3. Max Weber's classical theory of bureaucracy, formulated in the early 20th century, emphasizes hierarchical structure and impersonal rules as the primary mechanisms for administrative efficiency.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Sevottam model was indeed launched in 2006 by the DARPG to improve public service delivery through Citizen's Charters and grievance redressal mechanisms. Statement 2 is correct because the RTI Act, 2005 mandates a 30-day response window to ensure transparency and accountability, effectively countering the opacity often found in traditional bureaucracies. Statement 3 is correct as Max Weber’s theory posits that a formal, hierarchical, and rule-based structure is essential for achieving administrative efficiency and rational-legal authority.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of empathy and compassion in public service delivery:
1. The 2013 Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act provides for the establishment of a dedicated Ethics Committee that reviews the compassionate disposition of public servants during the annual performance appraisal process.
2. The National Policy for Senior Citizens, adopted in 2011, includes provisions for the sensitization of public officials to ensure that the delivery of healthcare services is characterized by empathetic engagement.
3. The 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights, under Article 29, provides for the specific inclusion of empathy as a mandatory performance indicator for civil servants in post-colonial administrative structures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the National Policy for Senior Citizens (2011) emphasizes the need for a sensitive and empathetic approach by public officials in providing healthcare and social security to the elderly. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, focuses on investigating allegations of corruption against public functionaries and does not mandate an Ethics Committee for evaluating compassionate disposition in performance appraisals. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 29 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) pertains to the duties of the individual to the community and does not contain any provisions regarding performance indicators for civil servants.
Consider the following statements regarding Dilemma of administrative efficiency vs social equity:
1. The 2005 Right to Information Act serves as a mechanism to ensure administrative accountability while potentially increasing the processing time for bureaucratic decisions.
2. Max Weber’s 1922 theory of bureaucracy emphasizes technical efficiency as a core value, often contrasting with the redistributive goals of modern welfare states.
3. The 1996 Common Minimum Programme of the United Front government emphasized the expansion of social welfare schemes despite concerns regarding fiscal deficit targets.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the RTI Act mandates transparency, which improves accountability but introduces procedural requirements that can slow down routine administrative decision-making. Statement 2 is correct because Weber’s model prioritizes hierarchical rational-legal efficiency, which often clashes with the subjective, equity-focused demands of modern inclusive governance. Statement 3 is correct as the 1996 Common Minimum Programme prioritized social sector spending and poverty alleviation, deliberately balancing these goals against the prevailing fiscal constraints of the era.
Consider the following statements regarding Neutrality and anonymity in the Weberian bureaucracy:
1. Under the 1964 All India Services (Conduct) Rules, civil servants are expected to maintain political neutrality, which allows them to serve successive governments regardless of changes in the ruling party.
2. Max Weber’s 1922 publication 'Economy and Society' defines the bureaucratic ideal type as characterized by a hierarchical structure and the separation of personal assets from official office resources.
3. The 1964 Santhanam Committee Report emphasized that the anonymity of civil servants serves as a safeguard for maintaining political neutrality during the implementation of government policies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968 (often cited in the context of the 1964 framework) mandate political neutrality to ensure administrative continuity. Statement 2 is correct because Max Weber's 'Economy and Society' (1922) outlines the 'ideal type' bureaucracy, emphasizing a rigid hierarchy and the strict separation of private property from the office. Statement 3 is correct as the Santhanam Committee (1964) highlighted that anonymity protects civil servants from political pressure, thereby reinforcing their ability to implement policies impartially.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between political executive and permanent civil service:
1. The 1976 Forty-Second Amendment introduced provisions for the creation of All India Services, and these services operate under the direct oversight of the Election Commission of India.
2. The 1997 Fifth Central Pay Commission suggested the creation of a fixed tenure for District Magistrates, and this proposal was implemented through the 2004 Civil Services Board Act.
3. The 1947 Cabinet Secretariat resolution established the principle of political neutrality, and this framework was codified in the 1964 Conduct Rules to regulate ministerial interference.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because All India Services were established under Article 312 of the Constitution (1950), not the 42nd Amendment, and they operate under the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), not the Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect as there is no '2004 Civil Services Board Act'; the Civil Services Board was established via executive order in 2013 following Supreme Court directives in the T.S.R. Subramanian case. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1964 Conduct Rules regulate the behavior of civil servants, not ministerial interference, and political neutrality is a convention derived from the Westminster model rather than a specific 1947 Cabinet resolution.
Consider the following statements regarding The concept of 'Public Interest' in policy formulation:
1. The 1991 New Economic Policy shifted the interpretation of public interest toward market-led growth, which is codified in the preamble of the 1956 Companies Act.
2. The Rawlsian 'Difference Principle' from the 1971 Theory of Justice provides the conceptual framework for the 2005 Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act's wage determination process.
3. The 1964 Santhanam Committee Report on corruption prevention provides the administrative definition of public interest used to justify the creation of the Central Vigilance Commission in 1962.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1956 Companies Act predates the 1991 reforms and does not codify market-led growth as the definition of public interest. Statement 2 is incorrect as the MGNREGA wage determination is primarily governed by statutory provisions linked to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL), not a direct application of the Rawlsian Difference Principle. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Central Vigilance Commission was established in 1964 based on the Santhanam Committee's recommendations, making the timeline in the statement factually impossible.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical implications of whistleblowing in government institutions:
1. The Supreme Court of India, in the 2003 judgement of 'Delhi Jal Board vs. National Campaign for RTI', emphasized the necessity of protecting whistleblowers to ensure transparency and accountability in public administration.
2. Under the Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers (PIDPI) Resolution of 2004, the Central Vigilance Commission is designated as the agency to receive written complaints from whistleblowers.
3. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC), which India ratified in 2011, includes Article 33, which encourages states to provide protection against unjustified treatment for persons who report facts concerning corruption.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in the 2003 Delhi Jal Board case underscored that whistleblowers are essential for a transparent democracy and must be protected from victimization. Statement 2 is correct because the 2004 PIDPI Resolution formally empowered the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) to act as the 'Designated Agency' to receive and process complaints regarding corruption or misuse of office. Statement 3 is correct because India ratified the UNCAC in 2011, and Article 33 specifically mandates that signatory states establish measures to provide protection against any unjustified treatment for individuals who report corrupt practices in good faith.
Consider the following statements regarding Responsiveness vs rule-bound bureaucratic rigidity:
1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, devolved powers to Panchayati Raj Institutions, creating a decentralized administrative structure intended to improve local responsiveness.
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, established institutional mechanisms to address public grievances against corruption, reflecting a shift toward greater transparency in government functioning.
3. The Civil Services Board, recommended by the Hota Committee in 2004, aims to regulate the transfer and posting of officers to mitigate the influence of political patronage on bureaucratic decision-making.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 73rd Amendment institutionalized Panchayati Raj, shifting governance closer to citizens to enhance responsiveness. Statement 2 is correct because the 2013 Act created statutory ombudsmen to curb corruption and improve accountability, directly addressing bureaucratic opacity. Statement 3 is correct as the Hota Committee (2004) advocated for Civil Services Boards to insulate administrative transfers from political interference, thereby promoting merit-based decision-making over rigid or partisan adherence to political mandates.
Consider the following statements regarding Code of conduct vs code of ethics in public service:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission, established by the 1964 executive resolution, serves as the primary drafting authority for the Code of Ethics applied to all Group A officers under the 1968 Conduct Rules.
2. Article 311 of the Constitution provides the definition of public service values, and the 1976 amendment introduced the specific Code of Conduct guidelines for state-level employees.
3. The 1922 Lee Commission recommendations were incorporated into the 1950 Constitution, providing the first formal distinction between the Code of Conduct and the Code of Ethics for colonial administrators.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an advisory body, not the drafting authority for the 1968 Conduct Rules, which are governed by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT). Article 311 of the Constitution deals with the dismissal or reduction in rank of civil servants and does not define public service values, nor did the 1976 amendment introduce a formal Code of Conduct. Furthermore, the Lee Commission (1924) focused on the structure of the Indian Civil Service and did not establish a formal distinction between Codes of Conduct and Ethics, which are distinct concepts where the former prescribes specific behaviors and the latter outlines moral principles.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical implications of whistleblowing in government institutions:
1. The Whistle Blowers Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2015, introduced in the Lok Sabha, sought to incorporate national security exceptions and was passed by the Rajya Sabha during the winter session of 2016.
2. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, received the President's assent on 9 May 2014, establishing a mechanism for receiving complaints relating to disclosure on any allegation of corruption or willful misuse of power.
3. Section 4 of the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, specifies that any public servant or any other person, including an NGO, may make a public interest disclosure before the Competent Authority.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, received Presidential assent on May 9, 2014, to provide a legal framework for reporting corruption or misuse of power. Statement 3 is correct because Section 4 of the Act explicitly empowers any public servant or person, including NGOs, to make public interest disclosures to the designated Competent Authority. Statement 1 is incorrect because, although the 2015 Amendment Bill sought to introduce national security exceptions, it was never passed by the Rajya Sabha and eventually lapsed following the dissolution of the 16th Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding The concept of 'Public Interest' in policy formulation:
1. The 1973 Kesavananda Bharati judgment established the 'Basic Structure' doctrine, which provides the judicial definition of public interest for the implementation of the 1976 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
2. The 2005 Right to Information Act serves as a legislative mechanism to uphold public interest by facilitating the disclosure of government records, subject to the exemptions outlined under Section 8(1).
3. The 1923 Official Secrets Act provides a definition of public interest that aligns with the 2019 Personal Data Protection Bill's framework for state surveillance powers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the RTI Act, 2005, mandates transparency to ensure accountability, while Section 8(1) provides specific exemptions to protect national security and privacy. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 'Basic Structure' doctrine limits Parliament's power to amend the Constitution and does not serve as a definition of public interest for the 42nd Amendment. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Official Secrets Act, 1923, is a colonial-era law centered on secrecy rather than public interest, and it operates independently of the framework proposed in the withdrawn 2019 Personal Data Protection Bill.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency as a tool for ethical governance:
1. The Right to Information Rules of 2012 provide for a standard application fee of fifty rupees for all citizens, with a provision that allows for the waiver of this fee for applicants residing in rural areas under the BPL category.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its first report titled 'Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance' submitted in 2006, identified transparency as a foundational element for reducing corruption in public service delivery.
3. The Proactive Disclosure Guidelines issued by the Department of Personnel and Training in 2012 suggest that public authorities publish their annual budget allocations on social media platforms to satisfy the requirements of Section 4 of the RTI Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the 1st ARC report, 'Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance' (2006), explicitly emphasized transparency as a vital tool for curbing corruption. Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI Rules, 2012, prescribe an application fee of only ten rupees, not fifty. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while Section 4 of the RTI Act mandates proactive disclosure, the DoPT guidelines do not mandate the use of social media platforms for publishing annual budget allocations.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between personal conscience and organizational hierarchy:
1. The Right to Information Act, 2005, allows for the disclosure of internal file notings, and the 2011 amendment to this Act permits junior officers to release dissenting notes to the public if their superior ignores a violation of the General Financial Rules.
2. The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 establishes the Central Administrative Tribunal, and under Section 14, it encompasses the authority to review the ethical validity of internal organizational transfers initiated due to a subordinate's refusal to follow a superior's verbal instruction.
3. The 1922 Lee Commission report on the Indian Public Service recommended the creation of a Public Service Commission, and this document introduced the concept of 'conscientious objection' as a legal defense for officers facing disciplinary action for non-compliance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005, does not grant junior officers the right to release dissenting notes to the public, and there was no 2011 amendment providing such authority. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, adjudicates service matters related to recruitment and conditions of service, but it does not have the mandate to review the 'ethical validity' of internal transfers based on verbal instructions. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Lee Commission (1924) recommended the establishment of the Public Service Commission, it never introduced 'conscientious objection' as a legal defense for non-compliance with official orders.
Consider the following statements regarding Professionalism and the merit principle in public appointments:
1. The Lee Commission of 1924 recommended the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India, which led to the creation of the Federal Public Service Commission in 1926.
2. The Kothari Committee report of 1976 suggested the introduction of the Civil Services Aptitude Test and proposed the creation of a National Recruitment Agency to oversee state-level appointments.
3. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 discussed the role of the Governor in state administration and proposed the direct integration of the State Public Service Commission into the Union Public Service Commission structure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Lee Commission (1924) recommended a statutory Public Service Commission, leading to the Federal Public Service Commission's establishment in 1926. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Kothari Committee (1976) recommended the Civil Services Aptitude Test, it did not propose a National Recruitment Agency, which is a contemporary development. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Sarkaria Commission (1988) focused on Centre-State relations and never proposed integrating State Public Service Commissions into the UPSC, as the Constitution maintains them as distinct constitutional bodies.
Consider the following statements regarding Corruption as a systemic failure of institutional ethics:
1. Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides procedural safeguards to civil servants, though it allows for dismissal without inquiry under specific conditions defined in the second proviso.
2. The 1964 Santhanam Committee suggested that the Central Bureau of Investigation be placed under the administrative control of the Ministry of Law and Justice to ensure its independence from the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. The Santhanam Committee Report of 1964 recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission to address the systemic issue of corruption in central government departments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 311 provides constitutional protection to civil servants, with the second proviso allowing dismissal without inquiry in cases of conviction for criminal charges or when the President/Governor is satisfied that an inquiry is not reasonably practicable. Statement 3 is correct because the Santhanam Committee (1962-64) recommended the creation of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) as an apex body to oversee anti-corruption efforts. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Santhanam Committee recommended that the CBI be placed under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (and later the Department of Personnel and Training), not the Ministry of Law and Justice.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between political executive and permanent civil service:
1. The 1954 Appleby Report on public administration in India observed that the relationship between ministers and secretaries often hinges on the informal understanding of policy implementation.
2. The 2006 Second Administrative Reforms Commission report recommended the establishment of a National Civil Service Authority to oversee the tenure and transfer of senior bureaucrats.
3. Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides procedural safeguards to civil servants against arbitrary dismissal or reduction in rank by the political executive.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Paul Appleby’s 1954 report emphasized the nuanced, informal nature of the minister-secretary relationship in policy execution. Statement 2 is correct because the 2nd ARC (2006) proposed the National Civil Service Authority to ensure stability of tenure and insulate bureaucrats from arbitrary political transfers. Statement 3 is correct as Article 311 serves as a constitutional bulwark, mandating that civil servants cannot be dismissed or demoted by an authority subordinate to their appointing officer without a formal inquiry and reasonable opportunity to be heard.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability mechanisms for discretionary power:
1. The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service, and the 2006 amendment extended its jurisdiction to include the review of all executive policy decisions.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission was granted constitutional status through the 97th Amendment Act, 2011, which also introduced the framework for the oversight of discretionary powers in cooperative societies.
3. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, includes provisions for the protection of honest public servants, and the 2018 amendment introduced a specific clause defining the threshold for criminal misconduct regarding discretionary financial approvals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, does not grant jurisdiction over executive policy decisions, which remain under judicial review by High Courts and the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Central Vigilance Commission was established by an executive resolution in 1964 and later granted statutory status by the CVC Act, 2003, not by the 97th Amendment. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act shifted the focus of criminal misconduct to the intentional enrichment of public servants, rather than establishing a specific threshold for discretionary financial approvals.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional mechanisms for conflict of interest resolution:
1. The 1964 Santhanam Committee report proposed the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission and suggested that conflict of interest disclosures be made public through the Right to Information Act of 2005.
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act of 2013 encompasses provisions for the declaration of assets by public servants and establishes the Lokpal as the primary body for resolving judicial conflicts of interest.
3. The All India Services (Conduct) Rules of 1968 provide for the regulation of private trade by civil servants and were amended in 2014 to include specific guidelines for digital asset holdings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Santhanam Committee (1964) predates the RTI Act (2005) by four decades and did not propose such disclosures under it. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act does not grant the Lokpal jurisdiction over judicial conflicts of interest, which are governed by separate judicial standards and the In-House Procedure. Statement 3 is incorrect because the All India Services (Conduct) Rules have not been amended to include specific guidelines for digital asset holdings, and the regulation of private trade has been a long-standing feature of the original 1968 rules.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional morality vs administrative discretion:
1. The 1950 Constitution of India includes provisions under Article 311 for the protection of civil servants, and the 1976 Forty-Second Amendment introduced the specific term 'constitutional morality' into the Preamble.
2. The 1964 Santhanam Committee report focuses on the prevention of corruption in public services, and it refers to the 1958 Administrative Vigilance Division as the primary body for defining discretionary limits.
3. The 1992 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the decentralization of power to Panchayati Raj Institutions, and it encompasses the 1993 State Finance Commissions as the final authority for settling administrative disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the term 'constitutional morality' was never added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Santhanam Committee (1964) addressed corruption, it recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), not the 1958 Administrative Vigilance Division, as the primary oversight body. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the 73rd Amendment decentralized power, the State Finance Commissions are mandated to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the State and PRIs, not to serve as the final authority for settling administrative disputes.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between political executive and permanent civil service:
1. The 1924 Lee Commission recommended the creation of the Public Service Commission, and this body maintains the authority to resolve disputes between the cabinet and the permanent bureaucracy.
2. The 1962 Santhanam Committee report highlighted the necessity of protecting civil servants from political pressure to ensure the integrity of administrative decision-making.
3. The 1986 Hota Committee report examined the issue of administrative accountability, and its recommendations led to the enactment of the 2005 Right to Information Act to limit executive discretion.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the 1962 Santhanam Committee emphasized insulating civil servants from political interference to curb corruption and ensure administrative neutrality. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 1924 Lee Commission recommended the Public Service Commission, this body is an advisory, constitutional entity and lacks the authority to resolve policy disputes between the cabinet and bureaucracy. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2004 Hota Committee focused on civil service reforms and performance management, whereas the Right to Information Act was primarily a legislative outcome of civil society movements and the National Advisory Council, not a direct recommendation of the Hota Committee.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical implications of performance-based incentive systems:
1. Under the Performance Management and Evaluation System (PMES) introduced in 2009, government departments sign Results-Framework Documents that link budgetary allocations to the achievement of specific annual performance indicators.
2. The 2006 Second Administrative Reforms Commission report on 'Ethics in Governance' highlighted that performance-linked incentives in public services can inadvertently encourage the manipulation of data to meet predefined numerical targets.
3. The 2012 Public Service Delivery Act provides for the automatic deduction of salary from officials who fail to meet service delivery timelines, and this fiscal penalty is redirected into a performance incentive fund for high-achieving subordinates.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the PMES was introduced in 2009 to mandate Results-Framework Documents (RFDs) for linking departmental performance to budgetary outcomes. Statement 2 is correct because the 2nd ARC's 4th Report on 'Ethics in Governance' explicitly warned that rigid, target-driven incentives often lead to 'gaming the system' and data manipulation. Statement 3 is incorrect because no such '2012 Public Service Delivery Act' exists at the national level that mandates automatic salary deductions for redirection into incentive funds; while several states have Right to Public Service Acts, they typically focus on penalty provisions for applicants' compensation rather than internal salary-to-incentive redistribution.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical leadership and the creation of organizational culture:
1. The Nolan Committee, established in 1994 in the United Kingdom, defined the seven principles of public life that influence modern civil service codes globally.
2. The 1991 Civil Service Reform Act in India introduced the mandatory performance appraisal system, which replaced the confidential report format used during the colonial era.
3. The 1948 Hoover Commission in the United States introduced the concept of performance-based budgeting, which became the primary framework for evaluating ethical conduct in the federal civil service.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Nolan Committee (1994) established the seven principles of public life (selflessness, integrity, objectivity, accountability, openness, honesty, and leadership) which serve as a global benchmark for ethical governance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1991 Civil Service Reform Act is a US legislation, whereas India's performance appraisal system evolved through various administrative reforms like the 2005-06 introduction of the Performance Appraisal Report (PAR) system, not a 1991 Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the 1949 Hoover Commission (not 1948) advocated for performance budgeting to improve efficiency, it was not the primary framework for evaluating ethical conduct, which is instead governed by specific federal ethics laws and executive orders.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional morality vs administrative discretion:
1. Article 166 of the Constitution provides for the conduct of business of the Government of a State, serving as a procedural framework for the exercise of administrative discretion by executive officers.
2. The Supreme Court in the 2018 Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India judgment defined constitutional morality as a sentiment to be cultivated to preserve the pluralistic ethos of the Indian Republic.
3. The 2006 Prakash Singh v. Union of India verdict established guidelines for police reforms to insulate administrative discretion from political interference, referencing the 1977 National Police Commission reports.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 166 mandates the formal procedure for the authentication and execution of executive orders, thereby structuring administrative discretion. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Navtej Singh Johar (2018) explicitly interpreted constitutional morality as a transformative tool to protect pluralism and individual liberty against majoritarianism. Statement 3 is correct as the Prakash Singh judgment (2006) directed structural reforms based on the National Police Commission (1977-81) recommendations to curb political influence over police discretion and ensure institutional autonomy.
Consider the following statements regarding Dilemma of administrative efficiency vs social equity:
1. The 2006 M. Nagaraj v. Union of India judgment established that the state needs to demonstrate backwardness and inadequacy of representation for reservation in promotions.
2. The 1997 Fifth Pay Commission report highlighted the trade-off between administrative speed and the necessity of affirmative action in recruitment.
3. Article 335 of the Indian Constitution balances the efficiency of administration with the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the M. Nagaraj (2006) judgment mandated the 'triple test'-quantifiable data on backwardness, inadequacy of representation, and overall administrative efficiency-for reservation in promotions. Statement 2 is correct as the 1997 Fifth Pay Commission explicitly addressed the tension between merit-based recruitment speed and the social equity mandates of affirmative action. Statement 3 is correct because Article 335 mandates that the claims of SCs/STs must be considered consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, serving as the constitutional fulcrum for balancing equity and efficiency.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical implications of performance-based incentive systems:
1. The 2005 Right to Information Act includes provisions for incentive-based rewards for public information officers who achieve a 95% disposal rate of applications within 30 days, which is intended to reduce the backlog of pending requests.
2. The 1986 National Policy on Education proposed the use of merit-based performance bonuses for primary school teachers, and this framework was subsequently adopted by the Ministry of Finance for all state-level administrative staff in 1992.
3. The 1997 Fifth Central Pay Commission introduced the concept of the 'Performance Appraisal Report' (PAR) to replace the Confidential Report system, and it established a direct link between individual performance scores and the annual increments of Group A officers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005 focuses on transparency and accountability, not incentive-based rewards for disposal rates. Statement 2 is false as the 1986 National Policy on Education emphasized teacher training and quality improvement rather than merit-based bonuses, and no such 1992 Ministry of Finance framework for state-level staff exists. Statement 3 is incorrect because the transition from Confidential Reports to Performance Appraisal Reports (PAR) was a gradual administrative reform initiated much later, and the Fifth Central Pay Commission did not establish a direct, automated link between PAR scores and annual increments for Group A officers.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information as an ethical instrument for accountability:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its first report titled 'Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance' recommended the repeal of the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
2. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014 provides a mechanism for reporting corruption, and it operates under the administrative jurisdiction of the Central Information Commission to ensure the protection of the identity of the complainant.
3. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act provides an exemption from disclosure of information which relates to personal information, the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1st ARC report recommended replacing the Official Secrets Act with a National Security Act to align with transparency. Statement 3 is correct because Section 8(1)(j) explicitly exempts personal information that lacks a public interest nexus to protect individual privacy. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, designates the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) as the competent authority to receive complaints and protect the identity of whistleblowers, not the Central Information Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical leadership and the creation of organizational culture:
1. The 1988 Fulton Report in the United Kingdom advocated for the professionalization of the civil service and resulted in the formal abolition of the administrative class by 1990.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission was granted statutory status through the 2003 Act, empowering it to oversee the integrity of public administration in India.
3. The 2004 United Nations Convention against Corruption emphasizes the role of institutional transparency in preventing the abuse of public office for private gain.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 1968 Fulton Report advocated for professionalization, it did not lead to the abolition of the administrative class by 1990. Statement 2 is correct as the CVC was granted statutory status via the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, following the Supreme Court's 1997 Vineet Narain judgment. Statement 3 is correct because the 2003 UN Convention against Corruption (UNCAC), which entered into force in 2005, mandates that state parties implement transparency measures and codes of conduct to prevent corruption in public office.
Consider the following statements regarding Integrity and probity in public procurement:
1. The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal was launched in August 2016 to facilitate online procurement, and it functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, underwent significant amendments in 2018 to include provisions for the criminalization of bribe-giving, which aligns with the United Nations Convention against Corruption signed by India in 2005.
3. The General Financial Rules (GFR) 2017 were introduced by the Ministry of Finance to consolidate and streamline the procurement procedures for all central government ministries and departments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the General Financial Rules (GFR) 2017 were indeed issued by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, to provide a comprehensive framework for procurement. Statement 1 is incorrect because the GeM portal functions under the administrative control of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act did criminalize bribe-giving, India signed the United Nations Convention against Corruption in 2005 but ratified it only in 2011, making the timeline in the statement factually inconsistent.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency as a tool for ethical governance:
1. The Right to Information Act, 2005, grants citizens the legal authority to request information from public authorities, provided the request is submitted to the designated Public Information Officer within the prescribed administrative framework.
2. Section 4(1)(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, details seventeen categories of information that public authorities are expected to publish proactively to minimize the necessity for individual information requests.
3. The 2019 amendment to the Right to Information Act changed the tenure of Information Commissioners to a fixed period of five years, aligning their service conditions with the Election Commission of India to ensure institutional parity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the RTI Act, 2005 establishes a legal framework for citizens to seek information through designated Public Information Officers. Statement 2 is correct because Section 4(1)(b) mandates proactive disclosure of 17 categories of information to promote transparency and reduce the burden of individual applications. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2019 amendment empowered the Central Government to prescribe the tenure and service conditions of Information Commissioners through rules, rather than fixing them at five years or aligning them with the Election Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency as a tool for ethical governance:
1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act of 2013 includes a clause that grants the Lokpal direct oversight of the Right to Information Act, allowing it to bypass the Central Information Commission for cases involving high-level public functionaries.
2. The Official Secrets Act of 1923 contains provisions that categorize all government documents as confidential, and the 2005 RTI Act serves as an amendment to this colonial-era legislation to prioritize public disclosure.
3. The Central Information Commission was established under the Whistleblowers Protection Act of 2011, which functions as the primary appellate body for monitoring the implementation of transparency standards across state-level departments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, does not grant the Lokpal oversight of the RTI Act or power to bypass the Central Information Commission. The RTI Act, 2005, is a standalone legislation that overrides the Official Secrets Act, 1923, in matters of public interest, rather than acting as an amendment to it. Finally, the Central Information Commission was established under the RTI Act, 2005, not the Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2011, and it functions as the final appellate authority for information requests, not as a monitor for the Whistleblowers Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical leadership and the creation of organizational culture:
1. Article 311 of the Indian Constitution provides constitutional safeguards to civil servants, ensuring that dismissal or reduction in rank follows a formal inquiry process.
2. The 1964 Santhanam Committee report proposed the creation of the Lokpal, and its recommendations led to the immediate establishment of the office of the Lokayukta in every state by 1966.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 2007 report on Ethics in Governance, identified integrity and objectivity as foundational pillars for civil services.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 311 mandates that no civil servant can be dismissed or reduced in rank without an inquiry where they are informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity to be heard. Statement 3 is correct because the 4th report of the 2nd ARC, 'Ethics in Governance,' explicitly highlights integrity, objectivity, and dedication to public service as essential values for civil servants. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the 1964 Santhanam Committee recommended the Lokpal, it did not lead to the immediate establishment of Lokayuktas in every state by 1966; the Lokayukta system was adopted gradually by states over several decades, starting with Maharashtra in 1971.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between personal conscience and organizational hierarchy:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 4th Report titled 'Ethics in Governance' submitted in 2007, identifies the conflict between personal conscience and hierarchical loyalty as a primary ethical dilemma.
2. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, includes provisions for whistleblower protection in Section 15, and this framework serves as the primary legal basis for officials to bypass hierarchical reporting lines when reporting departmental financial irregularities.
3. Article 311(2) of the Indian Constitution provides that no civil servant shall be dismissed or reduced in rank without an inquiry, a protection often invoked when a subordinate disagrees with a superior's directive on ethical grounds.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 4th Report of the 2nd ARC (2007) explicitly addresses the ethical dilemma where an official must choose between hierarchical obedience and personal conscience. Statement 3 is correct because Article 311(2) provides constitutional safeguards against arbitrary dismissal, which serves as a shield for civil servants who resist unethical directives from superiors. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, does not contain whistleblower protection provisions; such protection is instead governed by the Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014, and the Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers (PIDPI) resolution.
Consider the following statements regarding Integrity and probity in public procurement:
1. The Manual for Procurement of Goods, 2017, provides for the 'Two-Bid System' in high-value tenders, and it is governed by the guidelines issued by the NITI Aayog for infrastructure development.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) issued circular No. 08/06/21 on June 3, 2021, which emphasizes the need for 'Integrity Pacts' in public procurement projects exceeding a threshold of Rs 20 crore.
3. The Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order, 2017, encourages domestic manufacturing, and its implementation is monitored by the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of External Affairs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the CVC circular 08/06/21 mandates Integrity Pacts for projects exceeding Rs 20 crore to ensure transparency and prevent corruption. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Manual for Procurement of Goods is issued by the Department of Expenditure (Ministry of Finance), not NITI Aayog. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order is monitored by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of External Affairs.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional mechanisms for conflict of interest resolution:
1. The 1997 Nolan Committee report on Standards in Public Life introduced the Seven Principles of Public Life and established the legal mechanism for the automatic disqualification of officials found in a conflict of interest.
2. The Companies Act of 2013 includes provisions for the disclosure of interest by directors and applies these standards to the governance of Public Sector Undertakings through a 2015 notification by the Department of Public Enterprises.
3. The 2004 United Nations Convention against Corruption, which India ratified in 2011, includes Article 7 provisions concerning the management of conflicts of interest for public officials.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the UNCAC, ratified by India in 2011, mandates under Article 7 that states adopt measures to prevent and manage conflicts of interest among public officials. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 1997 Nolan Committee established the Seven Principles of Public Life, it did not create a legal mechanism for automatic disqualification. Statement 2 is incorrect because, although the Companies Act 2013 mandates disclosure of interest by directors, there is no such 2015 DPE notification that uniformly applies these specific private sector governance standards to all Public Sector Undertakings.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between personal conscience and organizational hierarchy:
1. The 2004 OECD Guidelines on Managing Conflict of Interest provide a standardized template for civil services, and these guidelines were formally adopted by the Indian Department of Personnel and Training in the 2006 Civil Services Reform Act.
2. The Nolan Committee Report of 1995, established in the United Kingdom, formalizes the 'Seven Principles of Public Life', which include 'Integrity' and 'Objectivity' as mechanisms to guide officials facing pressure from organizational hierarchy.
3. The Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964, specifically Rule 3(1)(iii), expects a government servant to maintain integrity and devotion to duty, which the Supreme Court in the 1996 case of 'Prabodh Sagar vs Punjab State Electricity Board' interpreted as including the duty to dissent against illegal orders.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no 'Civil Services Reform Act' of 2006 in India, and the OECD guidelines are not formally adopted as a binding domestic statute. Statement 2 is correct as the 1995 Nolan Committee Report established the 'Seven Principles of Public Life' (Selflessness, Integrity, Objectivity, Accountability, Openness, Honesty, and Leadership) to provide an ethical framework for public officials. Statement 3 is correct because Rule 3(1)(iii) of the CCS (Conduct) Rules mandates integrity and devotion to duty, which the judiciary has interpreted to mean that a public servant must act in accordance with the law rather than blindly obeying illegal instructions.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of empathy and compassion in public service delivery:
1. Article 51A(h) of the Indian Constitution, as amended by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, provides for the development of scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform in public service ethics.
2. The 2005 Right to Information Act includes provisions for the appointment of an Ombudsman in every district to oversee the compassionate handling of information requests from vulnerable populations.
3. The 2007 OECD report on 'Integrity in Public Service' notes that compassionate decision-making reduces the implementation gap in social welfare schemes by approximately 15 percent in decentralized administrative units.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 51A(h) is a Fundamental Duty for citizens, not a specific mandate for public service ethics. Statement 2 is incorrect as the RTI Act, 2005 does not mandate the appointment of an Ombudsman for compassionate handling of requests, but rather establishes Information Commissions. Statement 3 is correct as it accurately reflects findings from the 2007 OECD report on 'Integrity in Public Service,' which highlights how compassionate and ethical decision-making frameworks significantly mitigate implementation gaps in decentralized social welfare delivery.
Consider the following statements regarding Code of conduct vs code of ethics in public service:
1. The Nolan Committee, established in 1994 in the United Kingdom, identified seven principles of public life that serve as the foundational Code of Ethics for modern democratic institutions.
2. The All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, provide the framework for disciplinary action against civil servants, serving as a functional Code of Conduct for the bureaucracy.
3. Section 12 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, outlines the investigative powers of the institution, which functions as an external enforcement mechanism for breaches of the established Code of Conduct.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Nolan Committee (1994) established the seven principles of public life-selflessness, integrity, objectivity, accountability, openness, honesty, and leadership-which form the bedrock of ethical conduct. Statement 2 is correct because the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, prescribe specific do's and don'ts for civil servants, acting as a mandatory regulatory framework for disciplinary proceedings. Statement 3 is correct as Section 12 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, empowers these bodies to investigate allegations of corruption, thereby serving as an external oversight mechanism to enforce adherence to conduct rules.
Consider the following statements regarding Dilemma of administrative efficiency vs social equity:
1. The 2018 Jarnail Singh v. Lachhmi Narain Gupta case clarified that the creamy layer principle applies to the promotion of SC/ST employees in government services.
2. The 1973 Kesavananda Bharati case judgment influences the interpretation of social equity by defining the basic structure of the Constitution, which includes the principle of equality.
3. The 1947 administrative reforms committee led by N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar addressed the restructuring of departments to enhance functional efficiency in the post-independence era.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in Jarnail Singh (2018) upheld the application of the 'creamy layer' exclusion to SC/ST promotions, balancing equity with efficiency. Statement 2 is correct because the Kesavananda Bharati judgment established 'equality' as a core component of the Basic Structure, mandating that social equity initiatives must align with constitutional mandates. Statement 3 is correct as the 1947 Ayyangar Committee report provided the foundational blueprint for reorganizing the machinery of government to ensure streamlined administrative efficiency in newly independent India.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical challenges in digital governance and data privacy:
1. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, establishes the Data Protection Board of India as an independent body to oversee compliance and impose financial penalties for data breaches.
2. The Information Technology Act of 2000 introduced the concept of digital signatures, and Section 43A specifically empowers the Competition Commission of India to regulate corporate data processing practices.
3. The Budapest Convention on Cybercrime, which India signed in 2001, provides a framework for international cooperation on digital evidence and harmonizes national laws regarding unauthorized data access.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the DPDP Act, 2023, mandates the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India to ensure compliance and adjudicate penalties. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000, pertains to compensation for failure to protect sensitive personal data and is enforced by the central government, not the Competition Commission of India. Statement 3 is incorrect because India is not a signatory to the Budapest Convention on Cybercrime, primarily due to concerns regarding national sovereignty and the requirement for trans-border access to data.
Consider the following statements regarding Responsiveness vs rule-bound bureaucratic rigidity:
1. The 1964 Santhanam Committee report proposed the creation of the Central Vigilance Commission, and its recommendations led to the immediate adoption of the Citizen's Charter as a statutory instrument for all central ministries.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 10th report titled 'Refurbishing of Personnel Administration', identifies responsiveness as a core attribute of a modern civil service.
3. Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides procedural safeguards to civil servants, which are often cited in debates regarding the balance between administrative accountability and bureaucratic inertia.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Santhanam Committee (1964) recommended the CVC, the Citizen's Charter was introduced in India only in 1997, not as a statutory instrument but as a voluntary commitment. Statement 2 is correct as the 10th report of the 2nd ARC emphasizes that a responsive civil service is essential for effective governance in a democracy. Statement 3 is correct because Article 311 provides constitutional protection against arbitrary dismissal, which critics argue can sometimes foster bureaucratic inertia by shielding inefficient personnel from swift disciplinary action.
Consider the following statements regarding Professionalism and the merit principle in public appointments:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its 10th report recommended the introduction of a professional civil service board to manage senior-level appointments.
2. The 15th Finance Commission report acknowledged that merit-based recruitment processes contribute to fiscal efficiency in public sector wage bill management.
3. Article 315 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Union Public Service Commission for the Union and a State Public Service Commission for each State.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
The 10th report of the Second ARC (2008) explicitly recommended a Civil Services Board to insulate senior appointments from political interference, ensuring merit-based professionalism. The 15th Finance Commission emphasized that rationalizing public sector wage bills requires merit-based recruitment to enhance productivity and fiscal discipline. Article 315 of the Indian Constitution serves as the constitutional mandate establishing the UPSC for the Union and SPSC for each State to ensure impartial recruitment, making all three statements factually correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Neutrality and anonymity in the Weberian bureaucracy:
1. Article 311 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of civil servants against arbitrary dismissal, which historically supports the Weberian notion of tenure as a prerequisite for administrative impartiality.
2. The Fulton Report of 1968 in the United Kingdom argued that the traditional concept of anonymity for senior civil servants needed adjustment to increase transparency in administrative decision-making processes.
3. The 1997 Fifth Central Pay Commission report addressed the evolving nature of public service ethics and proposed the formal abolition of the anonymity doctrine to improve accountability in the digital era of governance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 311 provides constitutional safeguards, ensuring tenure security which is essential for Weberian impartiality. Statement 2 is correct because the 1968 Fulton Report critiqued the 'cult of the generalist' and recommended greater openness, challenging the traditional veil of anonymity. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Fifth Central Pay Commission (1997) emphasized professional ethics and accountability, it did not propose the formal abolition of the anonymity doctrine, which remains a foundational convention of the Westminster-style civil service.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability mechanisms for discretionary power:
1. Section 4(1)(d) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, provides that public authorities are expected to provide reasons for their administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 2007 report on Ethics in Governance, identified discretionary power as a primary area requiring robust institutional oversight.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India derives its authority from Article 148, and the 1971 Act allows the office to exercise direct disciplinary control over officers who exceed their discretionary spending limits.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 4(1)(d) of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates that public authorities provide reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons to ensure transparency. Statement 2 is correct because the 4th Report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2007) explicitly highlighted that discretionary powers, if unchecked, lead to corruption and must be governed by clear guidelines and oversight. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the CAG derives authority from Article 148 and the 1971 Act, it functions as an auditor and lacks the legal mandate to exercise direct disciplinary control over government officers; disciplinary actions remain the prerogative of the executive branch.