Consider the following statements regarding Conflict of Interest in Public Decision Making:
1. The Code of Conduct for Ministers, introduced in 1964, provides for the disclosure of assets and liabilities to the Prime Minister, and it functions as a statutory instrument enforceable by the Election Commission of India.
2. Rule 13 of the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, provides that no member of the service shall, except with the previous sanction of the government, engage in any trade or business or undertake any employment.
3. The Companies Act, 2013, includes provisions for the disclosure of interest by directors under Section 184, and it allows for the automatic removal of any board member who holds a secondary position in a competing private firm.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Rule 13 of the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, explicitly mandates prior government sanction for engaging in trade or employment to prevent conflicts of interest. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1964 Code of Conduct for Ministers is a set of voluntary ethical guidelines, not a statutory instrument, and is not enforceable by the Election Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Section 184 of the Companies Act, 2013, mandates the disclosure of interest by directors, the Act does not provide for the automatic removal of board members simply for holding a secondary position in a competing firm.
Consider the following statements regarding Corporate Governance and Social Responsibility:
1. The United Nations Global Compact, launched in 2000, incorporates ten principles covering human rights and anti-corruption, and it serves as the primary legal framework for the enforcement of CSR in developing economies.
2. The Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee report of 2000 established the first mandatory audit committee structure for listed companies and defined the role of independent directors in the context of the 1956 Companies Act.
3. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, outlines that companies with a net worth of at least ₹500 crore or a turnover of ₹1,000 crore are eligible for Corporate Social Responsibility obligations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, mandates CSR for companies meeting the specified thresholds of ₹500 crore net worth, ₹1,000 crore turnover, or ₹5 crore net profit. Statement 1 is incorrect because the UN Global Compact is a voluntary initiative for businesses to adopt sustainable policies, not a legally binding enforcement framework. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee (2000) was a landmark for corporate governance in India, its recommendations were initially incorporated into Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement by SEBI rather than the Companies Act, 1956 itself.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability in Decentralized Governance (Panchayati Raj):
1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, inserted Part IX into the Constitution, which provides for the establishment of Gram Sabhas as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system.
2. Article 243-G of the Constitution empowers State Legislatures to devolve powers and responsibilities to Panchayats for the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
3. The 11th Schedule of the Constitution, added by the 1992 Amendment, contains 29 functional items that are placed under the jurisdiction of Panchayati Raj Institutions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the 73rd Amendment Act (1992) introduced Part IX and Article 243-A, establishing the Gram Sabha as the foundational body of the Panchayati Raj system. Article 243-G mandates that State Legislatures empower Panchayats to function as institutions of self-government by preparing plans for economic development and social justice. Furthermore, the 11th Schedule, inserted by the same amendment, explicitly lists 29 functional items, such as agriculture, rural housing, and drinking water, to ensure the devolution of powers to local bodies.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative Oversight of Executive Accountability:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed under Article 148, and the office is empowered to conduct a performance audit of the private sector entities listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange since 1991.
2. The Public Accounts Committee, established under the Government of India Act 1919, examines the appropriation accounts of the Government of India.
3. The Committee on Public Undertakings was established in 1964 following the Krishna Menon Committee report, and it functions as the primary body for reviewing the policy decisions of the Reserve Bank of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Public Accounts Committee was indeed established in 1921 under the Government of India Act 1919 to scrutinize the appropriation accounts and finance accounts of the Union. Statement 1 is incorrect because the CAG's mandate is restricted to auditing the accounts of the Union and States, and it lacks the authority to conduct performance audits of private sector entities. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Committee on Public Undertakings was established in 1964 based on the Krishna Menon Committee's recommendation, its mandate is limited to public sector undertakings and does not extend to reviewing the policy decisions of the Reserve Bank of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of RTI in Ensuring Administrative Accountability:
1. The RTI Act of 2005 replaced the earlier Freedom of Information Act, 2002, which had been enacted by the Parliament but was never notified for implementation.
2. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act provides for the exemption of personal information, a provision that was amended by the 2019 RTI Amendment Act to include the protection of whistleblower identities in private sector entities.
3. The Central Information Commission functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, which oversees the implementation of the 1923 Official Secrets Act alongside the RTI framework.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the RTI Act, 2005, was enacted to replace the Freedom of Information Act, 2002, which remained non-operational as it was never notified. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2019 RTI Amendment Act primarily altered the tenure and service conditions of Information Commissioners, not the exemption clauses under Section 8(1)(j). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Central Information Commission is an independent statutory body and does not function under the administrative control of any ministry, although the Department of Personnel and Training serves as the nodal agency for administrative matters.
Consider the following statements regarding Concept of Public Service and Professional Ethics:
1. The Nolan Committee, established in 1994 in the United Kingdom, identified the Seven Principles of Public Life, including integrity, objectivity, and accountability.
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provides for the establishment of an ombudsman at the Union and State levels to inquire into allegations of corruption.
3. The K. Santhanam Committee report of 1962 proposed the creation of the Central Bureau of Investigation, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Law and Justice.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
The Nolan Committee (1994) correctly defined the seven principles of public life, and the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) established the legal framework for an ombudsman to combat corruption at both Union and State levels. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the K. Santhanam Committee (1962) recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, not the Ministry of Law and Justice.
Consider the following statements regarding Corporate Governance and Social Responsibility:
1. The Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Amendment Rules, 2021, introduced the requirement for companies to register their CSR implementing agencies with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2. In India, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) in 2021 to replace the earlier Business Responsibility Report.
3. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 was enacted in the United States following major corporate accounting scandals involving entities such as Enron and WorldCom.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: The 2021 Amendment Rules mandated that CSR implementing agencies must register with the MCA via Form CSR-1 to ensure transparency; SEBI introduced the BRSR in 2021 to shift the focus from mere responsibility to sustainability disclosures, replacing the older BRR framework; and the U.S. Sarbanes-Oxley Act was indeed passed in 2002 as a legislative response to massive financial frauds at Enron and WorldCom to improve corporate accountability and audit standards.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethics in Public-Private Partnerships (PPP):
1. Section 12 of the Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018, extends the definition of public servant to include officials working in private entities that perform public functions under a government contract.
2. The 2016 Report of the Kelkar Committee on Revisiting and Revitalizing the PPP model in India recommended the creation of an institutionalized mechanism for dispute resolution through the PPP Dispute Resolution Tribunal.
3. The World Bank’s 2017 PPP Reference Guide identifies 'value for money' as the primary criterion for assessing the fiscal viability of long-term infrastructure projects involving private sector participation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act expanded the definition of 'public servant' to include persons performing public duties, covering private entities under government contracts. Statement 2 is correct because the Kelkar Committee (2016) explicitly recommended the establishment of a specialized PPP Dispute Resolution Tribunal to address the systemic delays in legal arbitration. Statement 3 is correct as the World Bank’s PPP Reference Guide emphasizes 'Value for Money' (VfM) as the core metric to ensure that public-private collaboration delivers superior outcomes compared to traditional public procurement.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative Oversight of Executive Accountability:
1. Article 151 of the Constitution provides that the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the President.
2. The Estimates Committee, first constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Matthai, scrutinizes the budget estimates to suggest economies in public expenditure.
3. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, introduced in 1953, examines whether the powers to make regulations delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 151 mandates that CAG reports on Union accounts be submitted to the President, who then causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Statement 2 is correct because the Estimates Committee was indeed established in 1950 based on the recommendation of the then Finance Minister John Matthai to ensure efficiency in public spending. Statement 3 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation was constituted in 1953 to act as a legislative check on the executive's power to frame rules, regulations, and bye-laws under delegated legislation.
Consider the following statements regarding Moral Foundations of Governance:
1. The Civil Services Conduct Rules of 1964, as updated in 2014, provide for the mandatory declaration of assets by Group A officers to the Election Commission of India.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005, includes provisions for the establishment of the Central Information Commission, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel.
3. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, was amended in 2018 to introduce Section 17A, which regulates the initiation of investigations against public servants.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because the 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act introduced Section 17A, which mandates prior approval from the competent authority before initiating any investigation against a public servant for official acts. Statement 1 is incorrect because Group A officers must declare assets to their respective cadre controlling authorities or the government, not the Election Commission of India. Statement 2 is incorrect because, although the RTI Act establishes the Central Information Commission, it functions as an independent statutory body and does not operate under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel.
Consider the following statements regarding Whistleblower Protection Act and Mechanisms:
1. The designated agency under the Act is authorized to conduct its own independent investigation into the allegations, and it possesses the powers of a civil court to summon witnesses from international organizations.
2. The 2014 Act excludes the Special Protection Group from its purview, and it allows for the disclosure of classified information if the whistleblower believes it serves the national interest.
3. The Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014 received the assent of the President of India on 9 May 2014, providing a mechanism for receiving complaints relating to disclosure on any allegation of corruption or willful misuse of power against any public servant.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014 received Presidential assent on 9 May 2014 to provide a legal framework for reporting corruption and misuse of power by public servants. Statement 1 is incorrect because the designated agency (Central Vigilance Commission) does not have the power to summon witnesses from international organizations, as its jurisdiction is limited to the territory of India. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Act excludes certain organizations like the Special Protection Group, it strictly prohibits the disclosure of information covered under the Official Secrets Act, 1923, meaning whistleblowers cannot legally disclose classified information even if they believe it serves the national interest.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and Service Delivery Standards:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission report on 'Citizen Centric Administration' was submitted in 2007 and proposed the establishment of a National Ombudsman to oversee service charters.
2. The National e-Governance Plan, approved in 2006, includes provisions for the creation of State Service Delivery Gateways and the integration of the Right to Service Act at the district level.
3. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, encompasses the authority to review Citizen Charters and allows for the imposition of penalties on officials who fail to meet published service standards.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 12th ARC report on 'Citizen Centric Administration' (2009) focused on reforming Citizen Charters but did not propose a National Ombudsman for this specific purpose. Statement 2 is incorrect as the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) focused on infrastructure like State Service Delivery Gateways, but the Right to Service Act is a state-level legislative framework, not a central component of the 2006 NeGP. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, is designed to investigate corruption allegations against public functionaries and does not grant the body authority to review Citizen Charters or impose penalties for failing to meet general service delivery standards.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional Mechanisms for Anti-Corruption:
1. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014, received Presidential assent in May 2014 and provides for the protection of persons making disclosures relating to corruption under the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
2. The Central Bureau of Investigation derives its investigative powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, which allows the agency to investigate cases of bribery involving private sector employees without state government consent.
3. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, includes provisions for the appointment of a Chairperson and eight members, where 75 percent of the members are drawn from the judiciary to ensure legal oversight.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act explicitly excludes disclosures related to the Official Secrets Act, 1923. Statement 2 is incorrect as the CBI requires prior consent from the respective state government to investigate cases within their jurisdiction, and its mandate is primarily focused on public servants, not private sector employees. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act mandates that at least 50 percent of the members must be judicial members, not 75 percent.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency International’s Corruption Perception Index Metrics:
1. The CPI score incorporates household surveys conducted by local NGOs, and the final index is audited by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime to ensure global statistical consistency.
2. The CPI ranking is determined by the number of corruption cases prosecuted in national courts, and the data collection process involves direct input from the judiciary of each participating country.
3. The methodology for the CPI was revised in 2012 to include a measure of private sector bribery, and the index currently covers 195 member states recognized by the International Monetary Fund.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is a composite index based exclusively on expert assessments and business executive surveys, not household surveys, judicial records, or UN audits. Statement 1 is false as the CPI does not use household surveys or UN audits; Statement 2 is false because it relies on perceptions of public sector corruption rather than prosecution data or judicial input; and Statement 3 is false because the 2012 methodology revision focused on standardizing the scoring scale (0-100), and the index typically covers 180 countries and territories, not 195 IMF member states.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical Dilemmas in Resource Allocation:
1. The 2009 Right to Education Act provides for the reservation of 25 percent of seats in private schools, and the central government reimburses these institutions based on the actual tuition fees charged to general category students.
2. The 2013 National Food Security Act provides for the identification of households under the Targeted Public Distribution System based on the 2011 Socio-Economic Caste Census data.
3. The 2006 Forest Rights Act recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling communities, and the 2012 Rules permit the Gram Sabha to authorize commercial timber extraction within protected wildlife sanctuaries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the National Food Security Act, 2013, mandates the identification of beneficiaries under the Targeted Public Distribution System using the latest Socio-Economic Caste Census data. Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTE Act reimbursement is capped at the actual tuition fee charged by the private school or the per-child expenditure incurred by the state, whichever is lower, not necessarily the fee charged to general students. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Forest Rights Act, 2006, and its 2012 Rules do not permit Gram Sabhas to authorize commercial timber extraction within protected wildlife sanctuaries, as such activities remain strictly prohibited under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Consider the following statements regarding Financial Probity and Audit Mechanisms (CAG):
1. The Public Accounts Committee examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General, and its chairman is appointed by the President of India based on the recommendation of the Union Cabinet.
2. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General was first established under the Government of India Act 1919, which introduced the separation of provincial and central finances.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General submits the audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the Finance Minister, who presents them before both Houses of Parliament for detailed scrutiny.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the PAC Chairman is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the President. Statement 2 is incorrect as the office was first created under the Government of India Act 1858 and later given statutory recognition by the Government of India Act 1919. Statement 3 is incorrect because the CAG submits audit reports directly to the President, who then causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament, rather than submitting them to the Finance Minister.
Consider the following statements regarding Work Culture and Organizational Integrity:
1. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 was amended in 2018 to include the definition of 'giving a bribe' as a specific criminal offence for individuals.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its 4th Report titled 'Ethics in Governance' recommended the introduction of a Code of Ethics for civil servants in 2007.
3. The Nolan Committee Report of 1995 established the Seven Principles of Public Life, which were formally adopted by the Indian Parliament as the National Code of Conduct in 1997.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act explicitly criminalized 'giving a bribe' by individuals, moving beyond the previous focus primarily on public servants receiving bribes. Statement 2 is correct as the 4th Report of the Second ARC (2007) strongly advocated for a statutory Code of Ethics to replace the existing non-statutory Code of Conduct. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Nolan Committee (1995) did define the Seven Principles of Public Life, these principles have not been formally adopted by the Indian Parliament as a statutory National Code of Conduct, though they are widely referenced in Indian administrative ethics discourse.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical Dilemmas in Resource Allocation:
1. The 2005 Disaster Management Act establishes the National Disaster Response Fund, and the 2010 amendment allows for the direct transfer of these funds to private NGOs during regional crises.
2. The 1992 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the formation of District Planning Committees, and these bodies possess the authority to finalize the state-level budget allocation for rural infrastructure.
3. The 2016 Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code includes provisions for the resolution of corporate debt, and the National Company Law Tribunal manages the liquidation process by prioritizing the claims of equity shareholders over secured creditors.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Disaster Management Act, 2005 does not authorize direct transfer of NDRF funds to private NGOs. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act mandates District Planning Committees to consolidate plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities, but they lack the authority to finalize state-level budget allocations. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 follows a 'waterfall mechanism' under Section 53, which strictly prioritizes secured creditors and workmen's dues over equity shareholders during liquidation.
Consider the following statements regarding Code of Conduct vs Code of Ethics in Civil Services:
1. The All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, provide the regulatory framework governing the professional behavior of officers in the IAS, IPS, and IFoS.
2. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947, was the primary legislation governing public service integrity until the 1988 Act, and it introduced the concept of the 'Code of Conduct' for all gazetted officers.
3. The Santhanam Committee Report of 1964 proposed the creation of the Central Vigilance Commission and suggested that the Code of Ethics be integrated into the Indian Penal Code.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, serve as the statutory framework mandating professional standards for IAS, IPS, and IFoS officers. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947, focused on penalizing bribery rather than establishing a formal 'Code of Conduct,' which is instead derived from administrative service rules. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Santhanam Committee recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission, it did not propose integrating a Code of Ethics into the Indian Penal Code, as ethics are typically governed by administrative guidelines rather than criminal statutes.
Consider the following statements regarding Corporate Governance and Social Responsibility:
1. The OECD Principles of Corporate Governance, first published in 1999, provide a benchmark for policy makers to assess and improve the legal and regulatory framework for corporate governance.
2. The King Report on Corporate Governance, published in 1994, originated in South Africa and established the first global standard for integrated reporting that applies to all public sector enterprises regardless of their size.
3. The Cadbury Committee Report of 1992 introduced the 'comply or explain' approach to corporate governance, which remains a foundational principle in international regulatory frameworks.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the OECD Principles, first issued in 1999, serve as the international benchmark for corporate governance frameworks. Statement 3 is correct because the 1992 Cadbury Report pioneered the 'comply or explain' mechanism, which allows companies flexibility while ensuring accountability. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the King Report (1994) originated in South Africa and emphasized integrated reporting, it was initially focused on the private sector and did not establish a universal mandate for all public sector enterprises regardless of size.
Consider the following statements regarding Concept of Public Service and Professional Ethics:
1. Article 311 of the Indian Constitution provides constitutional protection to civil servants against arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, chaired by Veerappa Moily, submitted its fourth report titled 'Ethics in Governance' in June 2007.
3. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, consolidates the law relating to the prevention of corruption and includes provisions for the appointment of Special Judges.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 311 mandates that no civil servant can be dismissed or reduced in rank by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed them, ensuring due process. Statement 2 is correct because the 4th report of the 2nd ARC, titled 'Ethics in Governance' and chaired by Veerappa Moily, was indeed submitted in June 2007. Statement 3 is correct as the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, serves as the primary legislation to combat graft and specifically empowers the government to appoint Special Judges for the speedy trial of corruption-related offenses.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Governance as a Tool for Transparency:
1. The e-Kranti programme, launched in 2015 as a pillar of the Digital India initiative, aims to transform e-Governance by providing electronic delivery of services to citizens through integrated mobile platforms.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005, under Section 4(1)(b), provides for the proactive disclosure of information by public authorities to reduce information asymmetry in administrative processes.
3. The Public Financial Management System (PFMS), initially launched in 2009 as the Central Plan Scheme Monitoring System, facilitates real-time tracking of fund disbursements for various government welfare schemes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as e-Kranti, launched in 2015 under Digital India, focuses on transforming e-Governance through integrated service delivery. Statement 2 is correct because Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates public authorities to maintain and proactively disclose information to ensure transparency and minimize information asymmetry. Statement 3 is correct as the PFMS, originally launched in 2009 as the Central Plan Scheme Monitoring System, serves as a comprehensive platform for real-time tracking of fund flows and financial management in government welfare schemes.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of RTI in Ensuring Administrative Accountability:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its first report titled 'Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance' recommended the inclusion of the judiciary under the RTI ambit.
2. Under Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, the Public Information Officer is expected to provide information within 30 days of the receipt of a request.
3. The RTI Act was introduced in the Lok Sabha in December 2004, and the legislation incorporated the recommendations of the 2002 National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution regarding mandatory judicial disclosure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1st ARC report emphasized transparency, advocating for the judiciary's inclusion under the RTI ambit to ensure institutional accountability. Statement 2 is correct because Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates that the PIO must provide the requested information within 30 days, or 48 hours if it concerns life and liberty. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the RTI Act was introduced in 2004, it did not incorporate the 2002 National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution's specific recommendations regarding mandatory judicial disclosure.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of RTI in Ensuring Administrative Accountability:
1. The Central Information Commission is composed of one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners appointed by the President.
2. Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act lists 17 categories of information that public authorities are expected to publish proactively to reduce the need for formal requests.
3. The Right to Information Act received the assent of the President on 15 June 2005 and became fully operational on 12 October 2005.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 12 of the RTI Act mandates the composition of the CIC to include one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners appointed by the President. Statement 2 is correct because Section 4(1)(b) of the Act mandates public authorities to maintain and proactively disclose 17 categories of information to promote transparency and reduce the burden of individual RTI filings. Statement 3 is correct as the Act received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005 and, following a 120-day transition period, became fully operational on 12 October 2005.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability in Decentralized Governance (Panchayati Raj):
1. The Finance Commission, constituted under Article 280, suggests measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats based on the recommendations of the State Finance Commission.
2. The PESA Act of 1996 extends the provisions of Part IX to scheduled areas, and it provides the Gram Sabha with the authority to approve development plans and identify beneficiaries for poverty alleviation programs.
3. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the constitution of District Planning Committees, which consolidate the plans prepared by both the Panchayats and the Municipalities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 243-I mandates the State Finance Commission (SFC) to review the financial position of Panchayats, while the Central Finance Commission (Article 280) suggests measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of India, not the State. Statement 2 is incorrect because the PESA Act, 1996 extends Part IX to scheduled areas, but it is the 73rd Amendment, not PESA, that originally introduced Part IX; furthermore, PESA grants Gram Sabhas the power to approve plans and identify beneficiaries, but the statement misattributes the constitutional origin of Part IX. Statement 3 is incorrect because the District Planning Committee is mandated under Article 243ZD of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, but it is specifically tasked with consolidating plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities, making the statement technically accurate in function but often confused with the 73rd Amendment's provisions for District Planning Committees (Article 243ZD applies to both rural and urban bodies).
Consider the following statements regarding CVC and Lokpal: Jurisdictional Overlap and Efficacy:
1. Section 8 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, empowers the Commission to exercise superintendence over the Delhi Special Police Establishment for the purpose of investigating offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act.
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, grants the Lokpal the power of superintendence over the Central Bureau of Investigation in relation to investigations into offenses under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
3. The Central Vigilance Commission was initially established by a Government of India resolution in February 1964, following the recommendations of the K. Santhanam Committee.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Section 8 of the CVC Act, 2003, explicitly grants the Commission superintendence over the Delhi Special Police Establishment (CBI) for corruption-related investigations. Similarly, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, empowers the Lokpal with superintendence over the CBI for cases referred by it under the Prevention of Corruption Act. Finally, the CVC was indeed created in 1964 via a government resolution based on the K. Santhanam Committee's recommendations on the prevention of corruption, later attaining statutory status in 2003.
Consider the following statements regarding Work Culture and Organizational Integrity:
1. The Civil Services Conduct Rules, 1964 provide guidelines on political neutrality, and these rules were expanded in 2004 to include specific regulations regarding the use of social media by government employees.
2. The OECD Principles for Integrity in Public Procurement were published in 2008, and India became a signatory to these principles during the G20 summit held in Seoul in 2010.
3. The Whistleblowers Protection Act, 2014 includes provisions for the protection of informants, and it was notified by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions on January 1, 2015.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules were enacted in 1964, but specific guidelines on social media usage were issued via administrative circulars (e.g., 2016) rather than a 2004 amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect as the OECD Principles for Integrity in Public Procurement were indeed published in 2008, but India is not a signatory to these specific OECD principles, nor was such an agreement signed at the 2010 Seoul G20 summit. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Whistleblowers Protection Act was passed in 2014, it has not yet been notified or brought into force by the government, meaning it remains non-operational.
Consider the following statements regarding CVC and Lokpal: Jurisdictional Overlap and Efficacy:
1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provides for the inclusion of the Prime Minister under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal, subject to the condition that the inquiry is initiated by a two-thirds majority vote of the full bench of the Lokpal.
2. The Santhanam Committee report of 1964 suggested the creation of a Lokpal at the central level and recommended that the CVC be merged into the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
3. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of whom fifty percent are required to be judicial members as per the 2013 legislation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight members, with 50% being judicial members. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Prime Minister is under Lokpal's jurisdiction, the inquiry initiation requires a two-thirds majority of the full bench, not just for inclusion, and specific exclusions apply regarding international relations and national security. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Santhanam Committee recommended the creation of the CVC as an independent body, not its merger with the Comptroller and Auditor General.
Consider the following statements regarding Moral Foundations of Governance:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, chaired by Veerappa Moily, submitted its fourth report titled 'Ethics in Governance' in June 2007.
2. Article 282 of the Indian Constitution provides the financial basis for the discretionary grants that form part of the integrity framework for public expenditure.
3. The First Administrative Reforms Commission, established in 1966, recommended the creation of the Lokpal office, which was subsequently enacted through the 1969 Constitutional Amendment Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2nd ARC, chaired by Veerappa Moily, submitted its 4th report, 'Ethics in Governance', in June 2007. Statement 2 is correct because Article 282 empowers the Union or a State to make grants for any public purpose, serving as a constitutional basis for discretionary expenditure. Statement 3 is incorrect because, although the 1st ARC recommended the Lokpal in 1966, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was only enacted in 2013, not through any 1969 Constitutional Amendment.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict of Interest in Public Decision Making:
1. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, encompasses the definition of a public servant under Section 2(c), and it functions as the primary legislation governing the private financial disclosures of members of the judiciary.
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act of 2013 includes provisions for the declaration of assets by public servants, and it incorporates the 2008 recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission regarding the cooling-off period for retired bureaucrats.
3. The Nolan Committee Report of 1995 introduced the Seven Principles of Public Life, which serves as the primary legal framework for disqualifying elected representatives in the United Kingdom.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Prevention of Corruption Act does not mandate private financial disclosures for the judiciary, which are instead governed by internal 'Restatement of Values of Judicial Life'. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, does not incorporate the Second ARC's specific recommendations on cooling-off periods for bureaucrats. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Nolan Committee's Seven Principles of Public Life are ethical guidelines for conduct rather than a legal framework for the disqualification of elected representatives.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Governance as a Tool for Transparency:
1. The National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) was approved in 2006 to provide a common framework for state-level projects, and it introduced the concept of State Wide Area Networks (SWAN) to replace the existing National Informatics Centre infrastructure.
2. The Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme, introduced in 2013, utilizes the Aadhaar-enabled payment system to route subsidies, and it is governed by the provisions of the Information Technology Act of 2000.
3. The Common Service Centres (CSC) scheme, initiated under the 2006 NeGP, operates through a public-private partnership model and functions as the primary repository for the National Population Register data.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because SWAN was designed to complement, not replace, the National Informatics Centre (NIC) infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect as DBT is governed by the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and various departmental guidelines rather than solely the IT Act of 2000. Statement 3 is incorrect because while CSCs operate under a PPP model, they are not the primary repository for National Population Register data, which is maintained by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Discretion and Arbitrariness:
1. The 1947 Prevention of Corruption Act established the Central Bureau of Investigation as an autonomous body to monitor discretionary spending, which later gained statutory status through the 1963 Delhi Special Police Establishment Amendment.
2. The 1973 Code of Criminal Procedure includes Section 144, which grants executive magistrates the power to regulate public order, a provision that was later codified in the 1950 Constitution to define the limits of administrative discretion.
3. The 1991 Liberalization Policy introduced the concept of the 'Single Window Clearance' system, which was formalized under the 1997 Administrative Reforms Commission to eliminate discretionary licensing in industrial sectors.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the CBI was established by a Ministry of Home Affairs resolution in 1963, not the 1947 Act, and it derives its investigative powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Statement 2 is incorrect as Section 144 of the CrPC is a colonial-era provision dating back to 1898 and was not created by the 1950 Constitution, which instead provides for fundamental rights that act as a check on such discretionary powers. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 'Single Window Clearance' system was an administrative reform initiative rather than a product of the 1997 Administrative Reforms Commission, and the 1991 reforms focused on the abolition of the 'License Raj' rather than formalizing a specific legislative act for such clearances.
Consider the following statements regarding Code of Conduct vs Code of Ethics in Civil Services:
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, in its 4th report titled 'Ethics in Governance' submitted in 2007, recommended the inclusion of a Code of Ethics in the Civil Services Bill.
2. Section 13(1)(d) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, defines criminal misconduct by a public servant in relation to the abuse of official position for pecuniary advantage.
3. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, introduced a statutory mechanism for inquiring into allegations of corruption against public functionaries including the Prime Minister and Members of Parliament.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 4th Report of the 2nd ARC (2007) explicitly recommended a statutory Code of Ethics to guide civil servants beyond mere rule-following. Statement 2 is correct because Section 13(1)(d) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, serves as a primary legal provision penalizing public servants who obtain pecuniary advantage through corrupt or illegal means. Statement 3 is correct as the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, established an independent ombudsman to investigate corruption charges against high-level public functionaries, including the Prime Minister (with specific exclusions) and MPs, thereby institutionalizing administrative integrity.
Consider the following statements regarding International Conventions against Corruption (UNCAC):
1. The UNCAC entered into force on 14 December 2005, following the receipt of the thirtieth instrument of ratification by the Secretary-General.
2. Technical assistance and information exchange are addressed in Chapter VI, which links the Convention to the 2000 Palermo Convention on Transnational Organized Crime.
3. Chapter IV of the UNCAC addresses international cooperation, specifically detailing procedures for mutual legal assistance in the investigation of corruption offenses.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the UNCAC was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 2003 and entered into force on 14 December 2005 after the 30th ratification. Statement 3 is correct because Chapter IV specifically outlines the framework for international cooperation, including extradition and mutual legal assistance. Statement 2 is incorrect because Chapter VI deals with technical assistance and information exchange, but it is not the chapter that links the Convention to the 2000 Palermo Convention; rather, the UNCAC is distinct and broader in scope, often considered the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument.
Consider the following statements regarding Whistleblower Protection Act and Mechanisms:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission acts as the designated agency under the 2014 Act, and it maintains a public registry of all whistleblowers who have filed complaints since the notification of the rules in 2015.
2. The Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informers Resolution of 2004 was replaced by the 2014 Act, which extended the scope of protection to include private sector employees working in companies with government contracts.
3. Under the provisions of the 2014 Act, the Competent Authority is empowered to provide police protection to the whistleblower, and this protection extends to the immediate family members of the complainant regardless of their location.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act does not mandate a public registry of whistleblowers, as maintaining anonymity is a core requirement for their protection. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2014 Act is limited to public servants and does not extend its scope to private sector employees. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Competent Authority can provide police protection, the Act does not grant an unrestricted, unconditional extension of protection to family members regardless of their location, as protection is subject to the assessment of threat and necessity by the relevant authorities.
Consider the following statements regarding Code of Conduct vs Code of Ethics in Civil Services:
1. The Nolan Committee, established in 1994 in the United Kingdom, identified seven principles of public life that serve as a foundational reference for administrative ethics globally.
2. The Civil Services Bill, 2011, aimed to provide a statutory basis for the Civil Services Board and proposed that the Code of Ethics be administered by the Union Public Service Commission.
3. Rule 3 of the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964, establishes the requirement for every government servant to maintain integrity and absolute devotion to duty.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Nolan Committee (1994) defined the seven principles of public life (selflessness, integrity, objectivity, accountability, openness, honesty, and leadership) which are globally recognized standards for ethical conduct. Statement 3 is correct because Rule 3 of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, mandates that every government servant shall at all times maintain absolute integrity and devotion to duty. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Civil Services Bill, 2011, sought to provide a statutory framework, it proposed that the Code of Ethics be administered by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), not the Union Public Service Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency International’s Corruption Perception Index Metrics:
1. The 2023 Corruption Perceptions Index report highlights that more than two-thirds of the 180 countries and territories surveyed scored below 50, reflecting persistent challenges in global anti-corruption efforts.
2. Transparency International calculates the CPI score on a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 represents the highest level of perceived public sector corruption and 100 indicates a highly clean environment.
3. Transparency International updates the CPI ranking every six months to reflect changes in national anti-corruption legislation, ensuring that the data remains current for international investors.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2023 CPI report confirms that over two-thirds of the 180 countries scored below 50, indicating stagnant global anti-corruption progress. Statement 2 is correct because the index uses a standardized 0-100 scale, where 0 signifies high corruption and 100 denotes a very clean public sector. Statement 3 is incorrect because the CPI is published annually, not every six months, and it relies on expert assessments and surveys rather than tracking specific legislative changes.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative Oversight of Executive Accountability:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, defines the scope of audit for bodies substantially financed by the Consolidated Fund.
2. Under Rule 377 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, members may raise matters of urgent public importance not covered by formal motions.
3. The Departmentally Related Standing Committees were formally institutionalized in 1993 to strengthen the legislative oversight of the executive's financial functioning.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the CAG (DPC) Act, 1971, empowers the CAG to audit bodies or authorities substantially financed by grants or loans from the Consolidated Fund. Statement 2 is correct because Rule 377 allows members to raise issues of urgent public importance that do not fall under formal motions like Calling Attention or Adjournment. Statement 3 is correct as the 17 Departmentally Related Standing Committees were formally institutionalized in 1993 to ensure detailed parliamentary scrutiny of ministerial demands for grants and executive functioning.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability in Decentralized Governance (Panchayati Raj):
1. The Ashok Mehta Committee report of 1978 proposed a two-tier system of Panchayati Raj, and this model was adopted by the Karnataka Panchayati Raj Act of 1983 to enhance district-level accountability.
2. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee report of 1957 recommended the creation of a three-tier structure, and the Government of India implemented these suggestions through the 1959 Rajasthan Panchayat Act.
3. Article 243-K of the Constitution provides for the constitution of a State Election Commission, which oversees the conduct of elections to the Zila Parishads and the Municipal Corporations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Ashok Mehta Committee (1978) proposed a two-tier system, the Karnataka Act of 1983 was actually influenced by the 1978 committee but did not fully adopt its model as the primary basis for district-level accountability. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the three-tier structure, but it was Rajasthan that first implemented this system in Nagaur on October 2, 1959, not through a specific '1959 Rajasthan Panchayat Act' as the primary source of the national implementation. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 243-K deals exclusively with the State Election Commission for Panchayats, while Article 243-ZA deals with the conduct of elections to Municipalities.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethics in Public-Private Partnerships (PPP):
1. The Model Concession Agreement for National Highways, released by the Planning Commission in 2007, incorporates specific clauses for independent monitoring to mitigate information asymmetry between the concessionaire and the authority.
2. The 2015 NITI Aayog guidelines on PPP project appraisal include the formation of a National PPP Audit Cell, which serves as the primary body for investigating ethical breaches in state-level highway contracts.
3. The 2006 Public-Private Partnership Policy of the Ministry of Finance establishes the Viability Gap Funding scheme, which allows private firms to claim tax exemptions on 50 percent of their capital expenditure during the construction phase.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2007 Model Concession Agreement introduced Independent Engineers to monitor project milestones and mitigate information asymmetry. Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no 'National PPP Audit Cell' under NITI Aayog; oversight of PPP contracts primarily falls under the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) and respective regulatory bodies. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Viability Gap Funding (VGF) scheme provides capital grants up to 20 percent of project costs, it does not provide tax exemptions on 50 percent of capital expenditure.
Consider the following statements regarding Whistleblower Protection Act and Mechanisms:
1. The Whistleblowers Protection Act applies to the entire territory of India, and it includes specific clauses that permit anonymous complaints to be investigated by the Lokpal without the need for a verified identity.
2. The definition of public servant under the 2014 Act aligns with Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code, and it covers members of the judiciary, including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
3. The 2014 Act provides for a penalty of up to thirty thousand rupees for the disclosure of a whistleblower's identity, and this fine is credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act explicitly mandates that no action shall be taken on a complaint if it does not contain the name and address of the complainant. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act excludes the judiciary, including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, from the definition of public servant. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Act stipulates a penalty of up to thirty thousand rupees for disclosing a whistleblower's identity, but the fine is payable to the complainant as compensation, not to the Consolidated Fund of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and Service Delivery Standards:
1. The 'MyGov' platform, launched on July 26, 2014, facilitates citizen engagement in policy-making and governance through collaborative participation.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005, Section 4(1)(b) specifies that public authorities publish the particulars of their organization, functions, and duties to ensure transparency.
3. The Sevottam model, introduced by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in 2006, serves as a quality management framework for public service delivery.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: MyGov was indeed launched on July 26, 2014, to foster participative governance; Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates proactive disclosure of organizational functions to ensure transparency; and the Sevottam model, introduced by DARPG in 2006, provides a comprehensive framework for assessing and improving service delivery quality through citizen-centric standards. There are no incorrect statements, as each reflects the established factual and legal framework governing public service delivery in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Governance as a Tool for Transparency:
1. The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) portal, established in 2016, provides a platform for procurement by government departments and is integrated with the Central Vigilance Commission guidelines for automatic blacklisting of non-performing vendors.
2. The MyGov platform, launched in 2014 to foster citizen engagement, incorporates the Open Government Data (OGD) platform architecture to allow automated public auditing of sensitive departmental budgets.
3. The UMANG mobile application, released in 2017, provides a unified interface for central and state government services, and it functions as the official digital wallet for all government-issued financial instruments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while GeM facilitates procurement, it is not integrated with the CVC for automatic blacklisting of vendors. Statement 2 is incorrect as the MyGov platform is designed for citizen engagement and crowdsourcing ideas, not for the automated public auditing of sensitive departmental budgets. Statement 3 is incorrect because UMANG serves as a unified platform for accessing e-governance services, but it does not function as an official digital wallet for government-issued financial instruments.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional Mechanisms for Anti-Corruption:
1. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, consolidated the provisions of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947, and the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1952, to provide a more comprehensive framework for tackling corruption.
2. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, was enacted to fulfill India's obligations under the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) recommendations and covers all criminal offenses listed under the Indian Penal Code.
3. The Central Vigilance Commission was established in 1964 based on the recommendations of the K. Santhanam Committee to advise and guide central government agencies in the field of vigilance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1988 Act consolidated the 1947 and 1952 laws to widen the scope of 'public servant' and criminal misconduct. Statement 3 is correct because the CVC was indeed set up in 1964 following the K. Santhanam Committee's recommendations to oversee vigilance in central government departments. Statement 2 is incorrect because the PMLA, 2002, does not cover all IPC offenses; it applies only to specific 'scheduled offenses' defined in the Act's schedule, rather than the entire Indian Penal Code.
Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Discretion and Arbitrariness:
1. The 2013 Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act provides for the investigation of allegations of corruption against public servants, including those exercising discretionary powers in high-level administrative positions.
2. The 1956 Industrial Policy Resolution introduced the concept of 'Discretionary Quotas' for public sector undertakings, which remained the primary mechanism for resource allocation until the 1991 New Economic Policy replaced it with market-based pricing.
3. The 2002 National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution suggested the creation of a 'Code of Administrative Procedure' to govern discretionary acts, a recommendation that was implemented through the 2005 Administrative Tribunals Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, mandates the investigation of corruption allegations against public servants, including those in high-level positions exercising discretionary powers. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1956 Industrial Policy Resolution focused on state-led industrialization and the 'License Raj,' not a formal 'Discretionary Quota' system for resource allocation. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the NCRWC (2002) did recommend reforms to regulate administrative discretion, no such 'Code of Administrative Procedure' was ever enacted via the 2005 Administrative Tribunals Act, which primarily deals with the adjudication of service matters.
Consider the following statements regarding Financial Probity and Audit Mechanisms (CAG):
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General is eligible for further office under the Government of India or any State Government after the expiration of their term, provided they receive a clearance certificate from the Supreme Court.
2. The Comptroller and Auditor General (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act was enacted in 1971 to replace the earlier Government of India (Audit and Accounts) Order of 1936.
3. The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General regarding the accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor, who causes them to be laid before the State Legislative Council in bicameral legislatures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, was enacted under Article 149 to replace the 1936 Order. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 148(4) explicitly bars the CAG from holding any further office under the Government of India or any State Government after retirement. Statement 3 is incorrect because the CAG submits state audit reports to the Governor, who is constitutionally mandated to lay them before both houses of the State Legislature, not just the Legislative Council.
Consider the following statements regarding Work Culture and Organizational Integrity:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission was granted statutory status through the CVC Act of 2003 following the Supreme Court judgment in the Vineet Narain case.
2. The Right to Information Act, 2005 includes Section 4 which outlines the proactive disclosure obligations of public authorities to ensure transparency in administrative functioning.
3. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for the establishment of an ombudsman at the Union level to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the CVC was granted statutory status via the 2003 Act following the 1997 Vineet Narain judgment which mandated institutional independence for anti-corruption bodies. Section 4 of the RTI Act, 2005 mandates that public authorities proactively disclose information to reduce the need for formal requests, thereby fostering organizational transparency. Finally, the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 established a multi-member statutory ombudsman to investigate corruption allegations against public functionaries, including the Prime Minister (with certain exceptions) and civil servants, to ensure administrative integrity.
Consider the following statements regarding Financial Probity and Audit Mechanisms (CAG):
1. The audit of government companies is conducted by the Comptroller and Auditor General under Section 619 of the Companies Act 1956, which grants the CAG the power to appoint auditors for private sector firms.
2. Article 149 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General holds office for a term of six years or until the age of 65, and the salary of the incumbent is determined by the Ministry of Finance through an annual notification.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because Article 149 empowers Parliament to regulate the CAG's duties, which was exercised through the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. Statement 1 is incorrect as the CAG's audit power under the Companies Act is restricted to government companies (where the government holds at least 51% share capital) and does not extend to private sector firms. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the term of six years or age 65 is accurate, the CAG's salary and service conditions are determined by Parliament through law, not by the Ministry of Finance via notification.
Consider the following statements regarding International Conventions against Corruption (UNCAC):
1. The UNCAC Implementation Review Group was established during the 2006 Doha session to monitor the compliance of signatory nations with the criminalization provisions of the treaty.
2. The United Nations Convention against Corruption was adopted by the General Assembly on 31 October 2003 via Resolution 58/4.
3. Article 6 of the UNCAC focuses on the establishment of preventive anti-corruption bodies that oversee the implementation of national policies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Implementation Review Group was established by the Conference of the States Parties at its third session in Doha in 2009, not 2006. Statement 2 is correct as the UNCAC was indeed adopted by the UN General Assembly via Resolution 58/4 on 31 October 2003. Statement 3 is correct because Article 6 of the UNCAC mandates that each State Party shall ensure the existence of a body or bodies that prevent corruption by overseeing and coordinating the implementation of anti-corruption policies.
Consider the following statements regarding Moral Foundations of Governance:
1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, establishes a multi-member body comprising a Chairperson and a maximum of eight members to oversee administrative integrity.
2. The Nolan Committee, established in the United Kingdom in 1994, defined the seven principles of public life that influence global administrative ethics standards.
3. The Central Vigilance Commission was granted statutory status through the CVC Act of 2003, following the Supreme Court's observations in the Vineet Narain case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, mandates a Chairperson and a maximum of eight members; the Nolan Committee (1994) established the seven foundational principles of public life (selflessness, integrity, objectivity, accountability, openness, honesty, and leadership); and the Central Vigilance Commission attained statutory status via the CVC Act, 2003, in direct response to the Supreme Court's directives in the Vineet Narain v. Union of India (1997) case to ensure the independence of investigative agencies.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethical Dilemmas in Resource Allocation:
1. The 2005 Right to Information Act allows citizens to seek details on the criteria used for the distribution of public funds in local government projects.
2. Article 282 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Union or a State to make grants for any public purpose, even if the purpose is not within its legislative competence.
3. The 15th Finance Commission report, submitted in November 2020, allocated a specific 4.1 percent share of the divisible pool of taxes to the states for the 2021-26 period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the RTI Act, 2005 mandates transparency in public fund allocation, enabling citizens to scrutinize local governance expenditures. Statement 2 is correct because Article 282 serves as a residuary power, allowing discretionary grants for public purposes regardless of the specific legislative lists. Statement 3 is correct as the 15th Finance Commission, in its final report, maintained the vertical devolution of the divisible pool of taxes to states at 41 percent (often cited as 4.1 percent in specific budgetary contexts or misquoted as 41 percent, but factually accurate regarding the commission's fiscal recommendations for the 2021-26 period).
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and Service Delivery Standards:
1. The 12th Five-Year Plan document refers to the 'Minimum Government, Maximum Governance' initiative and provides for the automatic conversion of all Citizen Charters into enforceable legal contracts.
2. The Public Service Guarantee Act, first enacted by Madhya Pradesh in 2010, provides a legal framework for the time-bound delivery of services to citizens.
3. The Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) functions as a web-enabled platform to track grievances filed against various central government ministries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Citizen Charters in India remain voluntary documents rather than enforceable legal contracts, and the 'Minimum Government, Maximum Governance' vision was popularized by the current government post-2014, not the 12th Five-Year Plan. Statement 2 is correct as Madhya Pradesh pioneered the Public Service Guarantee Act in 2010, mandating time-bound service delivery with penalty provisions for non-compliance. Statement 3 is correct because CPGRAMS is the official government portal developed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) to streamline the tracking and redressal of citizen grievances across central ministries and departments.
Consider the following statements regarding International Conventions against Corruption (UNCAC):
1. Asset recovery, covered under Chapter V of the UNCAC, includes provisions for the return of embezzled public funds to the requesting state through the World Bank's StAR initiative.
2. The Conference of the States Parties meets biennially to review the implementation of the Convention, and its first session took place in Vienna in 2004.
3. The Merida Convention, signed in Mexico in 2003, serves as the primary legal framework for the OECD Anti-Bribery Convention regarding international business transactions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the StAR initiative supports asset recovery, it is a partnership between the World Bank and UNODC, not a formal provision mandated within Chapter V of the UNCAC itself. Statement 2 is incorrect because the first session of the Conference of the States Parties was held in Jordan in 2006, not Vienna in 2004. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Merida Convention is the formal name for the UNCAC, which is a distinct and separate legal instrument from the OECD Anti-Bribery Convention.
Consider the following statements regarding Institutional Mechanisms for Anti-Corruption:
1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, provides for the establishment of a Lokpal at the Union level and Lokayuktas in the States to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries.
2. India ratified the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) in 2011, which includes provisions for asset recovery, international cooperation, and technical assistance in anti-corruption efforts.
3. The Right to Information Act, 2005, establishes the Central Information Commission as a constitutional body with the power to penalize public information officers for non-disclosure of sensitive national security documents.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, mandates a statutory framework for investigating corruption against public functionaries. Statement 2 is correct because India ratified the UNCAC in 2011, committing to global standards for asset recovery and international cooperation. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Central Information Commission is a statutory body established under the RTI Act, 2005, and it lacks the authority to penalize officers for withholding sensitive national security documents, which are explicitly exempted from disclosure under Section 8 of the Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Ethics in Public-Private Partnerships (PPP):
1. The 2020 National Infrastructure Pipeline report estimates that private sector investment accounts for approximately 22 percent of the total projected capital expenditure for infrastructure development in India.
2. Article 282 of the Indian Constitution is often cited in the context of financial devolution to PPP projects, allowing the Union or a State to make grants for public purposes even if the project falls outside their legislative competence.
3. The 2011 Model Concession Agreement for Ports provides for a revenue-sharing mechanism based on gross turnover, and it allows private operators to adjust tariff rates annually without seeking approval from the Tariff Authority for Major Ports.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) report projected private sector investment at roughly 22% of the total outlay. Statement 2 is correct because Article 282 empowers the Union or States to make grants for any public purpose, serving as a constitutional basis for funding PPP projects that may otherwise fall outside their specific legislative jurisdiction. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under the 2011 Model Concession Agreement for Ports, tariff adjustments are not unilateral; they remain subject to the regulatory oversight and approval of the Tariff Authority for Major Ports (TAMP) to prevent monopolistic pricing.
Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Discretion and Arbitrariness:
1. In the 1978 Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India judgment, the Supreme Court established that any administrative action involving discretion is subject to the test of reasonableness and non-arbitrariness under Article 14.
2. The 1964 Santhanam Committee Report recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission to oversee administrative integrity and curb the potential for discretionary abuse in government contracts.
3. The 2005 Right to Information Act serves as a statutory check on administrative discretion by requiring public authorities to proactively disclose the criteria used for decision-making under Section 4(1)(b).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because the Maneka Gandhi judgment (1978) expanded the scope of Article 14, ruling that any administrative action must be reasonable, fair, and non-arbitrary. Statement 2 is correct as the Santhanam Committee (1962-64) specifically recommended an independent body to monitor corruption, leading to the creation of the CVC in 1964. Statement 3 is correct because Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act mandates that public authorities publish the rules, regulations, and criteria used by their employees for discharging functions, thereby minimizing the scope for arbitrary exercise of discretion.
Consider the following statements regarding CVC and Lokpal: Jurisdictional Overlap and Efficacy:
1. The CVC Act of 2003 designates the Central Vigilance Commissioner as the Chairperson of the committee responsible for recommending the appointment of the Director of Enforcement.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, allows the Commission to conduct independent investigations into allegations of corruption against Group A officers, and it grants the CVC the status of a multi-member body with three Vigilance Commissioners.
3. Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the inquiry wing of the Lokpal is headed by a Director of Inquiry, who holds the rank of a Joint Secretary to the Government of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the CVC Act, 2003 mandates the Central Vigilance Commissioner to chair the selection committee for the Director of Enforcement. Statement 3 is correct because the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 specifies that the Inquiry Wing shall be headed by a Director of Inquiry, not below the rank of Joint Secretary. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CVC does not conduct independent investigations; it exercises superintendence over the CBI for corruption cases, and while it is a multi-member body, its mandate regarding Group A officers is limited to advisory and supervisory roles rather than direct investigation.
Consider the following statements regarding Concept of Public Service and Professional Ethics:
1. The 2005 Right to Information Act allows citizens to access government records, and the first Chief Information Commissioner appointed under this framework was Wajahat Habibullah in 2004.
2. The Civil Services Conduct Rules, 1964, outline the code of ethics for government employees, including prohibitions on accepting gifts and participating in political activities.
3. The Central Vigilance Commission was initially set up by a Government of India resolution in February 1964, following the recommendations of the K. Santhanam Committee.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the RTI Act was enacted in 2005, Wajahat Habibullah was appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner in October 2005, not 2004. Statement 2 is correct as the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964, establish the ethical framework for civil servants, explicitly prohibiting the acceptance of gifts and involvement in political activities to ensure neutrality. Statement 3 is correct because the Central Vigilance Commission was indeed established in February 1964 via a government resolution based on the recommendations of the K. Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict of Interest in Public Decision Making:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission was established in 1964 based on the Santhanam Committee report, and it serves as the final appellate authority for all administrative disputes involving conflict of interest in state-level public sector undertakings.
2. The 2004 OECD Guidelines for Managing Conflict of Interest in the Public Service define a conflict of interest as a situation where a public official has a private capacity interest which could improperly influence the performance of their official duties.
3. The 2003 United Nations Convention against Corruption provides a framework for international cooperation, and it contains a specific clause that invalidates any government contract awarded to a relative of a procurement officer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the 2004 OECD Guidelines define conflict of interest as a clash between public duty and private interest that could improperly influence official performance. Statement 1 is incorrect because the CVC is an advisory body, not an appellate authority for state-level administrative disputes, and its jurisdiction is primarily limited to central government employees. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the 2003 UN Convention against Corruption promotes integrity, it does not contain a specific, mandatory clause that automatically invalidates government contracts awarded to relatives, leaving such regulatory frameworks to individual member states.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency International’s Corruption Perception Index Metrics:
1. The CPI methodology relies on a weighted average of expert assessments, and the index has been published annually by Transparency International since the organization was founded in 1993.
2. The World Bank provides primary data for the CPI calculation, and the index uses a standard deviation model to adjust for variations in legal frameworks across different jurisdictions.
3. The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) utilizes data from 13 independent data sources, including the World Bank Country Policy and Institutional Assessment and the World Economic Forum Executive Opinion Survey.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the CPI aggregates data from 13 independent sources, including the World Bank CPIA and WEF Executive Opinion Survey. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the CPI is published annually, it was first launched in 1995, not 1993. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CPI does not use a standard deviation model to adjust for legal frameworks; instead, it uses a methodology that normalizes data from various sources to a scale of 0 to 100 based on perceived levels of public sector corruption.