Delegated Legislation Rules MCQs

Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation: 1. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha consists of 15 members who are nominated by the Speaker for a term of one year. 2. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Rajya Sabha was established in 1952 with 25 members, and it holds the authority to amend any rule framed by the executive. 3. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation was first constituted in the Lok Sabha on 1 December 1953 to scrutinize the powers delegated by Parliament to the executive. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker for a one-year term. Statement 3 is correct because the committee was indeed first constituted in the Lok Sabha on 1 December 1953 to ensure the executive does not exceed its delegated powers. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Rajya Sabha committee was established in 1953 (not 1952) with 15 members (not 25), the committee lacks the authority to amend rules; it can only recommend modifications to the House, which the executive may then consider.

Consider the following statements regarding Distinction between conditional legislation and delegated legislation: 1. The 1959 case of Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India clarified that the legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative functions to the executive branch. 2. Under the 1951 Delhi Laws Act judgment, the executive can determine the commencement date of an enactment, which constitutes a form of conditional legislation. 3. The principle of 'excessive delegation' was examined in the 1960 case of Vasantlal Maganbhai v. State of Bombay, focusing on the limits of the executive's rule-making authority. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the Hamdard Dawakhana (1959) case established that while the legislature can delegate rule-making power, it cannot abdicate its 'essential legislative function' of determining legislative policy. Statement 2 is correct because the In re Delhi Laws Act (1951) case affirmed that empowering the executive to determine the commencement date of an Act is a valid exercise of conditional legislation, not delegated legislation. Statement 3 is correct as Vasantlal Maganbhai v. State of Bombay (1960) reinforced the 'excessive delegation' doctrine, ensuring that the executive's rule-making power remains within the framework and policy defined by the parent statute.

Consider the following statements regarding Mandatory versus directory nature of procedural rules: 1. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, established in 1953, provides for the mandatory vetting of all draft rules by the Law Ministry before they are tabled in either house of Parliament. 2. Under the Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985, the rules of natural justice are incorporated into the delegated rulemaking process, and any departure from these rules renders the notification void ab initio. 3. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Article 323A, which provides for the judicial review of delegated legislation and classifies all procedural lapses as inherently mandatory for administrative validity. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines rules, there is no constitutional mandate requiring Law Ministry vetting for all draft rules before tabling. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Administrative Tribunals Act does not explicitly codify natural justice as a mandatory procedural prerequisite that renders every departure 'void ab initio', as courts determine such validity based on the 'substantial compliance' test. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 323A deals with the establishment of administrative tribunals, and no constitutional amendment has classified all procedural lapses in delegated legislation as inherently mandatory; courts distinguish between mandatory and directory provisions based on legislative intent.

Consider the following statements regarding Scope of 'removal of difficulty' clauses: 1. The General Clauses Act of 1897 includes a comprehensive removal of difficulty clause that applies to all central enactments passed after the commencement of the Constitution in 1950. 2. Section 11 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, contains a provision enabling the government to issue orders to overcome unforeseen obstacles in the application of the Act. 3. The Supreme Court observed in the Gammon India Ltd. v. Union of India case that the exercise of power under a removal of difficulty clause is subject to the doctrine of ultra vires. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the General Clauses Act, 1897, does not contain a universal 'removal of difficulty' clause; such clauses are specific to individual statutes enacted by Parliament. Statement 2 is correct as Section 11 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, empowers the government to issue orders to remove difficulties in giving effect to the Act's provisions. Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court in Gammon India Ltd. v. Union of India (1974) affirmed that while the executive can exercise such powers, they must remain within the scope of the parent Act and are subject to judicial review under the doctrine of ultra vires.

Consider the following statements regarding Distinction between conditional legislation and delegated legislation: 1. The 1951 Delhi Laws Act judgment established that the executive possesses the authority to modify the essential legislative policy of an Act, provided such changes are reported to the President within 30 days. 2. In the 1920 Queen v. Burah case, the Privy Council held that the legislature functions as a delegate of the executive, allowing the latter to formulate the fundamental principles of the law. 3. Conditional legislation is often described as a law that is complete in itself when passed by the legislature, but its application depends on an external event or condition. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct because conditional legislation is a complete law where the legislature determines the policy, leaving only the timing or area of application to the executive. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1951 Delhi Laws Act case established that the executive cannot modify the 'essential legislative policy' of an Act, as this constitutes an impermissible delegation of legislative power. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1878 Queen v. Burah case established the opposite: the legislature is not a delegate of the executive, and the executive cannot be empowered to alter the fundamental principles or essential policy of a law.

Consider the following statements regarding Sunset clauses in delegated legislation: 1. The Delegated Legislation Act of 1952 introduced the mandatory sunset clause provision for all central rules, which was later amended by the 1976 Constitutional Amendment to include state-level notifications. 2. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation in the Lok Sabha recommends the inclusion of sunset clauses in delegated legislation to ensure periodic review of rules by the executive. 3. Article 368 of the Constitution provides for the automatic expiration of delegated rules after a period of ten years, a mechanism that was first implemented during the 1951 First Amendment process. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation frequently advocates for sunset clauses to ensure parliamentary oversight and periodic review of delegated powers. Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no 'Delegated Legislation Act of 1952' that mandates sunset clauses, nor did the 1976 Amendment introduce such provisions for state-level notifications. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 368 pertains solely to the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure, and no constitutional provision mandates the automatic expiration of delegated rules after ten years.

Consider the following statements regarding Doctrine of Excessive Delegation: 1. The 1950 Constitution (First Amendment) Act introduced Article 245A to formalize the Doctrine of Excessive Delegation, which allowed the executive to modify primary statutes during national emergencies. 2. Under Article 245 of the Constitution, the power of Parliament to delegate law-making authority is subject to the limitation that the policy of the law is clearly defined. 3. The Doctrine of Excessive Delegation prevents the legislature from abdicating its essential legislative functions to the executive branch as established in the 1951 In Re Delhi Laws Act case. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Constitution contains no 'Article 245A', and the Doctrine of Excessive Delegation is a judicial creation rather than a constitutional amendment. Statement 2 is correct as the Supreme Court mandates that while the legislature can delegate rule-making power, it must retain the essential legislative policy and provide sufficient guidelines. Statement 3 is correct because the landmark 1951 In Re Delhi Laws Act case established that the legislature cannot abdicate its 'essential legislative functions'-which involve determining the legislative policy-to the executive branch.

Consider the following statements regarding Delegation of taxing power and its limitations: 1. Article 265 of the Constitution provides for the levy of taxes, and the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced the provision that executive bodies can determine tax rates through delegated rules. 2. Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, the Union List includes entries for taxation, and the 1991 Liberalization Policy authorized the Ministry of Finance to levy new excise duties without parliamentary approval. 3. The 1954 In Re Delhi Laws Act case established that the power to impose a tax is an inherent executive function, allowing the government to adjust tax slabs during periods of economic volatility. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. All three statements are incorrect because Article 265 mandates that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law, and the 42nd Amendment did not authorize executive-determined tax rates. Furthermore, the 1991 Liberalization Policy did not bypass the constitutional requirement for parliamentary approval for new excise duties, which remains a legislative prerogative. Finally, the landmark In Re Delhi Laws Act (1951) case established that while the legislature can delegate the power to fix rates within defined limits, the essential legislative function of imposing a tax cannot be delegated to the executive.

Consider the following statements regarding Applicability of natural justice in rule-making: 1. In the 1978 Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India judgment, the court clarified that the principles of natural justice are not excluded even in administrative actions that have a legislative character. 2. The 1980 decision in State of Punjab v. Tehal Singh established that the process of issuing a notification under the Punjab Panchayat Raj Act, 1994, is a legislative act where the right to a hearing is not inherent. 3. Under the Administrative Procedure Act of 1946 in the United States, which influenced Indian jurisprudence, rule-making is distinguished from adjudication, thereby limiting the scope of oral hearings. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as Maneka Gandhi (1978) expanded the scope of natural justice, asserting that even legislative-type administrative actions must be fair and reasonable. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in State of Punjab v. Tehal Singh (2002, concerning the 1994 Act) held that statutory rule-making is a legislative function where the principles of natural justice, such as the right to a hearing, do not apply unless explicitly provided by statute. Statement 3 is correct as the US Administrative Procedure Act (1946) established the foundational distinction between 'rulemaking' (quasi-legislative) and 'adjudication' (quasi-judicial), a framework that has significantly influenced the Indian judiciary's approach to limiting oral hearings in delegated legislation.

Consider the following statements regarding Doctrine of Excessive Delegation: 1. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, established in 1953, examines whether the powers delegated by the legislature are being exercised within the intended constitutional limits. 2. The principle of 'essential legislative function' implies that the determination of the legislative policy and its formulation are non-delegable tasks for the Parliament. 3. The 1973 Gwalior Rayon case affirmed that the legislature retains the power to withdraw delegated authority if the executive exceeds the scope of the original enactment. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation was constituted in 1953 to scrutinize whether the powers delegated by Parliament are being exercised within the framework of the parent Act. Statement 2 is correct because the 'essential legislative function' doctrine, established in the In re Delhi Laws Act (1951) case, mandates that the legislature cannot delegate the core policy-making power to the executive. Statement 3 is correct as the Gwalior Rayon Silk Mfg. (Wvg.) Co. Ltd. v. Assistant Commissioner of Sales Tax (1974) case reinforced that the legislature maintains ultimate control and can withdraw or modify delegated authority if the executive acts beyond the scope of the enabling legislation.

Consider the following statements regarding Exclusion of judicial review through ouster clauses: 1. The 1973 Kesavananda Bharati judgment established the doctrine of basic structure, which serves as the primary legal basis for the 44th Amendment to repeal all ouster clauses in central statutes. 2. The Supreme Court in the 1980 Minerva Mills case affirmed that judicial review constitutes a basic feature of the Indian Constitution, limiting the scope of ouster clauses. 3. Section 105 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, contains a provision that restricts the jurisdiction of civil courts regarding matters assigned to election tribunals. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment did not repeal all ouster clauses in central statutes, and the basic structure doctrine does not automatically invalidate such clauses without judicial scrutiny. Statement 2 is correct as the Minerva Mills case (1980) explicitly held that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution, meaning ouster clauses cannot completely insulate executive or legislative actions from judicial oversight. Statement 3 is correct because Section 105 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, expressly bars civil courts from adjudicating matters specifically assigned to election tribunals, representing a statutory ouster clause.

Consider the following statements regarding Consultation requirements in rule-making processes: 1. The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 includes provisions for the establishment of benches, and it provides for a mandatory 15-day public consultation period before any procedural rule changes. 2. The General Clauses Act of 1897 provides the foundational framework for the publication of draft rules in the Gazette of India before they attain final legal force. 3. Under the Information Technology Act of 2000, the central government publishes draft rules for public comment for a minimum period of 30 days prior to their formal notification. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, mandates the 'previous publication' of draft rules in the Official Gazette to invite public objections or suggestions. Statement 3 is correct because Section 87 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, specifically requires the Central Government to publish draft rules for public comment for at least 30 days. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, does not contain a statutory provision mandating a 15-day public consultation period for procedural rule changes.

Consider the following statements regarding Delegated legislation during Proclamation of Emergency: 1. During the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, the Parliament possesses the legislative competence to make laws on subjects enumerated in the State List under the Seventh Schedule. 2. The legislative power of the Parliament to make laws on State List subjects during an emergency is subject to the limitation that such laws cease to have effect six months after the Proclamation of Emergency has ceased to operate. 3. Article 357 of the Constitution provides for the exercise of legislative powers under Proclamation issued under Article 356, allowing the Parliament to confer on the President the power of the Legislature of the State to make laws. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects when a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation. Statement 2 is correct because, under Article 250(2), such laws cease to have effect upon the expiration of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate, except for things done or omitted to be done before the expiry. Statement 3 is correct because Article 357 specifically deals with the exercise of legislative powers under President's Rule (Article 356), authorizing Parliament to delegate the power to make laws for the State to the President.

Consider the following statements regarding Retrospective operation of delegated legislation: 1. The 1992 Supreme Court ruling in the Indra Sawhney case recognized the inherent power of the executive to apply reservation rules retrospectively to cover vacancies occurring during the preceding three financial years. 2. The 1987 ruling in the case of Mahabir Vegetable Oils Pvt. Ltd. v. State of Haryana established that a subordinate authority lacks the inherent power to frame rules with retrospective effect unless the parent statute confers such authority in clear terms. 3. The Statutory Rules and Orders Act of 1947 allows ministries to issue retrospective notifications for taxation purposes, provided the financial implications are reviewed by the Comptroller and Auditor General before the rules take effect. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Mahabir Vegetable Oils Pvt. Ltd. v. State of Haryana (2006) affirmed that delegated legislation cannot have retrospective effect unless the parent Act explicitly authorizes it. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Indra Sawhney case (1992) dealt with the constitutionality of reservations and did not grant the executive inherent power for retrospective rule-making regarding vacancies. Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no such 'Statutory Rules and Orders Act of 1947' that permits ministries to issue retrospective taxation notifications subject to CAG review; retrospective taxation requires specific legislative sanction under the parent Act.

Consider the following statements regarding Distinction between conditional legislation and delegated legislation: 1. In the 1951 case of In re Delhi Laws Act, the Supreme Court of India distinguished between the power to bring a law into operation and the power to modify its essential policy. 2. Delegated legislation involves the transfer of rule-making power from the legislature to the executive, a process often governed by the parent Act passed in the Parliament. 3. Conditional legislation involves the executive exercising a power to determine the time or area of a law's application, as seen in the 1920 case of Queen v. Burah. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. All three statements are correct: the 1951 In re Delhi Laws Act case established the constitutional boundaries for legislative delegation, while the 1878 Queen v. Burah case (often cited in the 1920 context of administrative law evolution) clarified that conditional legislation merely triggers the operation of an existing law rather than creating new policy. Delegated legislation is fundamentally distinct because it empowers the executive to fill in the details of a parent Act, whereas conditional legislation grants the executive discretion only regarding the timing or geographical scope of an already complete legislative enactment.

Consider the following statements regarding Sub-delegation of legislative powers: 1. Under the provisions of the 1950 Constitution, the President of India exercises the power to sub-delegate legislative functions to the Union Territories through the 1962 Government of Union Territories Act. 2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Article 323A, which provides for the establishment of administrative tribunals to handle disputes regarding the validity of sub-delegated rules. 3. The 1961 Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha include provisions for the Scrutiny Committee to report on the constitutionality of delegated powers under Article 368. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the President's power to make regulations for Union Territories is derived directly from Article 240 of the Constitution, not the 1962 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect as Article 323A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, pertains to the adjudication of service matters for public employees, not the validity of sub-delegated rules. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Committee on Subordinate Legislation, not a 'Scrutiny Committee,' examines delegated powers, and its mandate is to scrutinize rules under enabling Acts, not to report on constitutional amendments under Article 368.

Consider the following statements regarding Judicial review of delegated rules: 1. Judicial review of delegated legislation is permissible on the grounds of unreasonableness, as demonstrated in the 1978 Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corporation ruling. 2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Article 323A, which provides for the exclusion of judicial review over delegated rules concerning administrative tribunals. 3. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, first constituted in the Lok Sabha in 1953, examines whether the powers to make regulations are being exercised within the framework of the parent statute. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the Wednesbury principle establishes that delegated legislation can be challenged if it is so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever have come to it. Statement 3 is correct because the Committee on Subordinate Legislation was indeed established in 1953 to scrutinize the executive's exercise of rule-making powers delegated by the legislature. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 323A, introduced by the 42nd Amendment, pertains to the establishment of administrative tribunals, but the Supreme Court in the L. Chandra Kumar case (1997) ruled that the power of judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 is a basic feature of the Constitution and cannot be excluded.

Consider the following statements regarding Delegation of taxing power and its limitations: 1. The 1958 Kerala Education Bill case relates to state autonomy, and it provides for the state executive to impose education cesses on private institutions without needing to pass a specific amendment in the State Legislature. 2. The 1961 Income Tax Act encompasses the framework for tax collection, and the 2003 Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act allows the executive to change tax rates to meet fiscal deficit targets. 3. Delegated legislation regarding tax rates is subject to judicial review under Article 32, and the 1978 Maneka Gandhi ruling confirmed that tax-fixing powers are administrative rather than legislative in nature. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1958 Kerala Education Bill case (In re Kerala Education Bill, 1957) dealt with the constitutionality of state control over minority educational institutions, not the delegation of taxing powers. Statement 2 is incorrect as the FRBM Act, 2003, mandates fiscal discipline but does not authorize the executive to unilaterally alter tax rates, which remains a core legislative function requiring parliamentary approval. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while delegated legislation is subject to judicial review, the Supreme Court has consistently held that the power to fix tax rates is a legislative function that cannot be delegated to the executive without clear legislative policy and guidelines, and the Maneka Gandhi (1978) ruling focused on Article 21 and due process, not the classification of tax-fixing as administrative.

Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of Henry VIII clauses: 1. The 1986 Supreme Court ruling in the D.S. Nakara case established that Henry VIII clauses are a standard feature of Indian administrative law, provided they receive prior approval from the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Subordinate Legislation. 2. The 2002 judgment in the Union of India v. Cynamid India Ltd case clarified that Henry VIII clauses are subject to the same procedural scrutiny as primary legislation under Article 13 of the Constitution. 3. The 1994 Legislative and Regulatory Reform Act in the UK serves as the primary legal instrument that defines the scope of Henry VIII clauses, having been modeled after the 1950 Indian delegated legislation framework. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. All three statements are incorrect because they misattribute legal precedents and historical facts. The D.S. Nakara case (1983) dealt with pension reforms, not Henry VIII clauses; the Cyanamid India case (1987) concerned price fixation under the Drugs Act, not the constitutional status of such clauses; and the 1994 UK Act is a British statute that predates the Indian framework, which itself is based on the principle of 'conditional legislation' rather than the specific 'Henry VIII' nomenclature. In India, Henry VIII clauses-which allow the executive to amend primary legislation-are generally viewed with judicial skepticism as they risk violating the doctrine of separation of powers, and no such blanket validation exists in the cited rulings.

Consider the following statements regarding Exclusion of judicial review through ouster clauses: 1. The 1992 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act introduced Part IX, which provides for the exclusion of judicial review in matters related to the delimitation of panchayat constituencies. 2. The 1950 Constitution initially included Article 329A, which provided for the finality of election disputes, and this provision remains part of the text following the 1978 legislative reforms. 3. In the 1964 K. Anandan Nambiar case, the judiciary held that legislative privileges under Article 105 do not grant immunity from judicial scrutiny regarding fundamental rights. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 243-O of the 73rd Amendment bars courts from interfering in electoral matters, but delimitation is covered under Article 243-K and is not explicitly immune from judicial review. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 329A was inserted by the 39th Amendment (1975) to protect the Prime Minister's election and was subsequently struck down by the Supreme Court in the Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain case (1975). Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court in K. Anandan Nambiar (1964) affirmed that while Parliament has privileges under Article 105, they are subject to the fundamental rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.

Consider the following statements regarding Judicial review of delegated rules: 1. In the 1951 case of In re Delhi Laws Act, the Supreme Court of India established that the legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative functions to the executive. 2. The doctrine of ultra vires allows Indian courts to invalidate delegated legislation if it exceeds the scope of the parent Act passed by Parliament. 3. Under Article 13 of the Constitution, the term 'law' includes orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, and notifications having the force of law in the territory of India. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the 1951 In re Delhi Laws Act case established the 'essential legislative functions' doctrine, preventing the legislature from abdicating its core law-making power. Statement 2 is correct because the doctrine of ultra vires empowers courts to strike down delegated legislation if it transcends the authority granted by the parent Act. Statement 3 is correct because Article 13(3)(a) explicitly defines 'law' to include ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, and notifications, subjecting them to judicial review for fundamental rights compliance.

Consider the following statements regarding Retrospective operation of delegated legislation: 1. The Indian Evidence Act of 1872 includes provisions under Section 114 that allow the government to notify retrospective delegated legislation if the notification is published in the Gazette of India within thirty days of the parent Act's commencement. 2. The Constitution Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Article 13(4), which empowers the executive to frame retrospective rules for administrative convenience without seeking prior approval from the Parliament. 3. The Supreme Court in the Hiralal Rattanlal v. State of U.P. (1973) case affirmed that delegated legislation possesses the power to operate retrospectively if the parent Act contains a specific enabling provision. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court in Hiralal Rattanlal v. State of U.P. (1973) established that delegated legislation can have retrospective effect only if the parent Act explicitly confers such power. Statement 1 is incorrect as the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with rules of evidence and contains no such provision regarding retrospective delegated legislation. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 13(4) was introduced by the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, not 1976, and it relates to the exclusion of constitutional amendments from the scope of judicial review under Article 13, not the executive's power to frame retrospective rules.

Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation: 1. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation of the Lok Sabha submits its annual report to the President of India, who then presents the findings to the Union Cabinet for final approval. 2. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation reports to the House whether any delegated legislation amounts to a direct or indirect encroachment on the jurisdiction of the courts. 3. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation examines whether the rules, regulations, bye-laws, and schemes framed by the executive are within the scope of the parent Act. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Committee on Subordinate Legislation submits its report directly to the House (Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha), not the President or the Union Cabinet. Statement 2 is correct as the Committee is mandated to ensure that delegated legislation does not bar the jurisdiction of courts or exclude them from judicial review. Statement 3 is correct because the primary function of the Committee is to scrutinize whether the executive's rules and regulations are consistent with the provisions and intent of the parent Act passed by Parliament.

Consider the following statements regarding Doctrine of Excessive Delegation: 1. The Supreme Court of India ruled in the 1960 Hamdard Dawakhana case that the legislature cannot delegate the power to determine the legislative policy itself. 2. Judicial review of delegated legislation in India is based on the principle that the delegate operates within the framework of the parent Act passed by the legislature. 3. The 1959 Kerala Education Bill reference case established that the judiciary possesses the power to draft subordinate rules if the legislature fails to provide adequate guidelines within a six-month period. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the 1960 Hamdard Dawakhana case established that while the legislature can delegate functions, it cannot abdicate its essential legislative power of determining legislative policy. Statement 2 is correct because the doctrine of ultra vires mandates that delegated legislation must remain within the scope and framework of the parent Act, subject to judicial review. Statement 3 is incorrect because the judiciary has no constitutional authority to draft subordinate rules; its role is limited to reviewing the validity of rules, and the Kerala Education Bill case (1958) dealt with the constitutionality of provisions, not the drafting of rules by the court.

Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of Henry VIII clauses: 1. In the 1967 A.K. Roy v. Union of India judgment, the Supreme Court held that the executive possesses inherent power to amend parent statutes via delegated legislation to address unforeseen exigencies. 2. The 1973 constitutional amendment in the UK, following the European Communities Act, introduced Henry VIII clauses to allow ministers to modify primary legislation to align with European Union directives. 3. Section 128 of the 1935 Government of India Act contained a Henry VIII clause that allowed the Governor-General to modify the Act during the transitional period ending in 1947. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court in A.K. Roy (1982) and subsequent rulings held that delegated legislation cannot amend the parent Act unless specifically authorized by a 'Henry VIII clause', and even then, it is subject to judicial review. Statement 2 is incorrect as Henry VIII clauses have existed in UK law for centuries, long predating the 1973 European Communities Act, which merely utilized such mechanisms for implementation. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 128 of the Government of India Act, 1935, dealt with the power of the Governor-General to make ordinances, not the power to amend the Act itself through delegated legislation.

Consider the following statements regarding Relationship between parent Act and subordinate rules: 1. The Delegated Legislation Act of 1962 provides for the standardisation of rulemaking procedures across all departments, and it includes provisions for the retrospective application of rules if approved by the Cabinet Secretary. 2. In the 1973 Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court observed that the power of delegation is a constituent element of legislative power, subject to the limitation that essential legislative functions remain non-delegable. 3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 established the framework for judicial review of delegated legislation, and it provided for the creation of special tribunals to resolve conflicts between parent Acts and subordinate rules. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court, in cases like Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and earlier precedents like In re Delhi Laws Act (1951), established that while the legislature can delegate rule-making power, it cannot delegate 'essential legislative functions' (the policy-making core). Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no 'Delegated Legislation Act of 1962'; instead, the Statutory Orders (Special Provisions) Act, 1962, exists, and retrospective rule-making is governed by the parent Act, not by Cabinet Secretary approval. Statement 3 is incorrect because judicial review of delegated legislation is a power derived from Articles 13, 32, and 226 of the Constitution rather than the 42nd Amendment, and no such special tribunal framework for this specific purpose was created by that amendment.

Consider the following statements regarding Legislative control via laying requirements: 1. Under the Statutory Instruments Act, 1946, of the United Kingdom, which influenced Indian parliamentary practice, certain instruments are subject to negative resolution procedures. 2. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976, introduced Article 323A, which encompasses the power of the executive to frame rules for administrative tribunals and provides for the automatic expiry of rules if not laid before Parliament within 60 days. 3. The Supreme Court in the 1951 In re Delhi Laws Act case affirmed that the legislature cannot delegate its essential legislative functions to the executive. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the UK's Statutory Instruments Act, 1946, established the negative resolution procedure, which significantly influenced Indian legislative practice regarding delegated legislation. Statement 3 is correct because the landmark 1951 In re Delhi Laws Act case established the 'essential legislative functions' doctrine, prohibiting the legislature from delegating its core policy-making powers to the executive. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Article 323A was indeed inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, it does not contain a provision for the automatic expiry of rules if not laid before Parliament within 60 days; such laying requirements are typically governed by specific parent statutes rather than the Constitution itself.

Consider the following statements regarding Consultation requirements in rule-making processes: 1. The Environment (Protection) Rules of 1986 incorporate provisions for a 60-day window during which stakeholders can submit objections to proposed environmental standards. 2. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, established in 1953, examines whether the powers to make rules delegated by the Constitution are being properly exercised by the executive. 3. The Supreme Court in the 1961 case of Avinder Singh v. State of Punjab observed that the power of delegated legislation is a constituent function of the executive branch. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986 mandate a 60-day public notice period for objections to draft notifications. Statement 2 is correct because the Committee on Subordinate Legislation, formed in 1953, acts as a parliamentary watchdog to ensure the executive does not exceed its delegated rule-making authority. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court in Avinder Singh v. State of Punjab (1979) clarified that while delegated legislation is a valid executive function, it is not a 'constituent' (constitution-making) power, but rather a derivative power subject to legislative oversight.

Consider the following statements regarding Scope of 'removal of difficulty' clauses: 1. Article 392 of the Constitution of India empowered the President to adapt existing laws during the transitional period between January 1950 and the first general elections. 2. Judicial scrutiny in the Jalan Trading Co. v. Mazdoor Union case established that such clauses remain valid only if they align with the underlying legislative policy of the parent Act. 3. The 'removal of difficulty' clause in Section 128 of the Reorganisation Act, 1956, permits the executive to modify provisions to facilitate the initial implementation of the statute. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as Article 392 provided the President with temporary powers to adapt laws to ensure a smooth transition to the constitutional framework post-1950. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Jalan Trading Co. (1966) ruled that 'removal of difficulty' clauses cannot be used to alter the essential policy or purpose of the parent Act, preventing executive overreach. Statement 3 is correct as Section 128 of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, contained a standard 'Henry VIII' clause enabling the executive to resolve practical hurdles during the initial implementation of the Act's complex territorial changes.

Consider the following statements regarding Judicial review of delegated rules: 1. Section 23 of the General Clauses Act of 1897 provides for the publication of draft rules in the Official Gazette to ensure public scrutiny before they become final. 2. The Supreme Court in the 1960 Kerala Education Bill case held that delegated legislation possesses the same status as constitutional amendments and remains immune to challenges under Part III. 3. The Statutory Instruments Act of 1946 serves as the primary legislative framework in India for the mandatory laying of all delegated rules before both Houses of Parliament for a period of thirty days. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct because Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, mandates the publication of draft rules to invite public objections before finalization. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Supreme Court, in the Kerala Education Bill case (1958) and others, established that delegated legislation must conform to the Constitution and is subject to judicial review under Part III. Statement 3 is incorrect because India has no single 'Statutory Instruments Act'; instead, the requirement for 'laying' rules before Parliament is governed by specific parent Acts or the rules of procedure of the respective Houses, not a unified 1946 statute.

Consider the following statements regarding Relationship between parent Act and subordinate rules: 1. The Statutory Orders Act of 1947 provides for the publication of rules in the Official Gazette, and the 1952 amendment introduced a 30-day period for parliamentary scrutiny of all executive notifications. 2. The Administrative Procedure Act of 1946 governs the rulemaking process for central ministries, and it includes provisions for public consultation before the final notification of any delegated legislation. 3. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 234, provides for the laying of subordinate legislation on the Table of the House within 15 days of its initial drafting. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Statutory Orders Act of 1947 does not exist in Indian law; instead, the General Clauses Act, 1897, and specific parent Acts govern rule-making. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Administrative Procedure Act is a US law, whereas Indian delegated legislation is governed by the parent Act and the scrutiny of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation. Statement 3 is incorrect because Rule 234 of the Lok Sabha Rules requires subordinate legislation to be laid on the Table of the House, but it does not mandate a 15-day deadline from initial drafting; rather, the laying requirement is determined by the specific provisions of the parent Act.

Consider the following statements regarding Sub-delegation of legislative powers: 1. Section 23 of the General Clauses Act of 1897 provides for the publication of draft rules in the Official Gazette to facilitate public consultation before finalization. 2. In the 1954 case of Rajnarain Singh v. Chairman, P.A. Committee, the Supreme Court held that the executive possesses the power to modify existing statutes if such power is conferred by the parent Act. 3. The 1973 judgment in Gwalior Rayon Silk Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. Assistant Commissioner of Sales Tax affirmed that the legislature may delegate the power to fix the rate of tax to the executive. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, mandates the 'previous publication' of draft rules to ensure transparency and public participation. Statement 2 is correct because the Rajnarain Singh case established that while the executive cannot change the essential policy of an Act, it can modify provisions if the parent Act explicitly grants the power of 'modification' or 'adaptation'. Statement 3 is correct as the Gwalior Rayon judgment clarified that the legislature can delegate the power to fix tax rates to the executive, provided the parent Act sets clear guidelines and limits, thereby upholding the doctrine of permissible delegation.

Consider the following statements regarding Publication requirements under the General Clauses Act: 1. A notice of the proposal to make rules is published in the Official Gazette to invite objections or suggestions from the public. 2. The General Clauses Act provides for the publication of subordinate legislation in the Gazette of India, which serves as the primary evidence for the commencement of executive orders since 1947. 3. The procedure for previous publication under Section 23 includes a mandatory 30-day window for public feedback, a period established by the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as Section 23 of the General Clauses Act mandates the 'previous publication' of rules to invite public objections or suggestions. Statement 2 is incorrect because the General Clauses Act does not specify the Gazette of India as the sole primary evidence for all executive orders, and the requirement for publication is often governed by specific parent Acts rather than a universal mandate under this Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Section 23 requires a reasonable period for feedback, it does not mandate a fixed 30-day window, nor is this period established by the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha.

Consider the following statements regarding Retrospective operation of delegated legislation: 1. The 1950 judgment in the A.K. Gopalan case clarified that the doctrine of delegated legislation permits retrospective operation for all fundamental rights, provided the rules are consistent with the Directive Principles of State Policy. 2. Under the General Clauses Act of 1897, Section 21 provides the framework for the power to issue, add to, amend, or rescind orders, which includes the incidental power to give them retrospective effect when authorized by the legislature. 3. The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 provides for the retrospective application of service rules, provided the notification is signed by the President and tabled before the Rajya Sabha within one session. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct because Section 21 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, embodies the 'power to issue' which includes the authority to add, amend, or rescind orders, though retrospective effect is only permissible if explicitly authorized by the parent statute. Statement 1 is incorrect because the A.K. Gopalan case (1950) dealt with preventive detention and Article 21, not the general doctrine of retrospective delegated legislation, which is governed by the principle that subordinate legislation cannot be retrospective unless the parent Act specifically empowers it. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, does not contain a blanket provision mandating Presidential signature or Rajya Sabha tabling as a prerequisite for the retrospective application of service rules.

Consider the following statements regarding Sunset clauses in delegated legislation: 1. In the case of State of Tamil Nadu v. P. Krishnamurthy (2006), the Supreme Court observed that delegated legislation can be subject to time limitations if the parent statute provides for such a temporal scope. 2. Section 15 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, provides the foundational framework for the exercise of powers conferred by enactments, including the potential for time-bound expiration of rules. 3. The 2017 Report of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation noted that sunset clauses serve as a legislative mechanism to prevent the indefinite continuation of administrative regulations. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in State of Tamil Nadu v. P. Krishnamurthy (2006) affirmed that delegated legislation must conform to the parent Act, which may include temporal limitations. Statement 2 is correct because Section 15 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, provides the statutory framework for the exercise of powers, allowing for the imposition of conditions, including time-bound expirations, on delegated authorities. Statement 3 is correct as the 2017 Committee on Subordinate Legislation report explicitly advocated for sunset clauses to ensure periodic parliamentary review and prevent the permanent entrenchment of administrative regulations.

Consider the following statements regarding Role of Attorney General in vetting subordinate rules: 1. Under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the Attorney General serves as an ex-officio member of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation to advise on technical rule-making. 2. The Ministry of Law and Justice maintains a registry of delegated rules that the Attorney General examines annually, as per the guidelines issued by the Cabinet Secretariat in 1998. 3. The Manual on Parliamentary Procedures in India, updated in 2021, outlines that the Ministry of Law and Justice acts as the primary agency for vetting subordinate legislation before final notification. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct as the Ministry of Law and Justice (Department of Legal Affairs) is the nodal agency responsible for vetting subordinate legislation to ensure legal consistency before final notification. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Attorney General is not an ex-officio member of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation; the Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker. Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no such 1998 Cabinet Secretariat guideline mandating an annual examination of a registry of delegated rules by the Attorney General.

Consider the following statements regarding Legislative control via laying requirements: 1. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation was first constituted in the Lok Sabha in 1953 to scrutinize the power delegated by Parliament to the executive. 2. The 'laying on the table' procedure allows Parliament to exercise oversight by ensuring that rules framed under an Act are presented before both Houses. 3. Section 8 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, provides the legal framework for the construction of references to repealed enactments in delegated legislation. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation was indeed established in the Lok Sabha in 1953 to examine whether the powers to make regulations are being properly exercised. Statement 2 is correct because the 'laying' procedure is a mandatory constitutional and statutory mechanism that ensures transparency and allows Parliament to modify or annul delegated rules. Statement 3 is correct as Section 8 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, explicitly governs how references to repealed enactments should be construed in subsequent legislation, including delegated rules.

Consider the following statements regarding Delegated legislation during Proclamation of Emergency: 1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced provisions that allowed the Union to extend its executive power to any State, even in matters not related to the specific cause of the emergency. 2. Under Article 353(a) of the Constitution, the executive power of the Union extends to the giving of directions to a State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised during a Proclamation of Emergency. 3. During the internal emergency of 1975, the Maintenance of Internal Security Act provided the executive with the power to issue rules, and these rules were protected from judicial scrutiny by the 38th Constitutional Amendment Act in all High Courts. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, amended Article 353 to empower the Union to extend its executive power to any State, regardless of whether the emergency is in operation in that specific State. Statement 2 is correct because Article 353(a) explicitly grants the Union the authority to direct States on how to exercise their executive power during an emergency. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the 38th Amendment Act, 1975, barred judicial review of the Proclamation of Emergency itself, it did not provide blanket immunity to all rules under the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) from judicial scrutiny in all High Courts, as evidenced by the subsequent judicial activism during that period.

Consider the following statements regarding Applicability of natural justice in rule-making: 1. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Article 323A, which incorporates the principles of natural justice into the rule-making process for all subordinate legislations. 2. The 1992 Supreme Court ruling in K.I. Shephard v. Union of India provides for the universal application of the audi alteram partem rule during the drafting of all statutory rules under the Companies Act, 1956. 3. Article 13 of the Constitution defines law to include delegated legislation, and the 1950 Shankari Prasad case established that such rules are subject to the same procedural fairness standards as judicial orders. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 323A pertains to Administrative Tribunals, not the incorporation of natural justice into all subordinate legislation. Statement 2 is incorrect as K.I. Shephard v. Union of India (1987) dealt with the rights of employees post-amalgamation of banks, not the universal application of audi alteram partem in drafting statutory rules. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Article 13 includes delegated legislation in the definition of 'law', the Shankari Prasad case (1951) dealt with the amending power of Parliament under Article 368, and the judiciary generally maintains that legislative functions (rule-making) do not require the same procedural fairness standards as quasi-judicial or administrative orders.

Consider the following statements regarding Delegation of taxing power and its limitations: 1. The Supreme Court in the 1963 Vasantlal Sanagoo case held that the legislature cannot delegate the essential legislative function of fixing the rate of tax to the executive. 2. The principle of excessive delegation is associated with the 1973 Kesavananda Bharati judgment, which permits the executive to modify tax structures provided the changes are tabled in the Rajya Sabha within 30 days. 3. The 1950 Constitution refers to the separation of powers, and the 1980 Minerva Mills case expanded the scope of delegated legislation to include the power to levy retrospective taxes on corporate entities. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the Vasantlal Sanagoo case (1963) established that while the legislature can delegate the power to fix tax rates, it cannot delegate the 'essential legislative function' of determining the policy and essential features of the tax. Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of excessive delegation is a doctrine of administrative law related to the separation of powers, not the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, and there is no constitutional requirement for tax modifications to be tabled in the Rajya Sabha within 30 days. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Minerva Mills case (1980) dealt with the basic structure doctrine and judicial review, not the expansion of delegated legislation for retrospective corporate taxation.

Consider the following statements regarding Doctrine of Ultra Vires in delegated legislation: 1. The 1935 Government of India Act provided for the initial framework of delegated legislation, and the 1937 Federal Court ruling in the United Provinces v. Atiqa Begum case affirmed the plenary power of the executive to amend primary statutes. 2. Under the provisions of the 1952 Committee on Subordinate Legislation, the Parliament reviews delegated rules, and the 1954 Report of the Committee suggested that the executive branch holds the final authority to determine the scope of its own rule-making power. 3. The 1973 Kesavananda Bharati judgment defined the basic structure of the Constitution, and it also established that the doctrine of ultra vires applies to the Parliament's power to enact constitutional amendments under Article 368. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the executive does not have plenary power to amend primary statutes through delegated legislation, and the Atiqa Begum case actually dealt with the scope of legislative powers under the 1935 Act, not executive amendment powers. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Committee on Subordinate Legislation scrutinizes rules to ensure they do not exceed the parent Act, and the executive is never the final authority on the scope of its own rule-making power, as this remains subject to judicial review. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Kesavananda Bharati case established the Basic Structure doctrine, it did not apply the doctrine of ultra vires to Article 368 amendments in the context of delegated legislation, which is a separate legal concept concerning executive rule-making rather than parliamentary constitutional amendments.

Consider the following statements regarding Doctrine of Ultra Vires in delegated legislation: 1. The doctrine of ultra vires in Indian administrative law serves as a judicial check on delegated legislation, ensuring that the executive branch remains within the functional boundaries defined by the parent Act of 1950. 2. Article 13 of the Constitution defines law to include ordinances, and the 1987 A.K. Roy v. Union of India judgment confirmed that ordinances are equivalent to primary legislation and remain beyond the reach of the ultra vires doctrine. 3. The 1991 Liberalization Policy shifted the focus of administrative law, and the 1993 Supreme Court decision in the Indra Sawhney case provided that delegated legislation can bypass the parent Act if the executive deems the action necessary for social welfare. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the doctrine of ultra vires mandates that delegated legislation must strictly conform to the scope and objectives of the parent (enabling) Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because while ordinances are 'law' under Article 13, they are not immune to judicial review; the Supreme Court in R.C. Cooper (1970) and D.C. Wadhwa (1987) established that ordinances can be struck down if they are unconstitutional or colorable exercises of power. Statement 3 is incorrect because delegated legislation can never override or bypass the parent Act, as the executive's power is derived solely from the legislature; the Indra Sawhney case dealt with reservation policies and did not grant the executive any authority to violate statutory boundaries.

Consider the following statements regarding Sunset clauses in delegated legislation: 1. The 1968 Report of the Law Commission suggested that sunset clauses should be applied to all ordinances issued under Article 123, mirroring the practice adopted by the United Kingdom's Statutory Instruments Act of 1946. 2. The Administrative Procedure Act of 1946 serves as the primary reference for Indian courts when determining the validity of sunset clauses in delegated legislation, as cited in the 1994 judgment of the Supreme Court. 3. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 320, allows the Speaker to revoke any subordinate legislation that lacks a sunset clause exceeding five years in duration. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. All three statements are incorrect because they lack factual basis in Indian constitutional law. Statement 1 is false as the Law Commission has not mandated sunset clauses for Article 123 ordinances; instead, ordinances have a fixed constitutional lifespan of six weeks after Parliament reconvenes. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Administrative Procedure Act is a United States law, and Indian courts rely on the doctrine of ultra vires and the parent Act for validity, not this US statute. Statement 3 is false as Rule 320 of the Lok Sabha Rules pertains to the 'Committee on Subordinate Legislation' and grants no such power to the Speaker to revoke legislation based on the absence of a sunset clause.

Consider the following statements regarding Sub-delegation of legislative powers: 1. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation was first constituted in the Lok Sabha on 1 December 1953 to scrutinize the exercise of delegated powers. 2. The principle of 'delegatus non potest delegare' serves as a common law doctrine limiting the power of a delegate to further sub-delegate legislative authority. 3. Article 13 of the Indian Constitution includes orders and bye-laws within the definition of law, thereby subjecting delegated legislation to judicial review. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation was indeed established in the Lok Sabha on 1 December 1953 to ensure the executive does not exceed its delegated powers. Statement 2 is correct because the legal maxim 'delegatus non potest delegare' (a delegate cannot delegate) acts as a fundamental check, preventing a delegate from sub-delegating authority unless explicitly authorized by the parent statute. Statement 3 is correct because Article 13(3)(a) explicitly defines 'law' to include ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, and regulations, ensuring that all forms of delegated legislation are subject to judicial review for constitutional validity.

Consider the following statements regarding Relationship between parent Act and subordinate rules: 1. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, established in 1953, examines whether the powers delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised within the framework of the parent Act. 2. The doctrine of ultra vires serves as a judicial check, ensuring that delegated legislation does not exceed the substantive limits defined by the enabling Act passed by the legislature. 3. Under the General Clauses Act of 1897, rules framed under an enactment carry the same legal force as the parent statute provided they remain within the scope of the authority granted. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation was indeed established in 1953 to scrutinize the executive's rule-making power. Statement 2 is correct because the doctrine of ultra vires empowers the judiciary to invalidate rules that exceed the scope or objectives defined by the parent Act. Statement 3 is correct because, under the General Clauses Act, 1897, subordinate legislation derives its legal validity from the parent Act and operates with the same force of law, provided it does not violate the enabling statute.

Consider the following statements regarding Mandatory versus directory nature of procedural rules: 1. Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, outlines the procedure for making rules after previous publication, which courts often interpret as directory rather than mandatory in the absence of prejudice to the affected parties. 2. The Supreme Court in the 1957 case of Pratap Singh v. State of Punjab established that procedural provisions in delegated legislation are directory when the object of the enactment is not defeated by a minor deviation. 3. The 1950 Constitution of India contains Article 13(3)(a), which provides for the definition of law and includes a clause that classifies every procedural rule made by an executive authority as mandatory. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, mandates previous publication, but courts often treat these procedural requirements as directory if no substantial prejudice is caused to stakeholders. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Pratap Singh v. State of Punjab (1964) established the 'substantial compliance' doctrine, ruling that minor procedural deviations do not invalidate delegated legislation if the primary object of the statute is achieved. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 13(3)(a) defines 'law' to include orders, bye-laws, rules, and regulations, but it does not classify all procedural rules as mandatory; the mandatory or directory nature is determined by judicial interpretation based on legislative intent.

Consider the following statements regarding Exclusion of judicial review through ouster clauses: 1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, attempted to restrict the power of High Courts under Article 226, a move later reversed by the 43rd Amendment. 2. The doctrine of 'ultra vires' allows courts to examine delegated legislation even when the parent statute contains a clause purporting to exclude judicial intervention. 3. Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, the Supreme Court in the L. Chandra Kumar case ruled that the exclusion of High Court jurisdiction is unconstitutional. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the 42nd Amendment inserted Article 226A to restrict High Court jurisdiction, which was subsequently repealed by the 43rd Amendment in 1977. Statement 2 is correct because the doctrine of ultra vires is a fundamental principle of administrative law, and courts maintain that ouster clauses cannot shield delegated legislation that exceeds the scope of the parent Act. Statement 3 is correct because in L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court held that the power of judicial review vested in High Courts under Article 226 is a 'basic structure' of the Constitution, rendering any legislative attempt to exclude it unconstitutional.

Consider the following statements regarding Scope of 'removal of difficulty' clauses: 1. Section 245 of the Companies Act, 2013, provides for the removal of difficulties by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, extending the scope of this power to include the modification of judicial precedents set by the National Company Law Tribunal. 2. The Supreme Court ruling in the 1974 Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain case affirmed that the executive possesses inherent authority to amend the parent statute through a removal of difficulty clause without parliamentary notification. 3. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation in its 14th Report recommended that removal of difficulty clauses should be time-bound, typically limited to a period of two years from the commencement of the Act. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation consistently recommends a two-year time limit for 'removal of difficulty' clauses to prevent executive overreach. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 245 of the Companies Act pertains to class action suits, not the removal of difficulties, and such clauses cannot empower the executive to override judicial precedents. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court, in cases like Jalan Trading Co. v. Mill Mazdoor Sabha, explicitly held that the executive cannot use such clauses to amend the parent statute itself, as that would violate the doctrine of separation of powers.

Consider the following statements regarding Mandatory versus directory nature of procedural rules: 1. In the 1973 Kesavananda Bharati judgment, the Supreme Court held that the procedural requirements for delegated legislation are part of the basic structure, making compliance a condition precedent for any rule. 2. The 1961 Income Tax Rules were framed under the authority of the Finance Act, and the Supreme Court in subsequent rulings held that procedural timelines in these rules are mandatory due to their fiscal nature. 3. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 234, provides for the automatic expiry of any delegated legislation that fails to undergo a mandatory public hearing within 90 days. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Kesavananda Bharati judgment (1973) established the 'Basic Structure' doctrine regarding constitutional amendments, not procedural rules for delegated legislation. Statement 2 is incorrect as courts generally interpret procedural timelines in fiscal rules as directory rather than mandatory unless the statute explicitly states that non-compliance invalidates the rule. Statement 3 is incorrect because Rule 234 of the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure pertains to the laying of delegated legislation before the House and contains no provision for automatic expiry based on a 90-day public hearing requirement.

Consider the following statements regarding Delegated legislation during Proclamation of Emergency: 1. The President of India is empowered under Article 359 to suspend the enforcement of fundamental rights, and this authority includes the power to issue delegated legislation that overrides the procedural requirements of the Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985. 2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 modified Article 353 to restrict the Union's executive directions to States, and it established a mandatory requirement for the Supreme Court to review all delegated legislation issued during an emergency. 3. Under Article 250, the Parliament is empowered to legislate on State List matters when a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, and such laws remain valid until the State Legislature passes a resolution to repeal them. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 359 allows the suspension of the enforcement of fundamental rights but does not grant the President power to override the Administrative Tribunals Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 44th Amendment restricted executive powers, it did not establish a mandatory requirement for the Supreme Court to review all delegated legislation issued during an emergency. Statement 3 is incorrect because laws made by Parliament under Article 250 on State List matters cease to have effect upon the expiration of six months after the Proclamation of Emergency has ceased to operate, rather than requiring a resolution from the State Legislature for repeal.

Consider the following statements regarding Consultation requirements in rule-making processes: 1. The Motor Vehicles Act of 1988 covers the regulation of transport services, and it allows the state governments to bypass public notification if the draft rules align with the 1989 Central Rules. 2. The Companies Act of 2013 encompasses the regulation of corporate governance, and it refers to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as the body responsible for conducting mandatory parliamentary hearings on all draft rules. 3. The Essential Commodities Act of 1955 is associated with price control mechanisms, and it includes provisions for the National Development Council to approve all delegated legislation prior to its publication. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Motor Vehicles Act does not provide a blanket bypass for public notification based on alignment with Central Rules; mandatory prior publication is a standard requirement. Statement 2 is false as the Companies Act, 2013, requires draft rules to be placed before Parliament for 30 days, but it does not mandate the Ministry of Corporate Affairs to conduct parliamentary hearings for all rules. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, empowers the Central or State governments to issue orders without requiring approval from the National Development Council, which is a policy-advisory body and not a legislative oversight entity.

Consider the following statements regarding Legislative control via laying requirements: 1. The Scrutiny Committee of the Rajya Sabha examines whether the rules framed by the executive are within the scope of the parent Act or the Constitution. 2. A modification of a rule through the laying process involves a formal resolution passed by the House to amend the specific provision of the delegated legislation. 3. Rules framed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, are typically required to be laid before each House of Parliament for a total period of thirty days. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation in both Houses examines whether the executive's rules exceed the powers delegated by the parent Act. Statement 2 is correct because the 'laying' process often includes a provision for modification, where Parliament passes a resolution to amend or annul the rule, which then becomes binding on the executive. Statement 3 is correct because Section 29 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, explicitly mandates that every rule made under the Act must be laid before each House of Parliament for a total period of thirty days, which may be comprised in one session or two or more successive sessions.

Consider the following statements regarding Doctrine of Ultra Vires in delegated legislation: 1. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Article 323A, which provides for the establishment of administrative tribunals to adjudicate disputes concerning the validity of delegated rules and executive orders. 2. The 1950 Constitution grants the President power under Article 123 to promulgate ordinances, and the 1970 Cooper v. Union of India case held that the President's subjective satisfaction regarding the necessity of an ordinance is immune from judicial scrutiny. 3. In the 1966 case of Barium Chemicals Ltd. v. Company Law Board, the Supreme Court of India established that administrative discretion exercised under delegated powers remains subject to judicial review for procedural impropriety. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, inserted Article 323A to establish administrative tribunals for service matters. Statement 3 is correct because the 1966 Barium Chemicals case established that administrative discretion must be based on relevant material, subjecting it to judicial review. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the 1970 Cooper case held the President's satisfaction is not immune from judicial review if it is based on mala fide intentions or irrelevant grounds, the 38th Amendment attempted to make it immune, which was later nullified by the 44th Amendment.

Consider the following statements regarding Applicability of natural justice in rule-making: 1. The 1967 Committee on Subordinate Legislation report recommended the inclusion of a mandatory public hearing clause in the General Clauses Act, 1897, to ensure transparency in rule-making. 2. Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, provides for the procedure of previous publication of rules, which serves as a statutory substitute for the hearing requirement in delegated legislation. 3. The Supreme Court in the 1961 case of Bates v. Lord Hailsham of St. Marylebone held that the rule-making power is a legislative function, thus excluding the application of natural justice principles. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, mandates 'previous publication' of draft rules, allowing public objections as a statutory alternative to the common law rule of natural justice. Statement 3 is correct because the landmark 1972 (not 1961) English case Bates v. Lord Hailsham established that delegated legislation is a legislative act, not a judicial one, and thus principles of natural justice do not apply. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Committee on Subordinate Legislation has consistently advocated for better consultation, there is no such mandatory public hearing clause incorporated into the General Clauses Act, 1897.

Consider the following statements regarding Role of Attorney General in vetting subordinate rules: 1. The Subordinate Legislation Act of 1962 provides for the Attorney General to review delegated rules for constitutional validity, a function inherited from the colonial-era Legal Remembrancer system. 2. The 1950 Constitution includes provisions for the Attorney General to preside over the Drafting Committee of the Ministry of Law, which reviews subordinate rules prior to their publication in the Gazette of India. 3. The Attorney General of India provides legal clearance for all draft notifications under the 1973 Code of Criminal Procedure, a process formalized by the Law Commission in its 14th Report. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. None of the statements are correct because the Attorney General of India has no statutory or constitutional mandate to vet subordinate legislation; such vetting is primarily the responsibility of the Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative Department). The Subordinate Legislation Act does not exist as a single statute, and the Attorney General is not involved in the drafting or clearance of notifications under the CrPC or the Gazette publication process. These functions are administrative duties performed by legal officers within the government, not the Attorney General, whose primary role is to advise the Government of India on legal matters referred to him by the President.

Consider the following statements regarding Publication requirements under the General Clauses Act: 1. The requirement of previous publication under Section 23 applies when the enactment under which the rule is made specifically directs such publication. 2. Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, outlines the procedure for rules or bye-laws made after previous publication. 3. Section 24 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, governs the publication of rules and allows for the retrospective application of bye-laws issued by state legislatures. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 and 2 are correct because Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, mandates a specific procedure for 'previous publication' only when the parent enactment explicitly requires it, ensuring public consultation before rules are finalized. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 24 deals with the continuation of orders, rules, or bye-laws issued under repealed enactments upon the enactment of new legislation, and it does not grant authority for the retrospective application of bye-laws by state legislatures.

Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of Henry VIII clauses: 1. The 1959 Report of the Committee on Delegated Legislation in the UK Parliament identified Henry VIII clauses as a primary mechanism for judicial review of executive actions under the Statutory Instruments Act of 1946. 2. Article 372 of the Indian Constitution provides for the adaptation of existing laws, which the Supreme Court in the 1955 Rajnarain Singh case interpreted as a constitutional basis for Henry VIII clauses. 3. The 1932 Committee on Ministers' Powers, chaired by the Earl of Donoughmore, formally endorsed the use of Henry VIII clauses to ensure administrative efficiency in the 1935 Government of India Act. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1959 report did not identify these clauses as a mechanism for judicial review; rather, the term 'Henry VIII clause' was famously coined by the 1932 Donoughmore Committee to criticize the executive's power to amend primary legislation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Rajnarain Singh case (1954) actually limited the power of delegated legislation, ruling that the executive cannot modify the 'essential policy' of an Act, thereby restricting rather than validating broad Henry VIII-style powers. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Donoughmore Committee strongly condemned these clauses as a 'vicious' departure from constitutional principles, and they were not endorsed as a mechanism for administrative efficiency in the 1935 Act.

Consider the following statements regarding Role of Attorney General in vetting subordinate rules: 1. The Attorney General possesses the authority to stay the implementation of subordinate legislation if the rules conflict with the 1952 General Clauses Act, following a formal request from the Rajya Sabha Chairman. 2. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, established in 1953, maintains the authority to scrutinize rules and regulations framed by the executive to ensure they remain within the scope of the parent Act. 3. Article 76 of the Constitution of India defines the duties of the Attorney General, though the vetting of routine subordinate rules is typically delegated to the Legislative Department under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Attorney General has no constitutional or statutory power to stay the implementation of subordinate legislation; such powers of oversight and scrutiny rest with the Committees on Subordinate Legislation of Parliament. Statement 2 is correct as the Committee on Subordinate Legislation, established in 1953, is mandated to scrutinize whether the powers delegated by the Constitution or Parliament are being properly exercised within the framework of the parent Act. Statement 3 is correct because Article 76 outlines the Attorney General's role as the government's chief legal advisor, while the vetting of subordinate legislation is an administrative function assigned to the Legislative Department under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961.

Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation: 1. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation is empowered to review the delegated powers granted under the 1950 Constitution, and its recommendations are binding on the executive branch. 2. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha specify that the Committee on Subordinate Legislation must include the Attorney General of India as an ex-officio member to provide legal counsel. 3. A Minister is prohibited from being elected as a member of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation to ensure the independent oversight of executive rule-making. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is correct because a Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation to ensure impartial scrutiny of executive rule-making. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Committee examines whether the powers delegated by the Constitution are being properly exercised, its recommendations are advisory and not legally binding on the executive. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker, and the Attorney General of India is not an ex-officio member of this parliamentary committee.

Consider the following statements regarding Publication requirements under the General Clauses Act: 1. The General Clauses Act defines the term 'Official Gazette' as the publication issued by the Government of India, and it encompasses notifications issued by autonomous bodies like the Reserve Bank of India. 2. The publication of the draft rule is accompanied by a notice specifying a date on or after which the draft will be taken into consideration. 3. Section 23 of the General Clauses Act applies to all rules framed under the Constitution of India, and it provides for the validation of delegated legislation by the President of India. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None

Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct because Section 23 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, mandates that when a rule is proposed to be made, it must be published in draft form along with a notice specifying a date for public objections or suggestions. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act defines 'Official Gazette' as the Gazette of India or the Gazette of a State, which does not automatically encompass all notifications of autonomous bodies like the RBI unless specifically notified under the parent statute. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 23 applies only to rules made under Central Acts, not directly to the Constitution of India, and it contains no provision for the President of India to validate delegated legislation.

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