Consider the following statements regarding Financial asymmetry through Article 275 grants-in-aid:
1. The Second Proviso to Article 275(1) relates to the costs of schemes of development undertaken by the State of Assam for raising the level of administration in tribal areas.
2. The 1952 Gadgil Formula provides the mathematical foundation for determining the annual quantum of Article 275 grants distributed to the North Eastern Council members.
3. The Article 275 framework incorporates the 1956 States Reorganisation Act to calculate the specific fiscal deficit grants allocated to the newly formed linguistic states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the Second Proviso to Article 275(1) specifically mandates the Union to provide grants-in-aid to the State of Assam for schemes of development designed to raise the level of administration in tribal areas. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Gadgil Formula (introduced in 1969, not 1952) pertains to the distribution of Central assistance for State Plans, not the constitutional grants under Article 275. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 275 grants are determined by the Finance Commission based on fiscal needs, and the 1956 States Reorganisation Act does not contain any framework for calculating fiscal deficit grants under this Article.
Consider the following statements regarding Autonomy of Autonomous District Councils:
1. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India, introduced in 1949, establishes Autonomous District Councils to provide legislative, judicial, and administrative autonomy to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
2. The Bodoland Territorial Council, established in 2003 following the Memorandum of Settlement with the Bodo Liberation Tigers, functions under the Sixth Schedule with enhanced legislative powers compared to standard district councils.
3. Under Paragraph 3 of the Sixth Schedule, Autonomous District Councils possess the power to make laws regarding the allotment, occupation, or use of land other than land forming part of a reserved forest.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Sixth Schedule was incorporated in 1949 to protect tribal autonomy in the specified four states through ADCs. Statement 2 is correct because the Bodoland Territorial Council was created via the 2003 Memorandum of Settlement and operates under the Sixth Schedule with expanded legislative authority over 40 subjects. Statement 3 is correct because Paragraph 3 explicitly empowers ADCs to regulate land use, excluding reserved forests, as part of their legislative mandate.
Consider the following statements regarding Evolution of the concept of cooperative vs asymmetric federalism:
1. Article 371C was introduced by the 27th Amendment Act of 1971 to provide for the constitution of a committee of the Legislative Assembly of Manipur.
2. The 6th Schedule of the Constitution, which deals with the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, was enacted through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 to formalize asymmetric federalism.
3. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts decentralized power to local bodies, thereby adding a third tier to the existing federal structure of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 371C was indeed inserted by the 27th Amendment Act, 1971, to facilitate special provisions for Manipur. Statement 3 is correct because the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts of 1992 institutionalized Panchayati Raj and Urban Local Bodies, creating a formal third tier of governance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 6th Schedule was part of the original Constitution of 1950, not the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371C and the Hill Areas Committee of Manipur:
1. The Governor of Manipur holds special responsibility for the proper functioning of the Hill Areas Committee and submits an annual report to the President regarding its administration.
2. The President of India is empowered to provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the Legislative Assembly of the State of Manipur consisting of members elected from the Hill Areas.
3. The President of India constituted the first Hill Areas Committee in 1972, which initially included nominated representatives from the Autonomous District Councils of the Senapati and Ukhrul regions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Article 371C empowers the President to provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from the Hill Areas, and it mandates that the Governor holds special responsibility for the proper functioning of this committee, submitting an annual report to the President. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Hill Areas Committee is composed exclusively of members of the Legislative Assembly elected from the Hill Areas, not nominated representatives from Autonomous District Councils, and it was constituted under the Manipur Legislative Assembly (Hill Areas Committee) Order, 1972.
Consider the following statements regarding Special provisions for Sikkim under Article 371F:
1. Article 371F(i) provides for the protection of religious and social customs in Sikkim, including the continuation of the traditional land tenure system known as the Kazi-landholdings as recognized in 1975.
2. The 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty, which preceded the 1975 merger, provided for the establishment of a bicameral legislature in Gangtok to ensure representation for the Lepcha and Bhutia communities.
3. Provisions under Article 371F(g) allow the High Court of Sikkim to exercise jurisdiction over the state, while the Supreme Court of India maintains appellate authority only in matters involving inter-state water disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371F(f) protects religious and social customs, but it does not mandate the continuation of the specific Kazi-landholding system, which was abolished by the Sikkim Agricultural Land Ceiling and Reforms Act, 1977. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1950 Indo-Sikkim Treaty established Sikkim as a protectorate, while the bicameral legislature was never a feature; Sikkim has always had a unicameral Legislative Assembly. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 371F(g) confirms that the High Court of Sikkim functions as the High Court for the state, and the Supreme Court of India maintains full appellate jurisdiction over all matters, not just inter-state water disputes.
Consider the following statements regarding Special provisions for Fifth and Sixth Schedule areas:
1. Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule possess the power to constitute village councils or courts for the trial of suits and cases between parties belonging to Scheduled Tribes.
2. The President of India holds the authority to declare any area as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule after consultation with the Governor of the concerned state.
3. Paragraph 12 of the Sixth Schedule clarifies that if any provision of a regulation made by an Autonomous Council is repugnant to an Act of Parliament, the latter prevails.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as per Paragraph 4 of the Sixth Schedule, which empowers Autonomous District Councils to constitute village councils or courts for tribal dispute resolution. Statement 2 is correct under Paragraph 6 of the Fifth Schedule, which mandates the President to declare Scheduled Areas via an order after consulting the Governor. Statement 3 is correct because Paragraph 12 explicitly establishes the supremacy of Parliamentary legislation over any conflicting regulations made by Autonomous Councils, ensuring the federal legislative hierarchy remains intact.
Consider the following statements regarding Special provisions for Fifth and Sixth Schedule areas:
1. The Tribes Advisory Council, as provided under the Fifth Schedule, consists of not more than twenty members, of whom three-fourths represent the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly.
2. Under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor submits an annual report to the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas, which is then presented to the Lok Sabha.
3. The Sixth Schedule provides for the establishment of Regional Councils in all states of the North-Eastern region, including Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, to oversee local land revenue collection.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Fifth Schedule mandates a Tribes Advisory Council with up to 20 members, where three-fourths must be ST representatives from the State Legislative Assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Governor submits the report to the President of India, not the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, and it is the President who directs it to be placed before Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Sixth Schedule applies only to specific tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, explicitly excluding states like Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371 and its regional variations:
1. Article 371-G states that no Act of Parliament in respect of the administration of justice involving Mizo customary law and procedure shall apply to the State of Mizoram unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram so decides.
2. Article 371-H provides the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh with special responsibility for law and order, a power granted under the 55th Amendment Act of 1986 to align with the administrative structure of the North-Eastern Areas Reorganisation Act.
3. Article 371-I provides for the constitution of a Legislative Assembly for the state of Goa with a minimum of thirty members, a provision added by the 56th Amendment Act to facilitate the transition from Union Territory status.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 371-G protects Mizo customary law and religious practices from parliamentary interference without the State Assembly's consent. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Article 371-H grants the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh special responsibility for law and order, it was introduced by the State of Arunachal Pradesh Act, 1986, not the 55th Amendment Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 371-I specifies a minimum of thirty members for the Goa Legislative Assembly, but this provision was introduced by the 56th Amendment Act, 1987, which granted statehood to Goa, and the statement is technically accurate regarding the content but often misattributed in context; however, in this specific set, only statement 1 is fully accurate regarding its specific constitutional origin and application.
Consider the following statements regarding Autonomy of Autonomous District Councils:
1. The Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council, originally constituted in 1952 as the United Mikir and North Cachar Hills District Council, operates under the administrative framework defined by the Sixth Schedule.
2. The Governor of the respective state holds the authority to annul or suspend any act or resolution of an Autonomous District Council if it is likely to endanger the safety of India or is prejudicial to public order.
3. Article 244(2) of the Constitution specifically provides for the application of the provisions of the Sixth Schedule to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council was established under the Sixth Schedule following the 1951 reorganization of the United Mikir and North Cachar Hills District. Statement 2 is correct because, under Paragraph 15 of the Sixth Schedule, the Governor has the constitutional power to suspend or annul acts or resolutions of the Councils if they threaten national safety or public order. Statement 3 is correct as Article 244(2) explicitly mandates the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram in accordance with the provisions of the Sixth Schedule.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371A and the Nagaland special protections:
1. Under the provisions of Article 371A, the administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law is subject to the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India in all instances.
2. The 16-point agreement of 1960 led to the formation of the state of Nagaland, and the subsequent 14th Amendment Act of 1963 granted the state legislature the power to regulate the ownership and transfer of land.
3. The Naga Hills-Tuensang Area was constituted as a separate administrative unit under the 1957 Act, and the subsequent 1962 constitutional amendment provided for the direct election of the Tuensang regional council members to the Lok Sabha.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371A grants the Nagaland Legislative Assembly the power to decide whether Acts of Parliament relating to religious or social practices, Naga customary law, and administration of civil and criminal justice involving customary law apply to the state, effectively limiting the Supreme Court's jurisdiction in these specific domains. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 16-point agreement led to statehood, it was the 13th Amendment Act of 1962 (not the 14th Amendment of 1963) that inserted Article 371A into the Constitution. Statement 3 is incorrect because, although the 1957 Act created the Naga Hills-Tuensang Area, the 13th Amendment provided for the election of one representative to the Lok Sabha from the Nagaland state as a whole, not for the direct election of Tuensang regional council members to the Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Governors in asymmetric administrative arrangements:
1. The Governor of Gujarat holds special responsibility under Article 371 for the establishment of a separate development board for the Saurashtra region to oversee technical education and vocational training.
2. Article 371B was introduced by the 22nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1969 to empower the Governor of Manipur to constitute a committee of the Legislative Assembly for the hill areas.
3. Article 371A provides that no Act of Parliament in respect of religious or social practices of the Nagas shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland so decides.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 371A grants special status to Nagaland, requiring the State Legislative Assembly's concurrence for the application of Parliamentary Acts concerning Naga religious or social practices. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371 mandates the Governor of Maharashtra (not Gujarat) to establish separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of the state. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 371B pertains to the state of Assam (not Manipur), which was inserted by the 22nd Amendment Act of 1969 to provide for a committee of the Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from the tribal areas.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371J and the Hyderabad-Karnataka region:
1. The Hyderabad-Karnataka region comprises the districts of Bellary, Koppal, and Yadgir, and the administrative oversight for these areas is vested in the Karnataka Regional Development Board established in 1994.
2. The implementation of Article 371J involves the creation of a regional committee comprising members of the Legislative Assembly, similar to the administrative structure adopted for the Bodoland Territorial Council in 2003.
3. The special status granted to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region includes provisions for the reservation of vacancies in state government posts, which are subject to the same 50 percent ceiling as the provisions under Article 371D.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the region comprises six districts (Bidar, Gulbarga, Yadgir, Raichur, Koppal, and Bellary) and is overseen by the Kalyana Karnataka Region Development Board, not the 1994 board. Statement 2 is incorrect as Article 371J mandates the establishment of a separate development board and equitable allocation of funds, not a committee modeled after the Bodoland Territorial Council. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Supreme Court in B.K. Pavitra (II) clarified that reservations under Article 371J are a form of 'special provision' for regional development and are not strictly constrained by the 50 percent ceiling applicable to general reservation quotas.
Consider the following statements regarding Differential representation in the Rajya Sabha:
1. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the rotation of Rajya Sabha seats among the North-Eastern states, allowing each state to hold a minimum of two seats during every biennial election cycle.
2. Article 80 of the Constitution provides for the nomination of 12 members to the Rajya Sabha by the President, based on their special knowledge in literature, science, art, and social service.
3. The allocation of Rajya Sabha seats for the National Capital Territory of Delhi is determined by the Fourth Schedule, which currently assigns three seats to the territory.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Tenth Schedule deals with disqualification on grounds of defection, while Rajya Sabha seat allocation is governed by the Fourth Schedule, which does not mandate a rotation system for North-Eastern states. Statement 2 is correct as Article 80(3) empowers the President to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha for their special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service. Statement 3 is correct because the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution explicitly allocates three seats to the National Capital Territory of Delhi, reflecting its unique status under Article 239AA.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric executive powers under Article 356:
1. Article 356 was invoked for the first time in 1951 in the state of Punjab following the resignation of the Gopi Chand Bhargava ministry.
2. The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 attempted to make the satisfaction of the President in issuing a proclamation under Article 356 final and beyond judicial review.
3. The Supreme Court in the S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case of 1994 held that the proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review regarding the existence of relevant material.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 356 was first invoked in Punjab in 1951 following the resignation of the Gopi Chand Bhargava ministry. Statement 2 is correct because the 38th Amendment Act, 1975, inserted clause (5) into Article 356 to bar judicial review of the President's satisfaction, a provision later repealed by the 44th Amendment. Statement 3 is correct as the landmark S.R. Bommai judgment established that while the President's satisfaction is subjective, it must be based on relevant material and is subject to limited judicial review to prevent mala fide use.
Consider the following statements regarding Financial asymmetry through Article 275 grants-in-aid:
1. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution identifies Article 275 as the mechanism for the Union to transfer surplus tax revenue collected under the concurrent list to the states.
2. Grants-in-aid under Article 275 are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, distinguishing them from discretionary grants under Article 282.
3. The 15th Finance Commission recommended a total grant-in-aid of approximately 1.03 lakh crore rupees under Article 275 for the period 2021-26.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 275 pertains to statutory grants-in-aid recommended by the Finance Commission to states in need of assistance, not the distribution of concurrent list tax revenues. Statement 2 is correct as Article 275 grants are statutory and charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, whereas Article 282 grants are discretionary and used for public purposes at the Union's discretion. Statement 3 is correct because the 15th Finance Commission, in its report for 2021-26, specifically recommended Rs 1,03,310 crore as revenue deficit grants under Article 275 to states.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric status of Union Territories with Legislatures:
1. The Union Territory of Chandigarh was granted a Legislative Assembly under the Punjab Reorganisation Act of 1966, though its powers remain limited by the oversight of the Administrator.
2. The 2021 amendment to the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act clarifies that the expression 'Government' in any law made by the Legislative Assembly refers to the Lieutenant Governor.
3. Article 239A was originally incorporated into the Constitution by the 27th Amendment Act of 1971 to facilitate the establishment of legislatures for the Union Territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Chandigarh does not have a Legislative Assembly and is administered directly by the President through an Administrator. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2021 amendment to the GNCTD Act defines 'Government' as the Lieutenant Governor only in the context of laws made by the Legislative Assembly where the rules of procedure specifically require his opinion, not as a blanket definition for all laws. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 239A was inserted by the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, to empower Parliament to create local legislatures or Councils of Ministers for certain Union Territories, not the 27th Amendment.
Consider the following statements regarding Special provisions for Sikkim under Article 371F:
1. Under Article 371F(l), the President of India is empowered to extend, with such restrictions or modifications as deemed fit, any enactment which is in force in a State in India to the State of Sikkim.
2. Clause (k) of Article 371F provides that the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim shall consist of not less than thirty members, reflecting the specific demographic considerations at the time of merger.
3. The Sikkim Subject Regulation of 1961 remains a protected legal instrument under Article 371F(m), which allows the state government to regulate the entry of non-residents into the border districts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 371F(n) (often cited as 371F(l) in specific contexts of legislative extension) empowers the President to extend laws to Sikkim to ensure administrative uniformity. Statement 2 is correct because Article 371F(k) mandates a minimum of 30 members for the Sikkim Legislative Assembly to safeguard local representation. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Article 371F(k) and (l) deal with legislative and legal matters, there is no provision under 371F(m) that validates the 'Sikkim Subject Regulation of 1961' for regulating non-resident entry; that regulation was superseded by the Citizenship Act, 1955, following Sikkim's integration.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371C and the Hill Areas Committee of Manipur:
1. Article 371C grants the Hill Areas Committee the power to veto state legislation concerning land revenue and forest management, a provision modeled after the Naga Hills District Council.
2. The 27th Amendment Act of 1971 established the Hill Areas Committee to oversee the administration of tribal districts in both Manipur and Tripura under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule.
3. Article 371C was inserted into the Constitution of India through the 27th Amendment Act of 1971 to address the administrative requirements of Manipur.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 371C was indeed inserted by the 27th Amendment Act, 1971, to provide special provisions for the Hill Areas of Manipur. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Hill Areas Committee does not possess an absolute veto power; rather, it has the authority to monitor and recommend legislation, with the Governor holding the final responsibility for the administration of these areas. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 371C applies exclusively to Manipur and does not place its tribal districts under the Sixth Schedule, which is a separate constitutional mechanism for tribal administration in states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Consider the following statements regarding Autonomy of Autonomous District Councils:
1. The 1988 Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council Act established the council's jurisdiction, and it is currently the only body in the Northeast that holds the power to levy income tax on non-tribal residents within its boundaries.
2. The 1993 Memorandum of Settlement with the Hmar People's Convention provided for the creation of the Sinlung Hills Council, which operates as a constitutional body under Part IX-A of the Constitution of India.
3. The 1972 North-Eastern Areas Reorganisation Act transformed the status of the North Cachar Hills, and it currently functions as a Union Territory council under the direct administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Sixth Schedule councils do not possess the power to levy income tax, which is a Union subject. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Sinlung Hills Council was established under the Mizoram state legislation and does not derive its authority from Part IX-A (which pertains to Municipalities). Statement 3 is incorrect because the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council operates under the Sixth Schedule within the state of Assam, not as a Union Territory council under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Consider the following statements regarding Financial asymmetry through Article 275 grants-in-aid:
1. Article 275 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to provide grants-in-aid to such States as it may determine to be in need of assistance.
2. The recommendations of the Finance Commission serve as the primary basis for the distribution of grants-in-aid under Article 275 to the States.
3. The First Proviso to Article 275(1) specifically addresses the promotion of the welfare of Scheduled Tribes in the State of Assam.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Article 275 empowers Parliament to provide grants-in-aid to States in need, serving as a key mechanism for fiscal federalism. The Finance Commission, established under Article 280, is constitutionally mandated to recommend the principles and quantum of these grants to ensure horizontal equity among States. Furthermore, the First Proviso to Article 275(1) specifically mandates central grants for schemes promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas of Assam, highlighting the asymmetric nature of India's federal structure.
Consider the following statements regarding Special provisions for Fifth and Sixth Schedule areas:
1. The Fifth Schedule applies to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
2. Under the Sixth Schedule, the Governor is empowered to organize and reorganize the autonomous districts by increasing or diminishing their areas or changing their names.
3. The Fifth Schedule was incorporated into the Constitution via the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956, which replaced the original provisions of the Government of India Act 1935.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas in states excluding the four North-Eastern states governed by the Sixth Schedule. Statement 2 is correct because the Governor holds the authority to organize, reorganize, and alter the boundaries or names of autonomous districts under the Sixth Schedule. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Fifth Schedule was part of the original Constitution of 1950, not the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956, which primarily dealt with the reorganization of states.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric legislative powers under Article 249 and 250:
1. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced the provision for Article 250 to cover state legislative subjects, aligning the constitutional framework with the post-emergency administrative reforms of the Janata Party government.
2. Article 249 was invoked during the 1962 border conflict to centralize agricultural policy, and the resulting legislation remained active until the formal repeal of the emergency in 1968.
3. Laws enacted by Parliament under the authority of Article 250 cease to have effect six months after the Proclamation of Emergency has ceased to operate, except as regards things done before the expiry of that period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because Article 250(2) explicitly mandates that laws enacted by Parliament under this article cease to have effect upon the expiration of six months after the Proclamation of Emergency has ceased to operate. Statement 1 is incorrect as Article 250 was part of the original Constitution (1950), not introduced by the 44th Amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 249 pertains to the Rajya Sabha's power to authorize Parliament to legislate on state subjects in the 'national interest,' whereas the 1962 emergency legislation relied on Article 250, and there is no historical record of Article 249 being used to centralize agricultural policy during that period.
Consider the following statements regarding Evolution of the concept of cooperative vs asymmetric federalism:
1. The 5th Schedule of the Constitution grants the Governor of a state the authority to direct that any particular Act of Parliament shall not apply to Scheduled Areas.
2. The Gadgil Formula, introduced in 1969, served as a mechanism to distribute central assistance to states based on factors like population, per capita income, and fiscal management.
3. The Inter-State Council was established in 1990 under Article 263 following the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission to foster better coordination between the Union and states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 5th Schedule empowers the Governor to modify or restrict the application of Parliamentary or State laws in Scheduled Areas to protect tribal interests. Statement 2 is correct because the Gadgil Formula, adopted in 1969, institutionalized objective criteria for allocating Central Plan Assistance, marking a shift toward cooperative fiscal federalism. Statement 3 is correct as the Inter-State Council was indeed constituted in 1990 via a Presidential order under Article 263, acting on the Sarkaria Commission's mandate to strengthen Union-State consultative mechanisms.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371 and its regional variations:
1. Article 371-D was inserted into the Constitution by the 32nd Amendment Act of 1973 to provide equitable opportunities and facilities for the people of different regions of the state of Andhra Pradesh.
2. Article 371-B empowers the President to provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the Legislative Assembly of Assam consisting of members elected from the tribal areas of the state.
3. Article 371-A provides that no Act of Parliament in respect of religious or social practices of the Nagas shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland so decides.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Article 371-D was introduced via the 32nd Amendment Act (1973) to ensure equitable opportunities in public employment and education for different regions of Andhra Pradesh; Article 371-B empowers the President to constitute a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly specifically for members representing tribal areas; and Article 371-A grants special status to Nagaland, stipulating that Parliamentary Acts concerning Naga religious/social practices, customary law, and land ownership require the concurrence of the State Legislative Assembly to be applicable.
Consider the following statements regarding Differential applicability of Central laws in tribal areas:
1. The Sixth Schedule empowers the Governor to organize and reorganize the autonomous districts and autonomous regions, including the power to define or alter the areas or boundaries thereof.
2. The Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule possess the power to make laws with respect to the management of any forest not being a reserved forest.
3. Under the Fifth Schedule, the Governor is authorized to make regulations for the peace and good government of any area in a State which is for the time being a Scheduled Area.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Under the Sixth Schedule (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)), the Governor has the authority to define or alter autonomous districts and regions. Paragraph 3 of the Sixth Schedule empowers Autonomous District Councils to manage forests other than reserved forests, while the Fifth Schedule (Paragraph 5) grants the Governor broad legislative powers to make regulations for the peace and good governance of Scheduled Areas, subject to the President's assent.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional status of the Delhi National Capital Territory:
1. Under the provisions of Article 239AA, the Legislative Assembly of Delhi holds the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the National Capital Territory with respect to matters in the State List, excluding entries 1, 2, and 18.
2. The National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021, introduced a framework where the opinion of the Lieutenant Governor is considered a mere formality in administrative decisions concerning the executive functions of the Delhi government.
3. The Balakrishnan Committee report of 1989 recommended the granting of full statehood to Delhi, leading to the enactment of the 69th Constitutional Amendment which removed the jurisdiction of the Union Home Ministry over the territory.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because Article 239AA, inserted by the 69th Amendment Act, empowers the Delhi Legislative Assembly to legislate on State and Concurrent List matters, specifically excluding Entries 1 (Public Order), 2 (Police), and 18 (Land). Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2021 Amendment Act actually strengthened the Lieutenant Governor's position, mandating that the government must obtain the LG's opinion before taking executive action on matters within the Legislative Assembly's purview. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Balakrishnan Committee recommended a limited form of statehood, the 69th Amendment Act specifically retained the Union government's control over public order, police, and land, and the Ministry of Home Affairs continues to exercise administrative oversight.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric fiscal federalism via the Finance Commission:
1. The 15th Finance Commission introduced a weight of 12.5% for the demographic performance criterion to incentivize states with lower fertility rates.
2. Article 275 of the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to states that are in need of assistance, allowing the Finance Commission to address vertical and horizontal fiscal imbalances.
3. The 10th Finance Commission introduced the concept of the 'Alternative Scheme of Devolution' in 1996, which allowed states to pool 29% of gross central tax revenues instead of specific individual taxes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 15th Finance Commission assigned a 12.5% weight to demographic performance to reward states for progress in population control. Statement 2 is correct because Article 275 empowers the Finance Commission to recommend grants-in-aid to states, serving as a vital tool to bridge fiscal gaps and promote equity. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 'Alternative Scheme of Devolution' was introduced by the 10th Finance Commission in 1996 to pool 26% (not 29%) of gross central tax revenues, which was later implemented through the 80th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric status of Union Territories with Legislatures:
1. Article 239AA was inserted into the Constitution by the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991, which designated Delhi as the National Capital Territory.
2. The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, provides the legislative framework for the Union Territory of Puducherry, which was formerly a French colonial possession.
3. The 14th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1962 enabled the creation of legislatures for Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, and Tripura, which were then upgraded to full statehood in 1971.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 69th Amendment Act, 1991, inserted Article 239AA, granting Delhi special status as the National Capital Territory with a legislative assembly. Statement 2 is correct because the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, provides the legislative framework for Puducherry, which was integrated into India following the 1954 treaty with France. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the 14th Amendment Act, 1962, did enable legislatures for these territories, Himachal Pradesh attained statehood in 1971, but Manipur and Tripura were upgraded to full statehood only in 1972 under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric executive powers under Article 356:
1. Article 371D, inserted by the 32nd Amendment Act of 1973, grants the President the power to issue orders for equitable opportunities in public employment for the people of the entire state of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
2. The Punchhi Commission report of 2010 suggested that the duration of the President's Rule under Article 356 should be limited to a maximum of six months, and the power to dissolve the assembly should be transferred to the Inter-State Council.
3. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 removed the power of the President to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly, and it introduced the requirement for a two-thirds majority in Parliament to extend the proclamation beyond one year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371D pertains specifically to Andhra Pradesh (and formerly Telangana), not Karnataka. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Punchhi Commission recommended that the Assembly should not be dissolved until the proclamation is approved by Parliament, but it did not suggest transferring dissolution power to the Inter-State Council. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment did not remove the President's power to dissolve the Assembly, nor did it introduce a two-thirds majority requirement; instead, it mandated that a proclamation beyond one year requires the Election Commission to certify that elections are difficult to hold.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Governors in asymmetric administrative arrangements:
1. Under the Sixth Schedule, the Governor of Assam has the authority to entrust the administration of tribal areas to the District Councils, which function under the oversight of the state executive.
2. The Governor of Maharashtra is empowered under Article 371(2) to establish separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of the state to ensure equitable allocation of funds.
3. Article 371G specifies that no Act of Parliament in respect of the ownership and transfer of land shall apply to the State of Mizoram unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram by a resolution so decides.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Sixth Schedule grants the Governor of Assam specific powers to organize and reorganize autonomous districts and oversee District Councils. Statement 2 is correct because Article 371(2) empowers the Governor of Maharashtra to establish separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of the state to ensure equitable developmental expenditure. Statement 3 is correct as Article 371G, inserted by the 53rd Amendment Act of 1986, mandates that no Act of Parliament regarding religious or social practices, customary law, or land ownership shall apply to Mizoram unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides.
Consider the following statements regarding Special provisions for Sikkim under Article 371F:
1. Article 371F(f) grants the Parliament of India the power to determine the number of seats in the Lok Sabha for Sikkim, which was fixed at two constituencies during the 1975 accession process.
2. Article 371F was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975, to facilitate the transition of Sikkim from an associate state to a full state.
3. The 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974, established the office of the Governor of Sikkim as the constitutional head, replacing the Chogyal's administrative authority over the judiciary.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975, formally admitted Sikkim as a full-fledged state of the Indian Union, incorporating Article 371F to manage the transition. Statement 1 is incorrect because Sikkim is allotted only one seat in the Lok Sabha, not two. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 35th Amendment Act, 1974, made Sikkim an 'associate state' with the Chogyal remaining the head of state, while the 36th Amendment Act, 1975, abolished the institution of the Chogyal and established the office of the Governor.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric legislative powers under Article 249 and 250:
1. A resolution passed under Article 249 remains in force for a period not exceeding one year, though it can be extended by subsequent resolutions for another year at a time.
2. Article 250 allows Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List while a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 is in operation.
3. Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because a resolution under Article 249 remains in force for up to one year and can be extended indefinitely by subsequent resolutions for one year at a time. Statement 2 is correct as Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on any State List subject when a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation. Statement 3 is correct because Article 249 specifically grants the Rajya Sabha the power to authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest, provided the resolution is supported by at least two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371 and its regional variations:
1. Article 371-E allows for the establishment of a Central University in the state of Andhra Pradesh, a provision introduced by the 33rd Amendment Act to address regional disparities in higher education access.
2. Article 371-C relates to the establishment of a regional committee for the Hill Areas of Manipur, which was incorporated via the 27th Amendment Act of 1971 to oversee the implementation of the Sixth Schedule provisions.
3. Article 371-F governs the administration of Sikkim following its 1975 accession, providing for the protection of rights of the original inhabitants and the continuation of the 1973 agreement on the electoral process.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371-D (not 371-E) deals with special provisions for Andhra Pradesh, while 371-E pertains to the establishment of a Central University. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 371-C provides for a committee of the Legislative Assembly for the Hill Areas of Manipur, but it does not involve the Sixth Schedule, which is not applicable to Manipur. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Article 371-F governs Sikkim, it does not explicitly mention the 1973 agreement on the electoral process; it focuses on protecting the rights of various sections of the population and the state's unique political integration.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric judicial jurisdiction in High Courts:
1. Under Article 230 of the Constitution, Parliament possesses the power to extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to, or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court from, any Union territory.
2. The Delhi High Court Act of 1966 established the High Court of Delhi, granting it original jurisdiction over civil suits exceeding a specified pecuniary value, a feature not shared by many other High Courts.
3. The 1956 States Reorganisation Act created the common High Court for Punjab and Haryana, which serves as the primary judicial body for the Union Territory of Chandigarh under the 1966 Punjab Reorganisation Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 230 empowers Parliament to extend or exclude High Court jurisdiction over Union Territories. Statement 2 is correct because the Delhi High Court Act, 1966, uniquely granted the court original civil jurisdiction for suits exceeding a specific pecuniary value, unlike most other High Courts that primarily exercise appellate jurisdiction. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966, established the common High Court for Punjab and Haryana, the court's jurisdiction over Chandigarh is derived from the same 1966 Act rather than the 1956 States Reorganisation Act, which dealt with the reorganization of states on a linguistic basis.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371C and the Hill Areas Committee of Manipur:
1. Executive power of the Union extends to the giving of directions to the State of Manipur as to the administration of the hill areas for which the Hill Areas Committee is constituted.
2. Under the Manipur Legislative Assembly (Hill Areas Committee) Order of 1972, the committee functions as a sub-committee of the State Cabinet with the authority to initiate money bills related to hill development.
3. The Hill Areas Committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consists of members elected from the constituencies situated in the hill areas of the state as defined by the President's order.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 371C(2) empowers the Union to give directions to the State of Manipur regarding the administration of its hill areas. Statement 3 is correct because the Hill Areas Committee is composed of members elected from the hill area constituencies as specified by the President under the 1972 Order. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Committee reviews legislation and development schemes, it is a committee of the Legislative Assembly, not a sub-committee of the State Cabinet, and it lacks the constitutional authority to initiate money bills.
Consider the following statements regarding Special Category Status and its evolution:
1. The 1960s policy on special category status prioritized states with high per capita income but low tax mobilization, which influenced the financial assistance packages provided to the state of Punjab during the Green Revolution.
2. The 1971 North Eastern Council Act created a regional planning body for the seven sisters, which was subsequently amended in 2002 to include Sikkim as a full member with voting rights on all central infrastructure projects.
3. The 10th Finance Commission in 1995 identified hilly terrain and high tribal population as the primary indicators for determining special category status, leading to the immediate inclusion of Jharkhand in the list.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Special Category Status (SCS), introduced in 1969 based on the Gadgil Formula, prioritized states with hilly/difficult terrain and low resource bases, not high per capita income. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Sikkim was added to the North Eastern Council in 2002, it was already a member since 2002, but the Act does not grant voting rights specifically tied to 'all central infrastructure projects' in the manner described. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 10th Finance Commission did not create the SCS criteria (which originated from the 5th Finance Commission/Gadgil Formula), and Jharkhand was not formed until 2000, making its 'immediate inclusion' in 1995 chronologically impossible.
Consider the following statements regarding Differential applicability of Central laws in tribal areas:
1. Article 371B was introduced by the 22nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1969 to create a committee of the Legislative Assembly for the tribal areas of Meghalaya, which holds the power to reject state legislation.
2. The Sixth Schedule provides for the constitution of District Councils in the tribal areas of Tripura, and under the 1985 amendment, these councils hold concurrent jurisdiction with Parliament over the implementation of the Citizenship Act.
3. Article 371G provides that no Act of Parliament in respect of the religious or social practices of the Mizos shall apply to the State of Mizoram unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram so decides.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 371G explicitly mandates that no Act of Parliament regarding Mizo religious or social practices applies to Mizoram unless the State Legislative Assembly resolves to adopt it. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371B pertains to Assam (not Meghalaya), created via the 22nd Amendment Act, 1969, to provide for a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members from tribal areas. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Sixth Schedule applies to Tripura, the 1985 amendment did not grant District Councils concurrent jurisdiction with Parliament over the Citizenship Act; citizenship remains an exclusive Union List subject under the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric executive powers under Article 356:
1. Under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, the Governor of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram is empowered to modify or withdraw any Act of Parliament or the State Legislature in its application to an autonomous district.
2. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 recommended that Article 356 should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases, as a measure of last resort.
3. Article 371A provides special provisions for Nagaland, including the requirement that an Act of Parliament relating to religious or social practices of the Nagas needs the concurrence of the State Legislative Assembly.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Paragraph 12 of the Sixth Schedule grants Governors of these states the authority to direct that specific Acts of Parliament or State Legislatures shall not apply or shall apply with modifications to autonomous districts. Statement 2 is correct because the 1988 Sarkaria Commission report explicitly emphasized that Article 356 should be a measure of last resort, invoked only when all other constitutional alternatives have failed. Statement 3 is correct as Article 371A mandates that no Act of Parliament concerning Naga religious or social practices, Naga customary law, or land ownership shall apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides by a resolution. Since all statements accurately reflect constitutional provisions and commission recommendations, there are no incorrect statements.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371J and the Hyderabad-Karnataka region:
1. The Governor of Karnataka is empowered to establish a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, a function that was previously overseen by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
2. The Hyderabad-Karnataka region encompasses the districts of Bidar, Gulbarga, and Raichur, and the special status provisions were originally introduced by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. Article 371J provides for the equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure across the state, mirroring the financial distribution model established for the Vidarbha region under Article 371(2).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the President, not the Governor, is empowered to establish the development board. Statement 2 is incorrect as Article 371J was introduced by the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2012, and includes six districts (Bidar, Gulbarga, Raichur, Koppal, Yadgir, and Ballari), not just three. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Article 371J mandates equitable allocation of funds, it does not mirror the specific financial distribution model of Article 371(2), which grants the Governor special responsibility for separate development boards in Vidarbha and Marathwada.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371A and the Nagaland special protections:
1. The special protections for Nagaland under the Constitution include the requirement for the state government to consult the Union Ministry of Home Affairs before enacting any legislation concerning the religious or social practices of the Nagas.
2. Article 371A provides that no Act of Parliament in respect of the administration of justice based on Naga customary law shall apply to the state unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority.
3. Article 371A was incorporated into the Constitution of India through the 13th Amendment Act of 1962, following the 16-point agreement between the Government of India and the Naga People's Convention.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 371A was inserted by the 13th Amendment Act, 1962, to implement the 16-point agreement between the Government of India and the Naga People's Convention. Statement 1 is incorrect because the state government is not required to consult the Union Ministry of Home Affairs; instead, no Act of Parliament regarding religious/social practices or Naga customary law applies to the state unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland so decides. Statement 2 is incorrect because the provision requires a simple resolution by the State Legislative Assembly, not a two-thirds majority.
Consider the following statements regarding Differential representation in the Rajya Sabha:
1. Under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the state of Sikkim is allocated one seat in the Rajya Sabha following its incorporation into the Indian Union in 1975.
2. The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution allocates 31 seats to Uttar Pradesh in the Rajya Sabha, reflecting the state's population size as per the 1971 census data.
3. The Union Territory of Puducherry is represented by one member in the Rajya Sabha, a provision enabled by the Constitution (Fourteenth Amendment) Act, 1962.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1975, allocated one Rajya Sabha seat to Sikkim following its integration. Statement 2 is correct because the Fourth Schedule determines seat allocation based on the 1971 census, which assigns 31 seats to Uttar Pradesh. Statement 3 is correct as the Constitution (Fourteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, incorporated Puducherry into the Union and provided it with one seat in the Rajya Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding Special Category Status and its evolution:
1. The Gadgil Formula, adopted by the National Development Council in 1969, served as the primary mechanism for allocating central assistance to states, with special category status states receiving 90 percent of their assistance as grants.
2. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 introduced special provisions for the development of the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, mirroring the asymmetric federal structure granted to the state of Andhra Pradesh under Article 371D.
3. Article 371A of the Constitution was inserted by the 13th Amendment Act of 1962, providing special provisions for the administration of the state of Nagaland regarding religious and social practices of the Nagas.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Gadgil Formula, introduced in 1969, allocated 90% of central assistance as grants to Special Category States compared to 30% for general states. Statement 3 is correct because the 13th Amendment Act, 1962, inserted Article 371A to protect Naga religious and social practices and customary laws. Statement 2 is incorrect because the special provisions for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region were introduced via the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2012 (Article 371J), not the 86th Amendment, which primarily dealt with the Right to Education.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric judicial jurisdiction in High Courts:
1. The Calcutta High Court exercises appellate jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, a provision formalised by the 1956 Act which granted the President power to define territorial limits.
2. The jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court extends to the states of Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh, reflecting an asymmetric judicial arrangement in the North-Eastern region.
3. Article 231 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a common High Court for two or more States, subject to a resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of each State concerned.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the jurisdiction of the Calcutta High Court over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands was extended by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Administration) Regulation, 1956, but the power to extend or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court to any Union Territory is vested in Parliament under Article 241, not the President. Statement 2 is correct as the Gauhati High Court, established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, serves as a common High Court for multiple North-Eastern states, exemplifying asymmetric federalism. Statement 3 is correct because Article 231 empowers Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states, a provision that aligns with the constitutional framework for administrative efficiency in federal structures.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371G and Mizoram land ownership rights:
1. The Legislative Assembly of Mizoram consists of not less than 40 members, a provision that aligns with the special constitutional status granted to the state in 1986.
2. Article 371G encompasses the protection of Mizo customary laws and land rights, and it mirrors the provisions of Article 371A which were extended to the state of Mizoram during the 1971 reorganization of North-Eastern states.
3. The Mizo National Front signed the 1986 Peace Accord to end two decades of insurgency, and the subsequent Article 371G allows the Governor of Mizoram to override state legislative decisions regarding the management of forest resources.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because Article 371G was inserted by the State of Mizoram Act, 1986, which established the Legislative Assembly with a minimum of 40 members. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 371G was introduced specifically via the 1986 Mizoram Peace Accord, not the 1971 North-Eastern Areas Reorganization Act, and it is distinct from the provisions of Article 371A which applies to Nagaland. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while Article 371G protects Mizo religious and social practices and customary law, it does not grant the Governor the power to override state legislative decisions regarding forest resources; rather, it requires the concurrence of the Legislative Assembly for the application of Parliamentary acts concerning these specific matters.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric status of Union Territories with Legislatures:
1. Under the provisions of the 69th Amendment, the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi retains the authority to promulgate ordinances on subjects in the State List without the concurrence of the Council of Ministers.
2. The Legislative Assembly of Puducherry derives its power to legislate on State List subjects from the 1963 Act, a provision mirrored in the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019.
3. Article 239AB allows the President to suspend the constitutional provisions of the National Capital Territory of Delhi if the administration cannot be carried on in accordance with the 1991 Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 239AA(7) requires the Lieutenant Governor to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers for ordinances, except in matters where they are required to act at their discretion. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Puducherry Legislative Assembly derives its power from the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, whereas the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, is a distinct parliamentary statute specifically governing the transition of the former state. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 239AB empowers the President to suspend provisions if the administration cannot be carried on in accordance with Article 239AA (the constitutional provision), not the 1991 Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric fiscal federalism via the Finance Commission:
1. The 14th Finance Commission increased the states' share in the net proceeds of the divisible pool of central taxes from 32% to 42%.
2. Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission every five years, and the 12th Finance Commission recommended the inclusion of local body grants as a percentage of the total divisible pool.
3. Under the 15th Finance Commission's recommendations, the horizontal distribution formula includes a 15% weight for the area of the state to account for the higher cost of service delivery in larger geographies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 14th Finance Commission (2015-20) significantly increased the states' share in the divisible pool from 32% to 42% to strengthen cooperative federalism. Statement 3 is correct because the 15th Finance Commission (2021-26) assigned a 15% weight to the area of states to address the higher per-capita cost of providing public services in geographically larger regions. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Article 280 mandates the Finance Commission, it was the 11th Finance Commission, not the 12th, that first recommended grants for local bodies, marking a landmark shift in fiscal decentralization.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional status of the Delhi National Capital Territory:
1. The Union Territory Cadre of the Indian Administrative Service, established under the 1956 Reorganisation Act, serves the National Capital Territory and functions under the direct supervision of the Delhi Legislative Assembly for all personnel transfers.
2. The Delhi Administration Act of 1966 created the Metropolitan Council, which functioned as a precursor to the current Legislative Assembly and held the authority to enact ordinances during the recess of the Parliament.
3. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act extended the provisions regarding Municipalities to the National Capital Territory, granting the New Delhi Municipal Council the status of a fully elected body with administrative control over central government buildings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Delhi services are under the control of the Lieutenant Governor (representing the Union) rather than the Legislative Assembly, as per the GNCTD (Amendment) Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Metropolitan Council was an advisory body without legislative or ordinance-making powers, which were only introduced later under the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 74th Amendment specifically excludes the New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC) from being a fully elected body, as it retains a nominated structure and remains under central administrative oversight.
Consider the following statements regarding Special Category Status and its evolution:
1. The Sarkaria Commission, established in 1983, proposed the inclusion of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand under the special category criteria based on their international border proximity and low population density.
2. The 2019 Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act converted the former state into two Union Territories, effectively invoking the provisions of Article 370 to grant the new Ladakh region a special legislative council.
3. The 14th Finance Commission report submitted in 2014 recommended the continuation of the special category status for all northeastern states while simultaneously extending the same fiscal benefits to the state of Odisha.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Special Category Status (SCS) criteria were established by the Gadgil Formula in 1969, not the Sarkaria Commission, and Uttarakhand did not exist as a state in 1983. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 2019 Act abrogated the special status of J&K under Article 370, and Ladakh was constituted as a UT without a legislature, not a special legislative council. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 14th Finance Commission discontinued the practice of providing SCS for central assistance, instead recommending a higher tax devolution (42%) to all states to bridge fiscal gaps, and it never recommended SCS for Odisha.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371J and the Hyderabad-Karnataka region:
1. The reservation of seats in educational institutions for students from the Hyderabad-Karnataka region is determined by the state legislature, which follows the recruitment guidelines set forth in the 1973 Mulki Rules.
2. The President of India is authorized to issue an order specifying the local cadre of posts in the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, a process that draws its legal precedent from the 32nd Constitutional Amendment regarding Andhra Pradesh.
3. Article 371J was inserted into the Constitution of India through the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2012, to provide special provisions for the six districts of the Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 371J was indeed inserted by the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2012, to empower the Governor of Karnataka to establish a Development Board and ensure equitable allocation of funds and reservation in education and public employment for the six districts of the Hyderabad-Karnataka region. Statement 1 is incorrect because reservation is governed by the order of the President of India, not the state legislature, and it does not follow the 1973 Mulki Rules, which were specific to the erstwhile Andhra Pradesh. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Article 371J mirrors the structure of Article 371D (which pertains to Andhra Pradesh), the legal precedent for the local cadre in Karnataka is derived specifically from the enabling provisions of Article 371J itself, not the 32nd Constitutional Amendment.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371G and Mizoram land ownership rights:
1. The provisions of Article 371G prohibit the application of any Act of the Parliament of India regarding religious or social practices of the Mizos unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram decides to concur.
2. The 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1986 introduced Article 371G to formalize the transition of Mizoram from a Union Territory to a state, and it concurrently granted the Mizo Legislative Assembly the power to amend the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
3. Article 371G was inserted into the Constitution of India through the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1986.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 371G mandates that no Act of Parliament regarding Mizo religious or social practices, Mizo customary law, or land ownership shall apply to Mizoram unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides. Statement 3 is correct because Article 371G was indeed inserted by the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1986, following the Mizoram Peace Accord. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 53rd Amendment granted the Legislative Assembly powers over religious and customary matters, it did not grant the Assembly the authority to amend the Sixth Schedule, which remains a power reserved for the Parliament under Article 368.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric fiscal federalism via the Finance Commission:
1. The 11th Finance Commission utilized the 1991 Census data for its population-based horizontal distribution formula, which maintained consistency with the 1971 Census usage by the 8th Finance Commission.
2. The 13th Finance Commission recommended a fiscal consolidation roadmap for states in 2010, which linked the debt-to-GSDP ratio to the performance-based grants under the FRBM Act of 2003.
3. The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, provides the legal framework for the qualification and disqualification of members appointed to the Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, defines the qualifications and disqualifications for members. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 11th Finance Commission used the 1971 Census, while the shift to the 1991 Census was introduced by the 14th Finance Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 13th Finance Commission proposed a fiscal roadmap, it did not link the debt-to-GSDP ratio to performance-based grants under the FRBM Act, as the FRBM Act primarily governs central fiscal targets and state-level debt consolidation is managed through separate frameworks.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Governors in asymmetric administrative arrangements:
1. Article 371F was incorporated through the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 to provide the Governor of Sikkim with administrative powers to protect the rights of the Lepcha and Bhutia communities in the state legislature.
2. Under the provisions of Article 371C, the President of India authorizes the Governor of Assam to ensure the proper functioning of the Hill Areas Committee, which oversees the implementation of central schemes in the Karbi Anglong district.
3. The 13th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1962 inserted Article 371A into the Constitution, which grants the Governor of Nagaland special authority regarding law and order in the Tuensang district for a period of twenty years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371F pertains to Sikkim, but the special responsibility for protecting the rights of different sections of the population lies with the Governor, not specifically the Lepcha and Bhutia communities via the 36th Amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 371C applies to Manipur, not Assam, and the Hill Areas Committee is a feature of Manipur's administrative arrangement. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Article 371A was inserted by the 13th Amendment to grant the Governor of Nagaland special responsibility for law and order, it specifically applies to the entire state of Nagaland, not exclusively the Tuensang district, and the special responsibility is not time-bound to twenty years.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371A and the Nagaland special protections:
1. The 13th Amendment Act of 1962 introduced Article 371A to address regional aspirations, and it includes a provision that allows the Governor to override the state cabinet on matters concerning the development of the Tuensang district.
2. The Tuensang district was granted a special regional council status for a period of ten years starting from 1963, and the Governor of Nagaland exercised direct administrative control over this district until the 1973 reorganization.
3. The Governor of Nagaland possesses special responsibility with respect to law and order in the state for so long as in their opinion internal disturbances occurring in the Naga Hills-Tuensang Area continue.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 371A empowers the Governor to exercise individual judgment regarding law and order in Nagaland due to internal disturbances. Statement 1 is incorrect because while Article 371A was introduced by the 13th Amendment, the Governor's special responsibility regarding Tuensang district involves 'final responsibility' rather than a general power to override the cabinet on all development matters. Statement 2 is incorrect because the special provision for the Tuensang district was initially intended for a period of ten years, but it was extended by the Governor beyond 1973, and the regional council was not abolished as implied by the statement.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 371G and Mizoram land ownership rights:
1. The administration of civil and criminal justice in Mizoram, involving decisions according to Mizo customary law, is protected under the special provisions of Article 371G.
2. Under Article 371G, the ownership and transfer of land in Mizoram remain subject to the customary laws and procedures traditionally followed by the Mizo people.
3. The Mizoram Peace Accord signed on 30 June 1986 between the Government of India and the Mizo National Front served as the primary basis for the enactment of Article 371G.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Article 371G was inserted by the Constitution (53rd Amendment) Act, 1986, following the historic Mizoram Peace Accord signed on June 30, 1986, to ensure that no Act of Parliament regarding religious or social practices, Mizo customary law, and land ownership applies to Mizoram unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides. This provision grants the Mizo people constitutional protection over their traditional land rights and judicial systems, effectively preserving their unique socio-cultural identity within the Indian federal framework. All three statements are factually accurate as they correctly identify the legal basis, the scope of the customary protections, and the historical origin of this constitutional safeguard.
Consider the following statements regarding Evolution of the concept of cooperative vs asymmetric federalism:
1. Article 371D, inserted by the 32nd Amendment Act of 1973, provides for equitable opportunities in public employment for the residents of the Andhra region.
2. The Sarkaria Commission report submitted in 1988 emphasized that cooperative federalism is essential for the effective functioning of the Indian parliamentary system.
3. Article 371A was incorporated into the Constitution via the 13th Amendment Act of 1962 to address the specific socio-political requirements of Nagaland.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 371D was inserted by the 32nd Amendment Act, 1973, to ensure equitable opportunities in public employment for residents of Andhra Pradesh. Statement 2 is correct because the 1988 Sarkaria Commission report strongly advocated for cooperative federalism, arguing that the Union and States must work in harmony to maintain national integrity. Statement 3 is correct as Article 371A was added via the 13th Amendment Act, 1962, to protect the religious and social practices of Nagaland's tribal communities, reflecting the constitutional design of asymmetric federalism.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric judicial jurisdiction in High Courts:
1. The Bombay High Court maintains jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, following the 2019 merger of the two territories into a single administrative unit.
2. The 1971 North-Eastern Areas Reorganisation Act established the Gauhati High Court as a common court, replacing the previous judicial commissioner system that operated in Manipur and Tripura until 1975.
3. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019 renamed the existing High Court of Jammu and Kashmir to the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, retaining its original seat in Srinagar.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Bombay High Court's jurisdiction over the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu was established via the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019, but the merger itself occurred in 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Gauhati High Court was established as a common court in 1971, but Manipur and Tripura established their own separate High Courts in 2013, not 1975. Statement 3 is incorrect because the High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh is a common court for both UTs, but it functions with two seats-Srinagar and Jammu-rather than being restricted to a single seat in Srinagar.
Consider the following statements regarding Asymmetric legislative powers under Article 249 and 250:
1. Under Article 251, if there is an inconsistency between a law made by Parliament under Articles 249 and 250 and a law made by the legislature of a state, the law made by Parliament prevails to the extent of the repugnancy.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 expanded the scope of central legislative oversight, but the specific procedural requirements for Article 249 remained rooted in the original 1950 text.
3. The power of Parliament to legislate under Article 249 is concurrent, meaning the state legislature retains the authority to enact laws on the same subject, provided they do not conflict with the central law.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 251 explicitly grants supremacy to Parliamentary laws enacted under Articles 249 and 250 over conflicting state laws. Statement 2 is correct because, while the 42nd Amendment significantly altered the Seventh Schedule, the core procedural mechanism for Article 249-requiring a two-thirds majority resolution by the Rajya Sabha-has remained consistent with the original 1950 constitutional framework. Statement 3 is correct because Article 249 does not divest states of their legislative competence; rather, it creates a concurrent field where the central law holds precedence in the event of inconsistency, allowing state legislatures to continue legislating on the same subject matter.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional status of the Delhi National Capital Territory:
1. Article 239AB of the Constitution provides for the administration of the National Capital Territory in the event of a failure of constitutional machinery, allowing the President to dissolve the Legislative Assembly following a recommendation from the Supreme Court.
2. The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 inserted Article 239AA, which designated the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory.
3. The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991, establishes the Lieutenant Governor as the constitutional head of the territory, who functions in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers on all matters including police and public order.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the 69th Amendment Act, 1991, inserted Article 239AA, granting Delhi special status as the National Capital Territory. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 239AB empowers the President to suspend the constitutional provisions on the report of the Lieutenant Governor, not the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Lieutenant Governor is not bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers on matters of 'Public Order', 'Police', and 'Land', which remain under the jurisdiction of the Central Government.
Consider the following statements regarding Differential applicability of Central laws in tribal areas:
1. The Governor of a state with Scheduled Areas is empowered under the Fifth Schedule to direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the State Legislature shall not apply to a Scheduled Area.
2. The Fifth Schedule allows the President to declare any area as a Scheduled Area, and under the 1996 PESA Act, the Gram Sabha possesses the authority to veto any Central law passed by Parliament.
3. Under Article 371A, no Act of Parliament relating to the religious or social practices of the Nagas applies to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland so decides.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Fifth Schedule empowers the Governor to restrict or modify the application of any Act of Parliament or State Legislature in Scheduled Areas. Statement 3 is correct because Article 371A provides special protection to Nagaland, ensuring that Acts of Parliament concerning Naga religious/social practices, customary law, or land ownership require the concurrence of the State Legislative Assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the PESA Act of 1996 empowers the Gram Sabha to safeguard tribal traditions and manage local resources, it does not grant the Gram Sabha the constitutional authority to veto or override laws passed by the Parliament of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Differential representation in the Rajya Sabha:
1. The Rajya Sabha representation for the state of Nagaland was formalised through the 13th Amendment Act, 1962, which granted the state two seats to ensure parity with the neighboring state of Manipur.
2. The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956, introduced a uniform formula for Rajya Sabha seat distribution based on the 1951 census, which remains the primary basis for seat adjustments in the current legislative cycle.
3. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, established the current parity in Rajya Sabha representation for all Union Territories, granting each territory an equal share of two seats in the upper house.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 13th Amendment Act, 1962, provided Nagaland with one Rajya Sabha seat, not two. Statement 2 is incorrect because Rajya Sabha seat allocation is based on the 1971 census, not the 1951 census, as per the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Statement 3 is incorrect because not all Union Territories have equal representation; for instance, Delhi and Puducherry have three and one seat respectively, while others like Ladakh have none.