Consider the following statements regarding ECI's role in the conduct of Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections:
1. The electoral college for the Presidential election includes elected members of both Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of States, with the Election Commission overseeing the counting process at the state capitals.
2. Disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India as per Article 71 of the Constitution.
3. Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the counting of votes for the Presidential election takes place at the Parliament House in New Delhi under the supervision of the Returning Officer, not at state capitals. Statement 2 is correct as Article 71 explicitly mandates that all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of the President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court. Statement 3 is correct because Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Election symbols and the Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order:
1. Paragraph 15 of the 1968 Order empowers the Election Commission to decide disputes between rival factions of a recognized political party regarding the claim to the party symbol.
2. A political party is recognized as a National Party if it secures at least 6% of the valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly.
3. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order was promulgated by the Election Commission of India in 1968 to provide for the specification, reservation, and allotment of symbols.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Paragraph 15 of the 1968 Order grants the Election Commission (ECI) quasi-judicial power to resolve intra-party disputes by recognizing a specific faction as the legitimate party, while the ECI derives its authority to issue the 1968 Order under Article 324 of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct as per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, which mandates that a party must secure at least 6% of valid votes in four or more states plus four Lok Sabha seats to be recognized as a National Party. Statement 3 is accurate because the ECI promulgated this Order in 1968 to formalize the legal framework for symbol allotment, ensuring orderly conduct of elections.
Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission and the role of ECI:
1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 suspended the delimitation exercise until the year 2000, and it transferred the authority for conducting this process to the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. The Delimitation Commission is assisted by ten associate members, comprising five members of the Lok Sabha and five members of the Legislative Assembly of the concerned state.
3. The Delimitation Commission Act of 2002 was enacted following the 84th Constitutional Amendment, which froze the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha until the first census after 2026.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 42nd Amendment froze delimitation until 2000, the authority to conduct the exercise remains with the Delimitation Commission, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Statement 2 is correct as the Commission functions with ten associate members-five MPs and five MLAs-nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Speaker of the respective Legislative Assembly. Statement 3 is correct because the 84th Amendment Act (2001) extended the freeze on seat reallocation until the first census after 2026, leading to the enactment of the Delimitation Commission Act, 2002.
Consider the following statements regarding Use of technology in electoral management and cybersecurity:
1. The National Voters' Service Portal (NVSP) serves as the primary interface for electoral roll management and includes the 'Know Your Candidate' feature introduced under the 2014 IT Act amendments.
2. The ECI's 'Saksham' app provides accessibility features for persons with disabilities, incorporating GPS-based polling station location services developed in collaboration with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
3. The 'Encore' software suite is utilized by returning officers for candidate nomination processing and result tabulation, a system that replaced the manual data entry protocols used until the 2019 general elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 'Know Your Candidate' (KYC) app is a distinct ECI initiative, not a feature of NVSP under the 2014 IT Act. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 'Saksham' app is designed specifically for PwD voters to request services like wheelchairs or pick-up facilities, and its development was an internal ECI effort rather than a collaboration with MeitY. Statement 3 is incorrect because while 'ENCORE' is used for nomination and result management, it was introduced in 2019, meaning it did not replace manual protocols used 'until' the 2019 elections, but rather debuted during that cycle.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisdiction of ECI in disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures:
1. Under Article 103 of the Constitution, the President of India seeks the opinion of the Election Commission before deciding on the disqualification of a Member of Parliament on grounds of office of profit.
2. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the disqualification of members on grounds of defection, and the Election Commission holds the final appellate authority to review the decisions made by the Speaker.
3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, empowers the Election Commission to remove or reduce the period of disqualification incurred by a person under Section 8A for corrupt practices.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 103 mandates the President to obtain the Election Commission's (ECI) opinion and act accordingly when deciding on the disqualification of an MP. Statement 3 is correct because Section 11 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, empowers the ECI to remove or reduce the period of disqualification incurred under Section 8A. Statement 2 is incorrect because, under the Tenth Schedule, the power to decide on disqualification rests solely with the Speaker or Chairman of the House, and the ECI has no role in this process, with the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) affirming the Speaker's decision is subject to judicial review, not ECI review.
Consider the following statements regarding Election funding and Electoral Bonds scheme:
1. The Supreme Court of India in its February 2024 judgment declared the Electoral Bonds Scheme unconstitutional for violating the right to information under Article 19(1)(a).
2. The Income Tax Act provides tax exemptions for political parties, and the law considers electoral bonds as a form of foreign contribution under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act.
3. The electoral bonds were issued in denominations ranging from one thousand to one crore rupees, and the bonds remained valid for a period of thirty days from the date of issuance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court's February 2024 verdict struck down the scheme for violating the fundamental right to information under Article 19(1)(a). Statement 2 is incorrect because the Finance Act, 2017 amended the FCRA to exempt political parties from disclosing foreign funding received through electoral bonds, rather than classifying them as foreign contributions. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the denominations were correct, the validity period of electoral bonds was only fifteen days, not thirty.
Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) protocols:
1. The VVPAT slip remains visible to the voter for a duration of ten seconds behind a glass window before being cut and dropped into the sealed drop box of the printer.
2. The Electronic Voting Machine was designed by the Election Commission of India in collaboration with the Indian Statistical Institute and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
3. The Election Commission of India introduced the first batch of M1 model machines in the 1999 Lok Sabha elections across the entire state of Goa to ensure complete digital coverage.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the VVPAT slip is visible for seven seconds, not ten. Statement 2 is incorrect as EVMs were designed by the Election Commission in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) and Electronics Corporation of India Ltd (ECIL), not the Indian Statistical Institute. Statement 3 is incorrect because while EVMs were first used in the 1999 Goa assembly elections, they were deployed in only 45 constituencies, not the entire state, and the M1 model was introduced earlier in the 1998 assembly elections in selected constituencies of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Delhi.
Consider the following statements regarding Independence and security of tenure of Election Commissioners:
1. The Supreme Court of India in the Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) judgment directed that the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners shall be made by the President on the advice of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, provides that the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years from the date on which they assume charge.
3. Article 324(5) of the Constitution provides that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court's 2023 judgment mandated a selection committee including the CJI to ensure independence, though the 2023 Act later replaced the CJI with a Cabinet Minister. Statement 2 is correct as per Section 4 of the 1991 Act, which stipulates a six-year tenure or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. Statement 3 is correct because Article 324(5) grants the CEC security of tenure equivalent to a Supreme Court judge, while other Election Commissioners can only be removed upon the recommendation of the CEC.
Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission and the role of ECI:
1. The Delimitation Commission is constituted by the President of India under the provisions of the Delimitation Act, 2002.
2. The Delimitation Commission Act of 1952 was the first legislation to formalize the process, and it established the principle that delimitation orders are subject to parliamentary approval before implementation.
3. The Delimitation Commission is established under Article 82 of the Constitution, which provides for the readjustment of seats after each census by an authority determined by the Supreme Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President under the Delimitation Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the 1952 Act was the first, delimitation orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court, nor do they require parliamentary approval. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 82 mandates that the authority for readjustment is determined by Parliament through law, not by the Supreme Court.
Consider the following statements regarding Independence and security of tenure of Election Commissioners:
1. The Election Commission of India was established on 25 January 1950, and the first Chief Election Commissioner Sukumar Sen was granted the constitutional power to appoint his own deputies without consultation with the Union Ministry of Law.
2. Article 324(4) of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint Regional Commissioners to assist the Election Commission, and these officials enjoy the same security of tenure as the Election Commissioners under the 1991 Act.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, replaces the 1991 Act and provides that the Election Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the CEC has no constitutional power to appoint deputies independently; appointments are made by the President. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Article 324(4) allows for Regional Commissioners, their conditions of service are determined by the President, not the 1991 Act, and they do not share the same security of tenure as Election Commissioners. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2023 Act maintains that the CEC and Election Commissioners can only be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, not on the recommendation of the CEC.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of political parties and registration process:
1. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order was promulgated in 1968, and it grants the Chief Election Commissioner the power to merge two registered political parties into a single entity.
2. An applicant party seeking registration is expected to submit its memorandum or rules and regulations to the Election Commission within 30 days following its formation.
3. The Model Code of Conduct, which was first implemented during the 1960 Kerala Legislative Assembly elections, serves as the primary legal framework for the de-registration of political parties.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because, under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a political party must apply for registration to the Election Commission within 30 days of its formation. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Election Symbols Order, 1968, empowers the Commission to recognize parties and allot symbols, but it does not grant the authority to merge political parties. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines for ethical behavior during elections and lacks statutory backing for de-registration, which is a power the Election Commission currently lacks under existing laws.
Consider the following statements regarding Powers of the Election Commission in model code of conduct enforcement:
1. The Election Commission established the 'Expenditure Monitoring Division' in 2004, which functions as the primary body for adjudicating disputes arising from the implementation of the Model Code of Conduct in parliamentary constituencies.
2. The Supreme Court in the 1994 Bommai judgment affirmed that the Election Commission possesses the authority to recommend the dissolution of a state legislative assembly if the ruling party persists in violating the Model Code of Conduct.
3. The Election Commission utilizes the powers granted under the 1968 Election Symbols Order to freeze the symbols of political parties that violate the Model Code of Conduct during the period between the announcement of polls and the declaration of results.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Expenditure Monitoring Division was established in 2010, not 2004, and it monitors election expenses rather than adjudicating MCC disputes. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 1994 S.R. Bommai case concerned the misuse of Article 356 regarding the dissolution of state assemblies, not the Election Commission's authority to recommend such action for MCC violations. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1968 Election Symbols Order governs the recognition of parties and allocation of symbols in cases of internal party splits, not as a punitive measure for MCC violations.
Consider the following statements regarding Expenditure monitoring and limits for candidates and parties:
1. The Election Commission utilizes the 'Shadow Observation Register' to track daily campaign spending, and this document is maintained by the Returning Officer to facilitate the cross-verification of the candidate's final expenditure report.
2. Corporate donations to political parties are governed by the Companies Act, 2013, which allows a company to contribute up to 10 percent of its average net profits from the preceding three financial years.
3. The limit on election expenditure for candidates in Assembly elections was last adjusted in 2020, following recommendations from the Law Commission report on electoral reforms regarding the impact of inflation on campaign costs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 'Shadow Observation Register' is maintained by the Expenditure Observer, not the Returning Officer. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 182 of the Companies Act, 2013, allows companies to contribute up to 7.5 percent (not 10 percent) of their average net profits of the preceding three financial years. Statement 3 is incorrect because the expenditure limits for candidates were last revised by the Election Commission in 2022, not 2020, following the recommendations of a committee constituted to assess the impact of inflation and the number of electors.
Consider the following statements regarding Powers of the Election Commission in model code of conduct enforcement:
1. The Model Code of Conduct was first introduced by the Election Commission during the 1960 assembly elections in Kerala to regulate the conduct of political parties.
2. The Supreme Court of India observed in the 2001 S. Subramaniam Balaji v. State of Tamil Nadu case that the Election Commission has the power to issue guidelines under the Model Code of Conduct to ensure a level playing field.
3. Article 324 of the Constitution provides the Election Commission with the authority to superintend, direct, and control elections, which serves as the legal basis for enforcing the Model Code of Conduct.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the ECI first evolved the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) during the 1960 Kerala Assembly elections to ensure fair campaigning. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji v. State of Tamil Nadu (2013) upheld the ECI's authority to issue guidelines under the MCC to maintain a level playing field, despite the MCC lacking statutory backing. Statement 3 is correct as Article 324 grants the ECI plenary powers of superintendence, direction, and control, which serves as the constitutional foundation for enforcing the MCC.
Consider the following statements regarding Election symbols and the Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order:
1. The Election Commission of India introduced the concept of 'common symbols' for registered unrecognized political parties to facilitate their campaigning during general elections.
2. The Supreme Court of India in the Sadiq Ali v. Election Commission of India case (1972) upheld the constitutional validity of the Election Commission's power to decide symbol disputes.
3. The Election Commission of India utilizes the 1968 Symbols Order to regulate the internal organizational elections of political parties and provides for the mandatory audit of party funds before the allotment of reserved symbols.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the ECI provides 'common symbols' to registered unrecognized parties to ensure a level playing field during elections. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Sadiq Ali v. ECI (1972) affirmed the Commission's authority under Paragraph 15 of the 1968 Order to adjudicate symbol disputes between rival factions of a party. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1968 Symbols Order governs the recognition and allotment of symbols, but it does not mandate the ECI to regulate internal party elections or conduct audits of party funds, which are governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements regarding Use of technology in electoral management and cybersecurity:
1. The ECI's 'Booth App' facilitates digital identification of voters at polling stations, utilizing encrypted QR codes generated during the 2017 electoral photo identity card digitization drive.
2. The ECI established the 'Election Commission of India Cybersecurity Framework' in 2021, which outlines the protocols for securing the M2 voting machines against potential remote access vulnerabilities.
3. The 'Suvidha' portal manages the approval process for political rallies and campaign events, integrating real-time feedback from the district magistrate's office as established by the 2015 Digital India initiative.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect. The 'Booth App' uses QR codes from the electoral roll database, not a 2017 digitization drive; EVMs are standalone machines that are physically incapable of remote access, rendering a cybersecurity framework for 'remote access' non-existent; and while the 'Suvidha' portal manages campaign permissions, it is an ECI-developed platform rather than a product of the 2015 Digital India initiative.
Consider the following statements regarding Independence and security of tenure of Election Commissioners:
1. Under the provisions of the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, the salary and other conditions of service of the Election Commissioners are equivalent to those of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. The Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, specifies that the Chief Election Commissioner is eligible for reappointment for a second term of three years upon the completion of the initial six-year tenure.
3. The proviso to Article 324(5) states that the condition of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1991 Act mandates that Election Commissioners receive salaries and perks equivalent to a Supreme Court Judge. Statement 3 is correct because Article 324(5) explicitly provides constitutional protection ensuring that the service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner cannot be varied to their disadvantage after appointment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1991 Act does not contain any provision for the reappointment of the Chief Election Commissioner; they serve a single fixed term of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission and the role of ECI:
1. The Delimitation Commission is empowered to alter the boundaries of parliamentary constituencies, and its final notifications are subject to review by the Election Commission of India within ninety days.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by the Chief Election Commissioner serves as an ex-officio member of the Delimitation Commission.
3. Orders issued by the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court of law.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Delimitation Commission's orders have the force of law upon publication in the Gazette of India and are not subject to review by the ECI. Statement 2 is correct as the Delimitation Commission Act, 2002 mandates that the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by them serves as an ex-officio member. Statement 3 is correct because Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution explicitly state that the orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in any court of law.
Consider the following statements regarding Compulsory voting and the legal status of NOTA:
1. In the 2014 Lok Sabha elections, NOTA was implemented nationwide for the first time, allowing voters to express their dissatisfaction with the available candidates.
2. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, includes provisions for compulsory voting in local body elections, and several states have adopted this framework since the 2014 legislative amendments.
3. The Election Commission of India maintains a policy where a constituency records a re-election if the NOTA count exceeds the total number of votes secured by the winning candidate in a state assembly poll.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the Supreme Court's 2013 PUCL judgment mandated the introduction of NOTA, which was first implemented nationwide in the 2014 Lok Sabha elections. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Representation of the People Act, 1951, does not mandate compulsory voting; while some states like Gujarat have enacted laws for compulsory voting in local body elections, it is not a central provision under the 1951 Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under current ECI rules, NOTA is treated as a 'neutral' vote and has no legal impact on the election outcome; even if NOTA receives the highest number of votes, the candidate with the next highest number of valid votes is declared the winner.
Consider the following statements regarding Superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls:
1. The Chief Electoral Officer of a State is appointed by the Election Commission of India in consultation with the State Government to supervise the election work in the state.
2. The Election Commission of India utilizes the Delimitation Commission Act of 1952 to finalize the geographical boundaries of polling stations during the annual summary revision of electoral rolls.
3. The Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, permits the inclusion of names in the electoral roll of a constituency if the person is a resident of the district for at least 180 days during the qualifying period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Chief Electoral Officer is appointed by the ECI under Section 13A of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, in consultation with the State Government. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ECI determines polling station boundaries under Section 25 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, defines ordinary residence based on the 'qualifying date' (January 1st of the year) and does not mandate a 180-day residency requirement for inclusion in the electoral roll.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of ECI in ensuring free and fair elections under Article 324:
1. The Model Code of Conduct is a statutory document issued by the ECI under the authority of Article 324, which carries legal penalties for any candidate violating its provisions during the campaign period.
2. The President of India appoints the Election Commissioners based on the recommendations of a committee chaired by the Chief Justice of India, as per the 2023 amendment to the Election Commission Act.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of impeachment similar to that of a Supreme Court Judge, as provided under Article 324(5).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because Article 324(5) grants the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) security of tenure, requiring removal through a parliamentary process identical to that of a Supreme Court judge. Statement 1 is incorrect as the Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines evolved by consensus among political parties and lacks direct statutory backing, meaning violations are addressed through executive action rather than specific legal penalties. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, replaced the Chief Justice of India with a Union Cabinet Minister in the selection committee.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal framework for the Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners:
1. The search committee for the selection of Election Commissioners is headed by the Union Cabinet Secretary.
2. Under the 2023 Act, the selection committee for the Election Commissioners is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act was enacted by the Parliament in December 2023.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, enacted in December 2023, establishes a selection committee chaired by the Prime Minister, along with the Leader of the Opposition and a Union Cabinet Minister. The Act mandates a search committee, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, to prepare a panel of five candidates for the selection committee's consideration. All three statements are factually accurate under the provisions of this new legislative framework.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional provisions under Article 324:
1. Following the Election Commissioner Amendment Act of 1989, the Election Commission transitioned from a single-member body to a multi-member body, a structure that was subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court.
2. The first Chief Election Commissioner of India, Sukumar Sen, oversaw the inaugural general elections held between October 1951 and February 1952 under the constitutional framework established by Article 324.
3. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament and the State Legislatures in an Election Commission consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may fix from time to time.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Election Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989, introduced a multi-member structure, which was upheld by the Supreme Court in the T.N. Seshan case. Statement 2 is correct because Sukumar Sen served as the first CEC and successfully conducted India's first general elections between 1951 and 1952. Statement 3 is correct as it accurately reflects the constitutional mandate of Article 324, which empowers the President to determine the number of Election Commissioners, ensuring the Commission's authority over parliamentary and state legislative elections.
Consider the following statements regarding Election funding and Electoral Bonds scheme:
1. The Representation of the People Act of 1951 governs political party registration, and it includes a provision that allows parties to receive anonymous cash donations up to fifty thousand rupees.
2. The Electoral Bond Scheme was notified by the Ministry of Finance on January 2, 2018, under the Finance Act of 2017.
3. The State Bank of India acted as the authorized issuer for electoral bonds, and the scheme permitted the purchase of bonds by non-resident Indians holding an NRE account.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Electoral Bond Scheme was indeed notified by the Ministry of Finance on January 2, 2018, via the Finance Act of 2017. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, mandates that political parties must report contributions exceeding twenty thousand rupees, not fifty thousand. Statement 3 is incorrect because the scheme explicitly restricted the purchase of electoral bonds to citizens of India or bodies incorporated in India, thereby excluding non-resident Indians.
Consider the following statements regarding Conduct of by-elections and the six-month rule:
1. Under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is responsible for notifying the Election Commission of a vacancy within 30 days, which triggers the six-month period for conducting the by-election.
2. The 1996 amendment to the Representation of the People Act introduced the six-month timeline for by-elections to ensure that constituencies do not remain unrepresented for extended durations.
3. In the case of the Election Commission of India vs. Ashok Kumar (2000), the Supreme Court held that the process of conducting elections falls under the purview of judicial review only after the completion of the election process.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because, under Section 147 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the responsibility to notify a vacancy lies with the Election Commission, not the Speaker. Statement 2 is correct as the 1996 amendment introduced Section 151A, mandating that by-elections must be held within six months of a vacancy, provided the remainder of the term is at least one year. Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court in ECI vs. Ashok Kumar (2000) ruled that judicial intervention under Article 329(b) is barred once the election process has commenced, ensuring the process is not interrupted until its conclusion.
Consider the following statements regarding Superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls:
1. Article 325 of the Constitution provides for the inclusion of any person in the electoral roll based on their religious affiliation, provided they have attained the age of 21 years by the first day of January.
2. The Model Code of Conduct, introduced in 1968, provides for the suspension of the electoral roll revision process once the President issues a notification for the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. The Electoral Registration Officer is empowered by the Representation of the People Act, 1951, to delete the name of any person from the electoral roll if they fail to cast a vote in two consecutive general elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 325 prohibits discrimination in electoral rolls based on religion, race, caste, or sex, and the voting age is 18, not 21. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Model Code of Conduct does not mandate the suspension of electoral roll revision upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha; such processes are governed by the Election Commission's administrative guidelines. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Representation of the People Act, 1950, does not authorize the deletion of names from electoral rolls solely for failing to cast a vote, as voting is a right, not a mandatory duty.
Consider the following statements regarding Expenditure monitoring and limits for candidates and parties:
1. The Election Commission of India revised the maximum expenditure limit for candidates contesting Lok Sabha elections to âš95 lakh for larger states and âš75 lakh for smaller states in January 2022.
2. The Election Commission introduced the Expenditure Observer system in 1996, which functions under the direct administrative control of the Union Ministry of Finance to monitor cash flow during poll periods.
3. Section 77 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides for the inclusion of travel expenses incurred by star campaigners in the individual candidate's account if the campaigner belongs to a registered unrecognized political party.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the ECI revised expenditure limits in January 2022 to âš95 lakh and âš75 lakh for Lok Sabha constituencies based on state size. Statement 2 is incorrect because Expenditure Observers are officers of the ECI, not the Ministry of Finance, and they operate under the Commission's superintendence. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 77 of the RPA 1951, travel expenses of star campaigners are exempted from being added to a candidate's individual election expenditure account, regardless of whether the party is recognized or unrecognized, provided they follow specific regulatory guidelines.
Consider the following statements regarding Powers of the Election Commission in model code of conduct enforcement:
1. The 1991 amendment to the Representation of the People Act incorporated the Model Code of Conduct into the statutory framework, granting the Election Commission the power to impose criminal penalties for its breach.
2. The Election Commission derives its power to disqualify candidates for Model Code of Conduct violations directly from Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which defines corrupt practices in electoral processes.
3. The Election Commission issued the 'Handbook for Candidates' in 1979, which provides the legal mechanism for the Commission to derecognize a political party for failing to adhere to the Model Code of Conduct during by-elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines evolved by consensus among political parties and lacks statutory backing, meaning the Election Commission (EC) cannot impose criminal penalties or disqualify candidates solely for its breach. Statement 1 is false as the MCC remains non-statutory; Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 123 of the RP Act, 1951, deals with 'corrupt practices' which are adjudicated by courts, not the EC; and Statement 3 is false because the EC has no legal authority to derecognize a political party for violating the MCC, as recognition is governed by the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
Consider the following statements regarding Compulsory voting and the legal status of NOTA:
1. The Election Commission of India clarified in 2015 that NOTA votes are counted as valid votes but do not lead to the disqualification of candidates who secure the highest number of votes.
2. The 2013 Supreme Court directive on NOTA refers to the constitutional amendment of Article 326, which provides for the secrecy of the ballot and the right to reject all candidates in parliamentary elections.
3. The Supreme Court observed in its 2013 ruling that the right to cast a negative vote serves as a mechanism to encourage voter participation in the democratic process.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the ECI clarified in 2015 that NOTA is treated as a 'rejected ballot' and does not invalidate the election of the candidate with the highest votes. Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court in PUCL v. Union of India (2013) held that NOTA empowers voters and promotes purity in the electoral process by encouraging participation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2013 judgment was based on Article 19(1)(a) regarding freedom of speech and expression, not a constitutional amendment of Article 326, which pertains to universal adult suffrage.
Consider the following statements regarding Compulsory voting and the legal status of NOTA:
1. Section 49-O of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, previously allowed a voter to record their refusal to vote by signing a register at the polling station.
2. The Supreme Court of India in the People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2013) judgment directed the Election Commission to provide the NOTA option on EVMs.
3. The Election Commission of India introduced the NOTA symbol, designed by the National Institute of Design, for use in general elections starting from 2013.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 49-O allowed voters to record their dissent in Form 17A, though it compromised voter secrecy. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court's 2013 PUCL judgment mandated the NOTA option to uphold the right to negative voting as part of the freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a). Statement 3 is correct as the ECI implemented the NOTA button on EVMs in 2013, featuring a specific symbol created by the National Institute of Design to ensure clarity for voters.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal framework for the Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners:
1. The process for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner remains governed by the procedure specified in Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
2. The 2023 Act provides that the Election Commission of India shall function as a multi-member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and two other Election Commissioners.
3. The search committee is tasked with preparing a panel of five persons for consideration by the selection committee for the appointment of Election Commissioners.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because Article 324(5) mandates that the CEC can only be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct as the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, formalizes the ECI as a three-member body. Statement 3 is correct because the 2023 Act specifies that a Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary shall prepare a panel of five persons for the Selection Committee's consideration.
Consider the following statements regarding Administrative powers of ECI regarding the deployment of security forces:
1. The Election Commission maintains a coordination committee with the Ministry of Home Affairs to assess the threat perception and determine the deployment of Central Armed Police Forces across various phases.
2. Under the Model Code of Conduct, the Election Commission possesses the authority to transfer police officers who have completed three years in a district to ensure the impartiality of security deployment.
3. The deployment of observers for monitoring the security arrangements during the 2024 Lok Sabha elections was facilitated through the ECI's integrated 'Observer Portal' for real-time reporting.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the ECI coordinates with the MHA via the 'Force Deployment Committee' to assess threat levels and manage the logistical movement of CAPFs across election phases. Statement 2 is correct because the ECI's transfer policy mandates that officers connected with election work who have completed three years in a district or their home district must be transferred to prevent political bias. Statement 3 is correct as the ECI utilized the 'Observer Portal' during the 2024 Lok Sabha elections to enable real-time reporting and monitoring by General, Police, and Expenditure observers to ensure the integrity of the electoral process.
Consider the following statements regarding Conduct of by-elections and the six-month rule:
1. Article 164(4) of the Constitution of India provides that a Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.
2. Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides for the filling of casual vacancies in the Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures within a period of six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.
3. The Election Commission of India is empowered to defer the holding of a by-election if the remainder of the term of the member whose vacancy is to be filled is less than one year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 164(4) mandates that a non-legislator Minister must secure a seat within six months to retain their office. Statement 2 is correct because Section 151A of the RPA, 1951, mandates that the Election Commission must fill casual vacancies in Parliament or State Legislatures within six months from the date of occurrence. Statement 3 is correct as the proviso to Section 151A allows the ECI to not hold a by-election if the remainder of the term of the member is less than one year, provided the ECI consults with the Central Government.
Consider the following statements regarding Expenditure monitoring and limits for candidates and parties:
1. Political parties are permitted to receive anonymous contributions up to âš20,000 under the Electoral Bond Scheme, which was notified by the government in 2018 to ensure transparency in funding.
2. The Supreme Court in the 2014 Ashok Shankarrao Chavan case held that the Election Commission possesses the power to disqualify a candidate for submitting an incorrect account of expenses even after the election process concludes.
3. Under Rule 89 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, a candidate is permitted to file an account of election expenses with the District Election Officer within 30 days of the declaration of the result.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Rule 89 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, mandates candidates to lodge their account of election expenses within 30 days of the declaration of results. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Electoral Bond Scheme allowed for anonymous donations of any amount, not limited to âš20,000, and was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect because, in the Ashok Shankarrao Chavan case (2014), the Supreme Court clarified that the Election Commission lacks the power to disqualify a candidate for filing incorrect accounts; such authority rests with the courts under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements regarding Use of technology in electoral management and cybersecurity:
1. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was first deployed on a pilot basis during the 2013 Nagaland legislative assembly elections, utilizing the M3 model of electronic voting machines.
2. The ECI introduced the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) in 2016 to facilitate the exercise of franchise by service voters stationed outside their home constituencies.
3. The ECI's 'cVIGIL' mobile application allows citizens to report model code of conduct violations, with a guaranteed resolution timeframe of 60 minutes as per the 2018 operational guidelines.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the ETPBS was introduced in 2016 to enable service voters to cast their votes electronically. Statement 1 is incorrect because while VVPAT was first used in the 2013 Noksen (Nagaland) by-election, it was not linked to the M3 model, which was introduced much later in 2018. Statement 3 is incorrect because the cVIGIL app guarantees a resolution timeframe of 100 minutes, not 60 minutes, for reported violations of the Model Code of Conduct.
Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) protocols:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 was amended in 1989 to insert Section 61A, which provides the legal framework for the use of voting machines in elections.
2. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail system was first introduced on a trial basis in the 2013 Noksen assembly constituency by-election in Nagaland.
3. The first pilot project for the use of Electronic Voting Machines occurred during the 1982 legislative assembly election in the Paravur constituency of Kerala.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Section 61A was indeed inserted into the Representation of the People Act, 1951 via a 1989 amendment to facilitate EVM usage. The VVPAT system was first deployed on a trial basis in the 2013 Noksen (Nagaland) by-election, while the inaugural pilot project for EVMs was conducted in 50 polling stations of the Paravur constituency in Kerala during the 1982 legislative assembly elections.
Consider the following statements regarding ECI's role in the conduct of Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections:
1. Under the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974, the nomination paper of a candidate for the office of President is subscribed by at least fifty electors as proposers and fifty as seconders, with the security deposit held by the High Court.
2. The notification for the Presidential election is issued by the Election Commission on the recommendation of the Central Government, as specified under Section 4 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.
3. The Election Commission determines the value of the vote of each Member of Parliament for the Presidential election based on the 1971 census data, while the value of a Member of Legislative Assembly vote is calculated by the respective State Governor.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the Election Commission issues the notification for the Presidential election as per Section 4 of the 1952 Act. Statement 1 is incorrect because the security deposit is held by the Reserve Bank of India or a Government Treasury, not the High Court. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Election Commission calculates the value of both MP and MLA votes based on the 1971 census, and the Governor has no role in this mathematical determination.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional provisions under Article 324:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner possesses the authority to adjudicate election petitions regarding parliamentary disputes, a power granted by the Representation of the People Act of 1951 under the authority of Article 324.
2. The Election Commission functions as a constitutional body with the power to appoint its own staff, and the administrative expenses of the Commission are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the States as per Article 324(6).
3. The Election Commission is empowered to prepare electoral rolls for local government bodies, and the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act integrated these powers directly into the Article 324 framework in 1992.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because election petitions regarding parliamentary disputes are adjudicated by the High Courts, not the Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect as the administrative expenses of the Election Commission are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, not the States, and the President determines the staff requirements in consultation with the Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 324 does not cover local government bodies; instead, the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts established separate State Election Commissions to oversee elections for Panchayats and Municipalities.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal framework for the Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners:
1. The selection committee includes the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha or the leader of the single largest opposition party as a member.
2. The 2023 Act specifies that the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
3. The salary, allowances, and other conditions of service of the Election Commissioners are equivalent to those of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, mandates a selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition or leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct as the 2023 Act retains the tenure of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier, as previously established by the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991. Statement 3 is correct because the 2023 Act explicitly maintains the provision that the salary, allowances, and service conditions of the Election Commissioners shall be equivalent to those of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisdiction of ECI in disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures:
1. For disqualification of a member of a State Legislature on grounds other than the Tenth Schedule, the Governor of the State acts according to the opinion of the Election Commission as per Article 192.
2. Article 102 of the Constitution outlines the grounds for disqualification of members, and the Election Commission maintains the power to directly disqualify a sitting Member of Parliament for criminal convictions.
3. The Supreme Court in the 1975 Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain case affirmed that the Election Commission serves as an advisory body to the President regarding the disqualification of sitting legislators.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct under Article 192, which mandates that the Governor must obtain and act according to the ECI's opinion when deciding on disqualification for grounds other than the Tenth Schedule. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court has consistently held that the ECI acts as an advisory body to the President or Governor in such matters. Statement 2 is incorrect because, under Article 103, the ECI only provides an advisory opinion to the President, and it lacks the independent power to directly disqualify a sitting Member of Parliament for criminal convictions, which is instead triggered by the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisdiction of ECI in disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures:
1. The Election Commission holds the authority to disqualify a candidate for a period of up to three years if they fail to submit their election expenditure account within the time prescribed by law.
2. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, includes provisions for the disqualification of members, and the Election Commission serves as the primary tribunal for adjudicating disputes regarding the disqualification of legislators under the anti-defection law.
3. Section 11 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides the Election Commission the authority to grant relief to individuals disqualified for failure to lodge an account of election expenses.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 10A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, empowers the ECI to disqualify a person for up to three years for failing to lodge an account of election expenses. Statement 3 is correct because Section 11 of the same Act grants the ECI the power to remove or reduce the period of such disqualification. Statement 2 is incorrect because, under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, the power to adjudicate disqualifications arising from the anti-defection law rests solely with the Speaker or Chairman of the respective House, not the Election Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding ECI's role in the conduct of Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections:
1. The Returning Officer for the Presidential election is appointed by the Election Commission in consultation with the Central Government, typically being the Secretary-General of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
2. The Vice-Presidential election is conducted by the Election Commission, and the final result is declared by the Chief Election Commissioner in the presence of the Prime Minister.
3. The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the President under the provisions of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Returning Officer for Presidential elections is appointed by the ECI in consultation with the Central Government, typically rotating between the Secretary-Generals of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is correct because the ECI derives its authority to conduct these elections from the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, and Article 324 of the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the ECI conducts the Vice-Presidential election, the result is declared by the Returning Officer, and there is no constitutional or statutory requirement for the Prime Minister to be present during the declaration.
Consider the following statements regarding Adjudication of disputes between political parties:
1. In the Sadiq Ali v. Election Commission of India (1972) case, the Supreme Court upheld the Commission's power to recognize a faction as the official party based on the test of majority in the organizational and legislative wings.
2. Paragraph 15 of the 1968 Order empowers the Election Commission to decide disputes between rival factions of a recognized political party by taking into account all available facts and circumstances.
3. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order was promulgated by the Election Commission of India in 1968 to provide for the specification, reservation, choice, and allotment of symbols.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the Supreme Court in Sadiq Ali (1972) affirmed the ECI's authority to use the 'test of majority' to resolve factional disputes, which is codified under Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. This Order was indeed promulgated by the ECI in 1968 using its powers under Article 324 to regulate the recognition of political parties and the allotment of symbols to ensure fair electoral processes.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of ECI in ensuring free and fair elections under Article 324:
1. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years, an administrative change implemented by the ECI through the Delimitation Commission of 1989.
2. Under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the ECI maintains the power to register political parties and allot them symbols for contesting elections.
3. The Election Commission of India was established on 25 January 1950, a date now commemorated annually as National Voters' Day to encourage democratic participation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 61st Amendment lowered the voting age, it was implemented through an amendment to Article 326 and the Representation of the People Act, not by the Delimitation Commission. Statement 2 is correct as Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, empowers the ECI to register political parties, and the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, governs symbol allocation. Statement 3 is correct because the ECI was established on 25 January 1950, and the government designated this date as National Voters' Day in 2011 to promote electoral literacy.
Consider the following statements regarding Conduct of by-elections and the six-month rule:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, governs the procedure for filling casual vacancies in the Lok Sabha, and the six-month rule for by-elections is derived from the Delimitation Commission Act of 2002.
2. The Election Commission of India follows the guidelines established by the 1951 Act to conduct by-elections, and these provisions extend to the election of the President and Vice-President of India within the same six-month window.
3. Article 75(5) of the Constitution allows a person to serve as a Union Minister without being a member of either House of Parliament for a duration of twelve months, provided the Election Commission certifies the unavailability of a suitable constituency.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because casual vacancies in Parliament are governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not 1950, and the six-month rule is a constitutional mandate under Article 151A. Statement 2 is false as the six-month rule for by-elections does not apply to the President or Vice-President, whose elections are governed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 75(5) limits the tenure of a non-member minister to only six months, and the Election Commission has no constitutional authority to extend this period based on constituency unavailability.
Consider the following statements regarding Election funding and Electoral Bonds scheme:
1. The Election Commission of India maintains a public database of electoral bond donors, and this information is updated on the official portal every quarter for transparency.
2. Corporate entities are permitted to contribute to political parties through electoral bonds, and the 2017 amendment removed the cap on the percentage of profits a company can donate.
3. The Finance Act of 2017 introduced amendments to the Reserve Bank of India Act, which granted the central bank the power to issue electoral bonds directly to registered political entities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Electoral Bonds Scheme ensured donor anonymity, and the ECI did not maintain a public database of donors. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 2017 amendment removed the 7.5% profit cap on corporate donations, the Supreme Court struck down the entire Electoral Bonds Scheme in 2024 for violating the right to information. Statement 3 is incorrect because the scheme was issued through the Finance Act, 2017, but the bonds were issued by the State Bank of India (SBI), not the Reserve Bank of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Adjudication of disputes between political parties:
1. Under the provisions of the 1968 Order, the Election Commission maintains a list of registered unrecognized parties, which are eligible to contest elections but do not have a reserved symbol.
2. The Election Commission of India follows the principles of natural justice and provides reasonable opportunities for hearing to both rival factions before passing an order on the allocation of a party symbol.
3. The Election Commission of India exercised its powers under the 1968 Order to settle the dispute between the two factions of the Shiv Sena in February 2023, allocating the party name and bow-and-arrow symbol to the Eknath Shinde faction.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, governs the registration and classification of parties, where unrecognized parties must choose from free symbols. Statement 2 is correct because the ECI acts as a quasi-judicial body under Paragraph 15 of the 1968 Order, mandating adherence to natural justice and fair hearings for rival factions. Statement 3 is correct because, in February 2023, the ECI invoked its powers under the 1968 Order to recognize the Eknath Shinde-led faction as the official Shiv Sena, granting them the party name and the 'bow-and-arrow' symbol based on the test of majority in the legislative wing.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of ECI in ensuring free and fair elections under Article 324:
1. Article 324 of the Constitution vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament and State Legislatures in the Election Commission of India.
2. The Supreme Court in the Mohinder Singh Gill vs. Chief Election Commissioner (1978) case held that Article 324 operates as a residuary power for the ECI to act in areas where existing laws are silent.
3. The Election Commission of India derives its authority to conduct local body elections under Article 324, which ensures uniformity in electoral rolls across all tiers of government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 324 mandates the ECI to oversee elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Mohinder Singh Gill (1978) affirmed that Article 324 acts as a plenary power, allowing the ECI to fill legislative voids to ensure free and fair elections. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ECI does not conduct local body elections; under Articles 243K and 243ZA, this responsibility lies with the State Election Commissions.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial review of ECI decisions and the 'Basic Structure' doctrine:
1. The Election Commission of India derives its power to superintend, direct, and control elections from Article 324, which was interpreted by the Supreme Court in the 1978 Mohinder Singh Gill case.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee, and the conditions of service for the other Election Commissioners are determined by the 1991 Election Commission (Conditions of Service) Act.
3. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act lowered the voting age to 18 years, and the Election Commission utilizes this legislative change to define the territorial constituencies for the Lok Sabha elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the Supreme Court in Mohinder Singh Gill v. Chief Election Commissioner (1978) established that Article 324 acts as a plenary reservoir of power for the ECI to conduct elections. Statement 2 is incorrect because the appointment process was significantly altered by the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, which mandates a selection committee comprising the PM, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the 61st Amendment (1988) lowered the voting age, the power to delimit territorial constituencies for the Lok Sabha is vested in the Delimitation Commission under the Delimitation Act, not the ECI directly.
Consider the following statements regarding Superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls:
1. Article 324 of the Constitution vests the power of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls in the Election Commission of India.
2. Under Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the electoral roll for every constituency is subject to revision in the prescribed manner before each general election.
3. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides for the qualification of voters and the preparation of electoral rolls for parliamentary and assembly constituencies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Article 324 grants the Election Commission of India plenary powers to oversee all electoral processes, including the preparation of electoral rolls. Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950, mandates the revision of electoral rolls before each general election or biennial election to a legislative council, while the RPA, 1950, itself serves as the primary legislation governing the qualification of voters and the procedural framework for preparing electoral rolls for parliamentary and assembly constituencies. As all three statements accurately reflect the constitutional and statutory provisions governing Indian elections, they are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Adjudication of disputes between political parties:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, contains specific provisions in Section 29A that authorize the Election Commission to adjudicate upon the internal leadership disputes of political parties.
2. The 1968 Election Symbols Order was amended in 1994 to introduce a mandatory judicial review process, which allows the High Court to stay the Commission's decision on symbol allocation for a period of six months.
3. The Election Commission of India utilizes the 'numerical strength of primary members' as the primary criterion for resolving party disputes, a rule introduced by the 1989 amendment to the Conduct of Election Rules.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because Section 29A of the RP Act, 1951, only mandates the registration of political parties and does not empower the ECI to adjudicate internal leadership disputes. The 1968 Election Symbols Order does not contain any provision for mandatory judicial review or a six-month stay by High Courts, and the ECI resolves symbol disputes based on the 'test of majority' within the organizational and legislative wings rather than the 'numerical strength of primary members' under the Conduct of Election Rules.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional provisions under Article 324:
1. The President of India determines the conditions of service and tenure of office for the Election Commissioners, and these conditions are equivalent to those of a Judge of the High Court as specified in the Second Schedule.
2. Article 324 provides for the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner through a process similar to the impeachment of the President, while other Election Commissioners are removable by the President on the recommendation of the Law Minister.
3. Article 324 empowers the Election Commission to appoint regional commissioners to assist in the performance of functions, and these regional commissioners hold office for a fixed tenure of six years as defined by the original 1950 constitutional text.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the conditions of service and tenure are determined by Parliament, not the President, and the CEC's status is equivalent to a Supreme Court Judge, not a High Court Judge. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the CEC is removed like a Supreme Court Judge, other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President solely on the recommendation of the CEC, not the Law Minister. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 324 does not fix the tenure of regional commissioners at six years; instead, it empowers the President to determine their conditions of service and tenure in consultation with the Election Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of political parties and registration process:
1. Registered political parties are eligible to receive electoral bonds under the 2018 scheme, which allows for anonymous donations through the Reserve Bank of India as the designated issuing authority.
2. The Election Commission of India issued the Political Parties Registration Tracking Management System in 2019 to facilitate the online submission of applications by new parties.
3. The Election Commission maintains a list of registered unrecognised political parties, and these entities are entitled to a common free symbol for their candidates in all parliamentary constituencies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the ECI launched the Political Parties Registration Tracking Management System (PPRTMS) in 2019 to streamline the application process for new parties. Statement 1 is incorrect because, under the 2018 Electoral Bond Scheme, only parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, that secured at least 1% of votes in the last general election were eligible to receive bonds, and the State Bank of India (not RBI) was the designated issuing authority. Statement 3 is incorrect because registered unrecognised political parties are not entitled to a common free symbol; they must choose from a list of 'free symbols' available for each election, and a common symbol is only granted under specific conditions to parties that have previously contested elections and met certain vote-share criteria.
Consider the following statements regarding Administrative powers of ECI regarding the deployment of security forces:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1950, contains specific provisions for the deputation of police personnel to the Election Commission, and these personnel report to the State Home Secretary during the counting process.
2. The Election Commission of India derives its authority to command state police forces from Article 324, which provides for the creation of a permanent paramilitary wing under the Chief Election Commissioner.
3. The 1993 T.N. Seshan notification regarding security deployment established the National Election Security Board, which functions as an autonomous body to oversee the logistical movement of state police units.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (not 1950) governs election conduct, and during the election period, police personnel are deemed to be on deputation to the Election Commission (ECI), not the State Home Secretary. Article 324 grants the ECI plenary powers of superintendence, direction, and control over elections, but it does not provide for the creation of a permanent paramilitary wing under the Chief Election Commissioner. Furthermore, there is no 'National Election Security Board' established by a 1993 T.N. Seshan notification; security deployment is managed through the coordination of the ECI with the Ministry of Home Affairs and state governments under existing constitutional mandates.
Consider the following statements regarding Administrative powers of ECI regarding the deployment of security forces:
1. The Election Commission manages the inter-state movement of police forces through the Inter-State Council Secretariat, which coordinates the logistical support for polling stations in sensitive border regions.
2. During the election period, the administrative control over the police forces deployed for poll duty is vested in the Election Commission, as affirmed by the Supreme Court in the 2002 Ashok Kumar Thakur case.
3. The Election Commission of India exercises the power to requisition security personnel from the Union and State governments under Section 159 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Election Commission coordinates the deployment of Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) through the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Inter-State Council Secretariat. Statement 2 is correct as the Supreme Court has consistently held that during the election process, the personnel deployed for poll duty are under the superintendence, direction, and control of the ECI to ensure free and fair elections. Statement 3 is correct because Section 159 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, mandates that local authorities and state/central governments must make staff and security personnel available to the ECI for election-related duties upon request.
Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) protocols:
1. The physical verification of VVPAT paper slips against the electronic count in a constituency is conducted in five randomly selected polling stations as per the current protocol.
2. The Election Commission of India currently utilizes the M3 model of Electronic Voting Machines, which features self-diagnostics and digital certification to prevent unauthorized access.
3. The Supreme Court of India in the 2013 Subramanian Swamy versus Election Commission of India case observed that the paper trail is an indispensable requirement for free and fair elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the ECI mandates the mandatory physical verification of VVPAT slips in five randomly selected polling stations per assembly segment to ensure audit trail integrity. Statement 2 is correct because the M3 EVMs, introduced in 2013, incorporate advanced security features like mutual authentication and digital signatures to detect tampering or unauthorized access. Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court in Subramanian Swamy v. ECI (2013) landmarked the necessity of VVPATs, ruling that they are an indispensable requirement for ensuring the transparency and credibility of the electoral process.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial review of ECI decisions and the 'Basic Structure' doctrine:
1. The Supreme Court in the 2002 Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms judgment expanded the scope of Article 324 to include the disclosure of criminal antecedents, which the Parliament subsequently codified through an ordinance.
2. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order of 1968 governs the recognition of political parties, and the Election Commission's decision on symbol disputes functions as a quasi-judicial process that the Supreme Court cannot examine under Article 136.
3. The 1951 Representation of the People Act provides for the disqualification of candidates convicted of certain offenses, and the Election Commission holds the inherent authority to waive these periods for sitting members of Parliament.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Parliament did not codify the ADR judgment via an ordinance, but rather through the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2002, which was later struck down by the SC in PUCL v. UOI (2003). Statement 2 is incorrect because the ECI's decision on symbol disputes is subject to judicial review under Article 136, as established in cases like Sadiq Ali v. ECI. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ECI lacks the inherent authority to waive disqualification periods for sitting members; such powers are vested in the President under Section 11 of the RPA, 1951, in consultation with the ECI.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of political parties and registration process:
1. Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, governs the registration of political parties with the Election Commission of India.
2. The 1989 amendment to the Representation of the People Act introduced the registration process, and the first party to be recognized under this provision was the Janata Dal.
3. Political parties are granted permanent tax exemption under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, provided they maintain audited accounts and file annual returns with the Comptroller and Auditor General.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 29A of the RPA, 1951, mandates the registration of political parties with the ECI. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 1989 amendment introduced the registration process, the first party registered under it was not Janata Dal, and the provision was enacted to formalize the status of parties. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while Section 13A of the Income Tax Act provides tax exemptions, political parties are required to file their annual returns with the Election Commission of India, not the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
Consider the following statements regarding Election symbols and the Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order:
1. The Election Commission of India maintains a list of 'free symbols' which are available for allotment to candidates set up by unrecognized political parties or independent candidates.
2. Under the provisions of the 1968 Order, a recognized political party is entitled to a reserved symbol which is not available for allotment to any other candidate in the country.
3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides for the registration of political parties under Section 29A and includes provisions for the Election Commission to grant permanent symbol status to state parties upon their first electoral victory.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, mandates the ECI to maintain a list of 'free symbols' for independent candidates and unrecognized parties. Statement 2 is correct because reserved symbols are exclusive to recognized national or state parties to prevent confusion among voters. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, governs the registration of parties, the power to allot symbols is derived from the 1968 Order, and there is no provision for 'permanent symbol status' based on a single electoral victory, as recognition depends on specific vote share and seat criteria.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial review of ECI decisions and the 'Basic Structure' doctrine:
1. The 1993 amendment to the Election Commission Act established the multi-member body structure and granted the Chief Election Commissioner the power to override the President during a constitutional crisis.
2. In the 1975 case of Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain, the Supreme Court held that free and fair elections are an essential feature of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
3. Under the provisions of Article 329, the Delimitation Commission acts as a subordinate body to the Election Commission, and its final orders remain subject to judicial review by the High Courts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) declared 'free and fair elections' as a part of the Basic Structure. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1993 Act made the ECI a multi-member body but did not grant the CEC power to override the President; instead, it mandated that all members have equal decision-making powers. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Article 329(a), the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies cannot be called in question in any court.