Consider the following statements regarding Judicial activism vs judicial restraint in matters of personal law reform:
1. The Supreme Court in the Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017) case declared the practice of Triple Talaq unconstitutional by a majority verdict of 3:2.
2. The Law Commission of India, in its consultation paper of August 2018, observed that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage of the country's development.
3. The Goa Civil Code, which remains in force today, is a set of civil laws originally introduced by the Portuguese colonial administration in 1867.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2017 Shayara Bano verdict struck down Triple Talaq with a 3:2 majority, emphasizing the need for legislative intervention. Statement 2 is correct because the 21st Law Commission's 2018 consultation paper concluded that a UCC is neither necessary nor desirable at that stage, advocating instead for codification of individual personal laws. Statement 3 is correct as the Goa Civil Code is a remnant of the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, which continues to govern the state's civil matters post-liberation.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between Article 25 (Right to Freedom of Religion) and Article 44:
1. The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 serves as the foundational legislation for a Uniform Civil Code, as it replaced regional customary practices with a singular legal framework for all religious communities in India.
2. The Constituent Assembly debates of 1948 resulted in the adoption of Article 44 as a justiciable right, allowing citizens to approach the High Court for the enforcement of a common personal law.
3. Article 25 of the Constitution provides for the freedom of conscience and free profession of religion, which the 1954 Ratlam Municipal Council judgment defined as subject to the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Hindu Marriage Act applies only to Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs, not all religious communities. Statement 2 is incorrect as Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV, which is non-justiciable and not enforceable by courts. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 25 is subject to public order, morality, and health, and no such Ratlam Municipal Council judgment exists that subordinates religious freedom to the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code.
Consider the following statements regarding Distinction between codification of personal laws and a uniform civil code:
1. The Shah Bano case judgment of 1985 prompted the enactment of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, which addressed maintenance provisions.
2. The Shariat Application Act of 1937 was enacted by the British colonial administration to ensure that the Uniform Civil Code would apply to all Muslim citizens in matters of inheritance.
3. Codification of personal laws involves the legislative process of organizing existing customary practices into a statutory format without necessarily establishing uniformity across religious communities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1986 Act was passed to nullify the Supreme Court's Shah Bano judgment regarding maintenance under Section 125 of the CrPC. Statement 3 is correct because codification merely formalizes existing religious customs into statutes, whereas a Uniform Civil Code aims to replace these diverse personal laws with a single, unified legal framework for all citizens. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Shariat Application Act, 1937, was enacted to replace local customary laws with Islamic law for Muslims, specifically rejecting a uniform code in favor of religious personal law.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisprudence of 'Essential Religious Practices' test in judicial review:
1. The Sabarimala judgment of 2018 involved a constitutional challenge to the exclusion of women aged 10 to 50 years from entering the temple premises.
2. Justice B.K. Mukherjea, in the Shirur Mutt case, observed that the term 'religion' covers all rituals and observances which are regarded as integral parts of a religion by the community itself.
3. In the 2017 Shayara Bano judgment, the Supreme Court examined the practice of triple talaq and held that it did not constitute an essential practice of the Islamic faith.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2018 Sabarimala verdict (Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala) struck down the ban on women aged 10-50, ruling it violated Article 25. Statement 2 is correct because the 1954 Shirur Mutt case established the 'Essential Religious Practices' (ERP) test, with Justice Mukherjea affirming that the court must determine what constitutes an integral part of a religion based on the community's own doctrines. Statement 3 is correct as the 2017 Shayara Bano judgment declared triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) unconstitutional, with the majority holding that it was not an essential religious practice protected under Article 25.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional status under Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Supreme Court of India, in the 1985 Shah Bano Begum case, observed that a common civil code would help the cause of national integration by removing disparate loyalties to laws.
2. Article 44 of the Constitution of India is located within Part IV, which outlines the Directive Principles of State Policy intended to guide the government in framing laws.
3. The Constituent Assembly debates regarding the Uniform Civil Code were primarily steered by the Drafting Committee, which included members such as B.R. Ambedkar and K.M. Munshi.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in the 1985 Shah Bano case emphasized that a UCC would foster national integration by replacing conflicting personal laws. Statement 2 is correct because Article 44 is explicitly enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, which serves as a non-justiciable directive for state policy. Statement 3 is correct as the Drafting Committee, chaired by B.R. Ambedkar and including members like K.M. Munshi, played a pivotal role in debating and placing the UCC within the Directive Principles.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between UCC and the protection of cultural diversity under Article 29:
1. The Supreme Court in the 1985 Shah Bano Begum case observed that a common civil code would help the cause of national integration by removing disparate loyalties to laws.
2. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, which envisions a Uniform Civil Code, is placed under Part IV of the document as a Directive Principle of State Policy.
3. Article 29(1) of the Constitution grants any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India having a distinct language, script, or culture of its own the right to conserve the same.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the Supreme Court in the 1985 Shah Bano case emphasized that a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) would foster national integration by eliminating conflicting personal laws; Article 44 explicitly mandates the state to endeavor to secure a UCC for citizens as a Directive Principle under Part IV; and Article 29(1) constitutionally guarantees the right of any section of citizens to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture, which is often cited in debates regarding the potential friction between state-mandated uniformity and the preservation of minority cultural identities.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of Section 125 of the CrPC in relation to personal laws:
1. Section 125 of the CrPC serves as a secular provision designed to prevent vagrancy and destitution by providing maintenance to wives, children, and parents.
2. The 21st Law Commission of India released a consultation paper in 2018 which suggested that Section 125 of the CrPC is incompatible with the Directive Principles of State Policy regarding personal laws.
3. The Special Marriage Act, 1954, provides a framework for inter-faith unions and includes a provision that automatically exempts couples from the maintenance requirements found in Section 125 of the CrPC.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 125 of the CrPC is a secular, social-welfare measure aimed at preventing destitution, as affirmed by the Supreme Court in the Shah Bano case. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 21st Law Commission's 2018 consultation paper actually emphasized that a Uniform Civil Code is 'neither necessary nor desirable at this stage' and did not declare Section 125 incompatible with DPSP. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Special Marriage Act, 1954, does not exempt couples from Section 125; rather, it provides a secular framework for marriage where maintenance rights under the CrPC remain fully applicable to ensure the protection of vulnerable parties.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal status of personal laws under Article 13 of the Constitution:
1. The 1955 Hindu Marriage Act introduced significant statutory changes to personal laws, yet it remains subject to judicial review under Article 13.
2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer in the 1978 Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum case discussed the legislative inaction regarding a common civil code.
3. Article 13(2) prohibits the State from making any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because statutory personal laws, such as the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, are 'laws in force' under Article 13 and thus subject to judicial review for compliance with Part III. Statement 2 is correct as Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer (along with the bench) in the Shah Bano case (1985, often associated with the 1978 timeline of related debates) famously lamented the lack of a Uniform Civil Code as a 'dead letter' in the Constitution. Statement 3 is correct as it accurately reflects the constitutional mandate of Article 13(2), which explicitly restricts the State from enacting legislation that infringes upon Fundamental Rights.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisprudence of 'Essential Religious Practices' test in judicial review:
1. The 1963 Durgah Committee case introduced the distinction between secular and religious activities, and this judgment provided the primary justification for the passage of the 1956 Hindu Succession Act.
2. The 1994 Ismail Faruqui judgment held that the acquisition of the Ayodhya site was a secular act, and the court utilized the 1991 Places of Worship Act to define the scope of essentiality.
3. In the 2022 Karnataka Hijab row, the High Court cited the 1958 Venkataramana Devaru case to conclude that wearing a headscarf is a core religious tenet protected under the 1950 Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Durgah Committee case (1961) established the 'essential religious practice' test, but the Hindu Succession Act was passed in 1956, years before the judgment. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the Ismail Faruqui (1994) judgment held that a mosque is not an essential part of Islam, it did not utilize the 1991 Places of Worship Act to define essentiality, as that Act pertains to the character of religious places. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Karnataka High Court in the 2022 Hijab case ruled that wearing a hijab is not an essential religious practice in Islam, explicitly rejecting the claim that it is a core tenet protected under Article 25.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of Section 125 of the CrPC in relation to personal laws:
1. The Supreme Court in the Sarla Mudgal case (1995) addressed the issue of bigamy and proposed that Section 125 of the CrPC be replaced by a uniform family code to govern inheritance rights.
2. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
3. The Supreme Court in the Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum case (1985) held that Section 125 of the CrPC applies to all citizens regardless of their religion.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy mandating the State to strive for a Uniform Civil Code. Statement 3 is correct because the 1985 Shah Bano judgment affirmed that Section 125 of the CrPC, which provides for maintenance, is a secular provision applicable to all citizens irrespective of their religion. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 1995 Sarla Mudgal case dealt with bigamy and the necessity of a Uniform Civil Code, it did not propose replacing Section 125 with a family code; rather, it emphasized the need for a uniform law to prevent the evasion of marriage laws through religious conversion.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Law Commission of India in drafting UCC frameworks:
1. The Shah Bano judgment of 1985 led the Law Commission to initiate its first formal study on the constitutional validity of personal laws under the chairmanship of Justice P.N. Bhagwati.
2. The 22nd Law Commission of India issued a public notice in June 2023 seeking fresh inputs on the Uniform Civil Code, acting under the statutory provisions of the Law Commission Act of 1962.
3. The 18th Law Commission, headed by Justice A.R. Lakshmanan, submitted a comprehensive draft bill for a national Uniform Civil Code to the Ministry of Law and Justice in 2009.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Shah Bano case did not trigger a formal Law Commission study on UCC under Justice P.N. Bhagwati. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted through a Government of India resolution, not the Law Commission Act of 1962. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 18th Law Commission, in its 2008 consultation paper, concluded that a uniform civil code is neither necessary nor desirable at that stage and did not submit a comprehensive draft bill for a national UCC.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative competence of Parliament vs State Legislatures under Concurrent List Entry 5:
1. Under Article 254 of the Constitution, if a state law on a Concurrent List subject is repugnant to a law made by Parliament, the parliamentary legislation prevails.
2. The Goa Civil Code, which remains in force under the Goa, Daman and Diu Administration Act of 1962, is a pre-constitutional family law system.
3. The Shah Bano Begum case of 1985 resulted in the enactment of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, which aligned personal law with the requirements of Article 44.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 254 establishes the doctrine of repugnancy, granting supremacy to Parliamentary law over State law in the Concurrent List unless the State law receives Presidential assent. Statement 2 is correct because the Goa Civil Code is a pre-constitutional Portuguese law that continues to operate by virtue of the Goa, Daman and Diu Administration Act, 1962. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, was enacted to override the Supreme Court's judgment in the Shah Bano case, effectively distancing personal law from the constitutional mandate of a Uniform Civil Code under Article 44.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial activism vs judicial restraint in matters of personal law reform:
1. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 allows individuals to marry outside their religious personal laws, and the 2005 amendment to this Act removed the requirement for a 30-day public notice period.
2. In the Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2000) case, the court reiterated that religious freedom under Article 25 is subject to public order, morality, and health, as well as other fundamental rights.
3. The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 provides for the codification of personal laws for Hindus, and the 1976 amendment to this Act introduced the provision for divorce by mutual consent.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Lily Thomas judgment affirmed that religious practices under Article 25 are not absolute and must conform to other fundamental rights and public morality. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 30-day public notice requirement under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, remains in effect and has not been removed by any 2005 amendment. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, codified Hindu personal laws, the provision for divorce by mutual consent was introduced by the 1976 amendment to the Act, but the statement's premise regarding the specific nature of these amendments is often conflated with other legislative reforms.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of state-level UCC initiatives vs central legislation:
1. The Uttarakhand Uniform Civil Code Act, 2024, received the assent of the President of India on 13 March 2024 after being passed by the state legislative assembly.
2. The Constituent Assembly debates concluded with the adoption of a draft Article 35, which later became Article 44, establishing that the Uniform Civil Code would be enforced in phases starting from the year 1960.
3. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 provides a framework for secular marriages and functions as a comprehensive Uniform Civil Code for all religious communities residing within the Indian territory.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Uttarakhand UCC Act, 2024, received Presidential assent on 13 March 2024, following its passage in the state assembly under the Concurrent List. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 44, which directs the State to secure a UCC, contains no provision or timeline for phased implementation starting from 1960. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Special Marriage Act, 1954, is an optional secular framework for those who choose to marry outside personal laws, and it does not replace or function as a comprehensive UCC for all religious communities.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of state-level UCC initiatives vs central legislation:
1. Article 44 of the Constitution of India, which falls under Part IV, directs the state to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
2. The Law Commission of India in its 21st report suggested that a Uniform Civil Code is currently necessary and desirable, recommending that the central government draft a national code by 2020.
3. Under the Concurrent List of the Constitution, state governments hold the authority to amend central personal laws like the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, provided they obtain the consent of the Chief Justice of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy mandating the state to secure a UCC across India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 21st Law Commission’s 2018 consultation paper concluded that a UCC is 'neither necessary nor desirable at this stage,' rather than recommending it. Statement 3 is incorrect because while personal laws fall under the Concurrent List (Entry 5), state amendments to central laws require the assent of the President of India under Article 254(2), not the Chief Justice of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative competence of Parliament vs State Legislatures under Concurrent List Entry 5:
1. The Supreme Court in the Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995) case emphasized the need for a Uniform Civil Code to ensure national integration.
2. Entry 5 of the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution covers marriage and divorce, infants and minors, and adoption.
3. Article 44 of the Constitution, which directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens, is located in Part IV under the Directive Principles of State Policy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the Sarla Mudgal (1995) judgment highlighted the necessity of a UCC for national integration to prevent the misuse of personal laws, Entry 5 of the Concurrent List (List III) explicitly encompasses matters of marriage, divorce, infants, minors, and adoption, and Article 44 is indeed a Directive Principle of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution. Since all statements accurately reflect constitutional provisions and judicial precedents, there are no incorrect statements to refute.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Law Commission of India in drafting UCC frameworks:
1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, which envisions a Uniform Civil Code, is categorized under Part IV as a Directive Principle of State Policy rather than a fundamental right.
2. In its 2018 consultation paper, the Law Commission observed that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage in the country, suggesting instead the codification of various personal laws.
3. The 21st Law Commission of India, chaired by Justice B.S. Chauhan, released a consultation paper on 'Reform of Family Law' in August 2018 regarding the Uniform Civil Code.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) under Part IV, which is non-justiciable and guides state policy rather than conferring enforceable rights. Statement 2 is correct because the 21st Law Commission's 2018 consultation paper argued that a UCC is 'neither necessary nor desirable at this stage,' advocating instead for the amendment and codification of existing personal laws to address discrimination. Statement 3 is correct as the 21st Law Commission, headed by Justice B.S. Chauhan, officially released the consultation paper titled 'Reform of Family Law' in August 2018 to initiate public discourse on the matter.
Consider the following statements regarding Historical evolution from the Shah Bano Begum case to Sarla Mudgal judgment:
1. The 1986 Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act was enacted by the Parliament to limit the scope of maintenance payments to the period of the iddat.
2. In the 1985 Shah Bano Begum case, the Supreme Court invoked Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to grant maintenance to a divorced Muslim woman.
3. The 1986 Muslim Women Act was introduced following the Supreme Court's recommendation in the Danial Latifi case to standardize maintenance across all religious personal laws.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 and 2 are correct because the Supreme Court's 1985 Shah Bano judgment affirmed that Section 125 of the CrPC applies to all citizens regardless of religion, leading the government to enact the 1986 Act to restrict a Muslim husband's maintenance liability to the 'iddat' period. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1986 Act was a legislative response to overturn the Shah Bano verdict, whereas the Danial Latifi (2001) case was a subsequent challenge that upheld the constitutionality of the 1986 Act by interpreting maintenance obligations more broadly.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Law Commission of India in drafting UCC frameworks:
1. The Law Commission's report on the Reform of Family Law in 2018 recommended the immediate repeal of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 to facilitate the adoption of a secular civil code.
2. The Law Commission of India functions as a constitutional body under Article 263, providing research-based recommendations to the Parliament on the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code.
3. The Sarla Mudgal case of 1995 resulted in the Supreme Court directing the Law Commission to prepare a model code for marriage and succession to be implemented across all states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2018 Consultation Paper on Reform of Family Law stated that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage, suggesting instead the codification of various personal laws. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Law Commission is a non-statutory, executive body constituted through a Government of India resolution, not a constitutional body under Article 263 (which pertains to the Inter-State Council). Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Sarla Mudgal judgment emphasized the need for a UCC, the Supreme Court did not direct the Law Commission to draft a model code; rather, it urged the Government to take initiative in this regard.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between UCC and the protection of cultural diversity under Article 29:
1. The Goa Civil Code, which is based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, remains the only instance of a state-level uniform family law currently in force in India.
2. The Constituent Assembly debates of November 1948 saw K.M. Munshi argue that the state is entitled to regulate secular activities connected with religious practices.
3. The 21st Law Commission of India released a consultation paper in August 2018 stating that a uniform civil code is neither necessary nor desirable at that stage.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Goa Civil Code, derived from the 1867 Portuguese Code, is the only state-level uniform family law in India. Statement 2 is correct because K.M. Munshi, during the 1948 Constituent Assembly debates, advocated for the state's power to regulate secular activities linked to religion to ensure social reform. Statement 3 is correct as the 21st Law Commission's 2018 consultation paper concluded that a UCC is neither necessary nor desirable at that stage, emphasizing the need for 'diversity with unity' over uniformity.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisprudence of 'Essential Religious Practices' test in judicial review:
1. The 1951 Hindu Religious Endowments Act established the initial legal framework for the Essential Religious Practices test, which was later incorporated into the 1954 Shirur Mutt verdict.
2. Article 25(2)(a) of the Constitution permits the state to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political, or other secular activity associated with religious practice.
3. The Essential Religious Practices test was first articulated by the Supreme Court in the 1954 Shirur Mutt case regarding the administration of religious denominations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 25(2)(a) empowers the state to regulate secular activities associated with religious practices to ensure social welfare and reform. Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court formally introduced the 'Essential Religious Practices' doctrine in the 1954 Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt case to determine which practices are protected under Article 26. Statement 1 is incorrect because the test was not established by the 1951 Act; rather, it was a judicial innovation derived by the Supreme Court in the 1954 Shirur Mutt verdict to interpret the scope of religious freedom.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional status under Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Goa Civil Code, which remains in force today, was enacted by the Portuguese colonial administration in 1867 and was subsequently adopted by the Indian Parliament under the Goa, Daman and Diu Administration Act of 1962.
2. The Fundamental Rights Subcommittee of the Constituent Assembly, chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, voted to include the Uniform Civil Code as a justiciable right under Article 25 of the Constitution.
3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Article 44 into the original text of the Constitution to ensure uniformity in personal laws across all states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Goa Civil Code was not adopted by the Indian Parliament via the 1962 Act, but rather continued in force by the Goa, Daman and Diu (Administration) Act, 1962, which allowed pre-existing laws to remain until amended or repealed. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Fundamental Rights Subcommittee, chaired by Sardar Patel, rejected the inclusion of the UCC as a justiciable fundamental right, leading to its placement as a non-justiciable Directive Principle. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 44 was part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950 and was not introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
Consider the following statements regarding Impact of UCC on gender justice and equality under Article 14 and Article 15:
1. The Supreme Court in the 1985 Shah Bano Begum case emphasized the necessity of a Uniform Civil Code to provide a common platform for gender justice across religious lines.
2. The 1973 Code of Criminal Procedure introduced Section 125 to provide maintenance for divorced women, and the Supreme Court in the 1986 Sarla Mudgal judgment extended this provision to cover all personal law matters.
3. Article 44 of the Constitution, contained in Part IV, directs the State to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in the 1985 Shah Bano case advocated for a UCC to eliminate discrimination in maintenance laws across religions. Statement 3 is correct because Article 44, a Directive Principle of State Policy, mandates the State to strive for a uniform civil code for all citizens. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Section 125 of the CrPC provides for maintenance, the Sarla Mudgal judgment (1995) dealt with bigamy and the validity of second marriages under personal laws, not the extension of Section 125 to all personal law matters.
Consider the following statements regarding Historical evolution from the Shah Bano Begum case to Sarla Mudgal judgment:
1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, which envisions a Uniform Civil Code, is categorized as a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV.
2. In the Sarla Mudgal judgment, the Supreme Court declared that the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, is the primary legislation governing all inter-religious marriages in India since 1956.
3. The Shah Bano Begum case originated from a petition filed under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939, which the Supreme Court used to interpret the scope of Article 44.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 44, part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), mandates that the State shall endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sarla Mudgal judgment (1995) focused on the illegality of bigamy by Hindu men converting to Islam solely to bypass the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, rather than declaring it the primary law for all inter-religious marriages. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Shah Bano case (1985) originated from a petition for maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), not the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939.
Consider the following statements regarding Uniformity in marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption laws:
1. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act of 2005 granted daughters equal rights to coparcenary property in Hindu Undivided Families, regardless of their marital status.
2. The Goa Civil Code, which remains in force today, is a set of civil laws originally implemented by the Portuguese colonial administration in 1867.
3. The Shariat Application Act of 1937 governs the inheritance of agricultural land in rural India and was amended by the 1956 Hindu Succession Act to include female heirs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the 2005 amendment to the Hindu Succession Act removed gender discrimination, granting daughters equal coparcenary rights as sons. Statement 2 is correct as the Goa Civil Code, based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, remains the only instance of a uniform civil code in India. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Shariat Application Act of 1937 deals with personal laws for Muslims and does not govern Hindu inheritance; furthermore, the Hindu Succession Act of 1956 explicitly excludes agricultural land from its purview, leaving it to be governed by state-specific tenancy laws.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of state-level UCC initiatives vs central legislation:
1. The Goa Civil Code, which is based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, was extended to the entire territory of India by the Goa, Daman and Diu Reorganisation Act of 1987.
2. The Supreme Court of India in the Shah Bano case of 1985 observed that Article 44 is a justiciable provision, thereby allowing citizens to approach the High Courts for its implementation.
3. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution places the subject of personal laws under the Union List, which permits the Parliament to enact a Uniform Civil Code without consulting state legislatures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Goa Civil Code applies only within the state of Goa and was not extended to the rest of India. Statement 2 is false as the Supreme Court in the Shah Bano case (1985) reiterated that Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy and is non-justiciable, meaning it cannot be enforced by courts. Statement 3 is incorrect because 'Personal laws' fall under the Concurrent List (Entry 5, List III), allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on the subject, provided there is no repugnancy with central law.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial activism vs judicial restraint in matters of personal law reform:
1. In the 1985 Shah Bano Begum v. Mohammad Ahmed Khan case, the Supreme Court invoked Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure to grant maintenance to a divorced Muslim woman.
2. The Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995) judgment highlighted the need for a Uniform Civil Code to prevent the practice of religious conversion for the purpose of solemnizing a second marriage.
3. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution places the Uniform Civil Code under the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are fundamental in the governance of the country.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1985 Shah Bano judgment affirmed that Section 125 of the CrPC applies to all citizens regardless of religion, granting maintenance to divorced Muslim women. Statement 2 is correct because the 1995 Sarla Mudgal case explicitly urged the government to enact a Uniform Civil Code to curb the misuse of religious conversion for bigamy. Statement 3 is correct as Article 44 is enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, and Article 37 explicitly declares that Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country, though they are not enforceable by any court.
Consider the following statements regarding Historical evolution from the Shah Bano Begum case to Sarla Mudgal judgment:
1. The 1996 Lily Thomas case clarified that the Sarla Mudgal judgment applies to marriages performed under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
2. Justice Kuldip Singh, in the Sarla Mudgal verdict, observed that Article 44 of the Constitution has remained a dead letter for over four decades.
3. The 1995 Sarla Mudgal judgment addressed the legal validity of a second marriage contracted by a Hindu husband after converting to Islam without dissolving the first marriage.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the 1995 Sarla Mudgal judgment ruled that a Hindu husband cannot bypass the Hindu Marriage Act by converting to Islam to contract a second marriage, while Justice Kuldip Singh famously critiqued the state's failure to implement Article 44 as a 'dead letter.' Subsequently, the 1996 Lily Thomas case clarified and reinforced the procedural application of the Sarla Mudgal verdict, ensuring it remained binding for marriages governed by the Hindu Marriage Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Interplay between UCC and the Right to Privacy under Puttaswamy judgment:
1. The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 codified personal laws for Hindus, and the 1976 amendment to this Act established the constitutional basis for the Uniform Civil Code as defined in the Puttaswamy verdict.
2. The Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the Constitution.
3. The 1973 Code of Criminal Procedure introduced Section 125 to provide maintenance to divorced women, and the Puttaswamy judgment incorporated this section as a protected element of marital privacy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the nine-judge bench in the 2017 Puttaswamy judgment unanimously affirmed that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. Statement 1 is incorrect as the Hindu Marriage Act (1955) is a personal law, and the constitutional basis for a Uniform Civil Code is found in Article 44 of the Directive Principles, not in the 1976 amendment or the Puttaswamy verdict. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Section 125 of the CrPC provides for maintenance, the Puttaswamy judgment focused on informational and decisional privacy and did not incorporate or classify this specific statutory maintenance provision as an element of marital privacy.
Consider the following statements regarding Distinction between codification of personal laws and a uniform civil code:
1. The 21st Law Commission of India released a consultation paper in August 2018 stating that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage.
2. The 1973 judgment in the Kesavananda Bharati case established that the Directive Principles of State Policy, including Article 44, hold primacy over the Fundamental Rights of religious freedom.
3. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 provides a secular framework for civil unions and was introduced by the B.N. Rau Committee to replace all existing religious personal laws.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 21st Law Commission's 2018 consultation paper concluded that a UCC is not necessary or desirable at this stage, favoring instead the reform of existing personal laws. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court has consistently held that Fundamental Rights hold primacy, and the Kesavananda Bharati case established the Basic Structure doctrine, not the supremacy of DPSP over religious freedom. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Special Marriage Act, 1954, is an optional secular law that exists alongside, rather than replacing, religious personal laws, and it was not a product of the B.N. Rau Committee, which dealt with the Hindu Code Bill.
Consider the following statements regarding International perspective on UCC in secular democracies:
1. The French Civil Code of 1804, also known as the Napoleonic Code, established a unified legal framework that replaced the disparate regional customs and feudal laws existing across France.
2. Article 16 of the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) encourages state parties to ensure equality in marriage and family relations, which informs the discourse on uniform personal laws in secular democracies.
3. The 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights includes Article 17 regarding property rights, which served as the primary legal basis for the United Kingdom to abolish its ecclesiastical marriage courts in 1950.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1804 Napoleonic Code successfully unified France's fragmented legal system into a single civil code. Statement 2 is correct because Article 16 of CEDAW mandates that state parties eliminate discrimination against women in all matters relating to marriage and family, providing a global normative framework for uniform personal laws. Statement 3 is incorrect because the UK's transition away from ecclesiastical courts occurred primarily through the Matrimonial Causes Act 1857, not the 1948 UDHR, and Article 17 of the UDHR pertains to the right to own property, not marriage law.
Consider the following statements regarding Implications of UCC on the 'Basic Structure' doctrine:
1. The 21st Law Commission report released in August 2018 suggests that a Uniform Civil Code is undesirable at this stage, citing the 1973 Basic Structure doctrine as a legal barrier to personal law reform.
2. The Supreme Court in the Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017) case struck down triple talaq, noting that the practice violated the fundamental right to equality protected under the Basic Structure doctrine.
3. The Goa Civil Code, which originated from the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, serves as the primary constitutional model for the national Uniform Civil Code proposed by the Law Commission in 2018.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 21st Law Commission's 2018 consultation paper stated that a UCC is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage, focusing on diversity rather than the Basic Structure doctrine as a legal barrier. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Supreme Court struck down triple talaq in Shayara Bano (2017) based on the test of 'manifest arbitrariness' under Article 14, it did not explicitly invoke the Basic Structure doctrine to invalidate the practice. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Law Commission explicitly noted that the Goa Civil Code cannot be considered a model for the entire country due to its unique historical context and inherent flaws, rather than proposing it as a constitutional template.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional position of the Special Marriage Act, 1954 as a precursor:
1. Article 44 of the Constitution, which directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code, was invoked by the Supreme Court in the 1985 Shah Bano judgment to validate the procedural requirements of the 1954 Act.
2. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 repealed the earlier Special Marriage Act of 1872, providing a secular framework for civil marriages independent of personal religious laws.
3. Section 19 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, provides that a person professing Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh, or Jain religion who marries under this Act shall be deemed to have severed their connection with their undivided family.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Shah Bano judgment (1985) dealt with maintenance under Section 125 of the CrPC and emphasized the need for a UCC as a constitutional mandate, but it did not invoke Article 44 to validate the procedural requirements of the 1954 Act. Statement 2 is correct as the 1954 Act replaced the 1872 Act to establish a secular legal framework for marriage, allowing individuals to marry regardless of their religious affiliation. Statement 3 is correct because Section 19 of the 1954 Act stipulates that a person belonging to the specified religious communities who marries under this Act is deemed to have severed their status as a member of their undivided family, effectively impacting their succession rights.
Consider the following statements regarding Distinction between codification of personal laws and a uniform civil code:
1. The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 represents a process of codification that reformed personal laws for Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs.
2. Article 44 of the Constitution of India specifies that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
3. The Goa Civil Code, based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, remains the only instance of a pre-existing uniform family law framework applied within an Indian state.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, codified and reformed personal laws for Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs, moving away from diverse customary practices. Statement 2 is correct as Article 44, a Directive Principle of State Policy, mandates that the State shall endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens across India. Statement 3 is correct because the Goa Civil Code, derived from the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, serves as the only state-level example of a uniform family law framework that predates and persists post-integration.
Consider the following statements regarding Uniformity in marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption laws:
1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, situated under Part IV, directs the state to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
2. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 allows individuals from different religious backgrounds to marry under a civil framework, independent of their personal religious laws.
3. The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 incorporates provisions for the registration of marriages and extends its jurisdiction to the residents of Jammu and Kashmir since the 1954 Presidential Order.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy aimed at national integration through a common set of personal laws. Statement 2 is correct because the Special Marriage Act, 1954, provides a secular legal framework for inter-religious marriages, bypassing personal religious codes. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, does apply to Jammu and Kashmir, it was extended there following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019, not the 1954 Presidential Order.
Consider the following statements regarding Comparative analysis of Goa Civil Code with potential national models:
1. The Goa Civil Code incorporates the Shariat Act of 1937, which regulates the inheritance patterns of Muslim residents in the state alongside the provisions of the 1867 Portuguese law.
2. Under the Goa Succession, Special Notaries and Inventory Proceeding Act of 1966, spouses share ownership of assets acquired during the marriage, irrespective of who earned the income.
3. The Goa Civil Code, derived from the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, remains the only state-level family law system in India that applies to residents regardless of their religious affiliation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Goa Civil Code explicitly excludes the Shariat Act of 1937 and other personal laws, maintaining a uniform framework for all residents. Statement 2 is correct as the 1966 Act establishes a 'communion of assets' regime, where spouses hold equal ownership of property acquired during marriage. Statement 3 is correct because the code, rooted in the 1867 Portuguese Civil Code, remains the only instance in India where a single set of family laws applies uniformly to all religious communities within a state.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between UCC and the protection of cultural diversity under Article 29:
1. The 1954 Special Marriage Act allows for inter-religious unions, and the 2019 amendment to this Act introduced a clause protecting the personal law rights of tribal communities under Article 29.
2. The 1973 Code of Criminal Procedure includes Section 125 regarding maintenance for divorced women, and the 1986 Muslim Women Act was enacted to align this section with the provisions of Article 29.
3. The 1955 Hindu Marriage Act covers the codification of personal laws for Hindus, and the 1976 amendment to this Act incorporated specific safeguards for the customary practices of Scheduled Tribes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Special Marriage Act, 1954 does not contain a clause protecting tribal personal law rights under Article 29. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 was enacted to restrict the scope of Section 125 CrPC for Muslim women following the Shah Bano case, rather than aligning it with Article 29. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 explicitly excludes members of Scheduled Tribes from its purview under Section 2(2) unless specifically notified by the Central Government, and no 1976 amendment incorporated such safeguards.
Consider the following statements regarding Status of tribal customary laws and Article 371 protections:
1. Article 371G grants the Mizoram Legislative Assembly the power to modify the application of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, which aligns with the constitutional framework established by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
2. Article 371A provides that no Act of Parliament in respect of Naga customary law and procedure shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a resolution so decides.
3. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution allows Autonomous District Councils to formulate laws on inheritance and marriage, which the Supreme Court in the 1995 Sarla Mudgal judgment identified as a primary barrier to national legislative uniformity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 371A explicitly mandates that no Act of Parliament regarding Naga religious or social practices and customary law shall apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides. Statement 1 is incorrect because while Article 371G grants Mizoram similar powers, it is not linked to the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, which primarily dealt with the emergency-era restructuring of the Constitution. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Sarla Mudgal judgment (1995) focused on the issue of bigamy and the necessity of a Uniform Civil Code under Article 44, and it did not identify the Sixth Schedule's legislative powers as a primary barrier to uniformity.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between Article 25 (Right to Freedom of Religion) and Article 44:
1. The Supreme Court in the 1985 Shah Bano Begum case observed that a common civil code will help the cause of national integration by removing disparate loyalties to laws which have conflicting ideologies.
2. Article 44 of the Constitution of India, located within Part IV, provides that the State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
3. The Directive Principles of State Policy, including Article 44, were incorporated into the Constitution via the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 to ensure uniformity in personal law matters.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in the Shah Bano case (1985) emphasized that a Uniform Civil Code would promote national integration by reducing legislative fragmentation. Statement 2 is correct because Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution, mandating the State to strive for a uniform code. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 44 was part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950, not introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal status of personal laws under Article 13 of the Constitution:
1. In the 1952 case of State of Bombay v. Narasu Appa Mali, the Bombay High Court held that personal laws are not laws in force under Article 13.
2. The Supreme Court in the 1996 Sarla Mudgal case observed that the Uniform Civil Code is a matter of constitutional concern under Article 44.
3. Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution includes customs or usages having in the territory of India the force of law within the definition of law.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Bombay High Court in State of Bombay v. Narasu Appa Mali (1952) ruled that personal laws are excluded from the definition of 'laws in force' under Article 13, meaning they cannot be challenged for violating fundamental rights. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995/1996) emphasized the necessity of a Uniform Civil Code as a constitutional mandate under Article 44 to promote national integration. Statement 3 is correct because Article 13(3)(a) explicitly defines 'law' to include any ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom, or usage having the force of law in India.
Consider the following statements regarding Comparative analysis of Goa Civil Code with potential national models:
1. The Portuguese Civil Code of 1867 underwent a major revision in 1974 to align its inheritance provisions with the Hindu Succession Act of 1956, thereby creating a unified national standard for all Goan communities.
2. The 1961 Goa, Daman and Diu Administration Act includes a specific clause that allows the central government to amend family laws in the region through executive notifications without parliamentary approval.
3. The Goa Civil Code provides for the registration of marriages at the Civil Registry Office, a process that was established under the colonial administration in the late 19th century.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because the Goa Civil Code, derived from the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, mandates the compulsory registration of marriages at the Civil Registry Office, a practice established during the colonial era. Statement 1 is incorrect because the code has not been aligned with the Hindu Succession Act of 1956; instead, it retains unique features like the 'communion of assets' which remains distinct from national personal laws. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Goa, Daman and Diu Administration Act of 1962 does not grant the executive power to bypass Parliament for amending family laws; such legislative changes require the standard parliamentary process.
Consider the following statements regarding Uniformity in marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption laws:
1. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act of 1939 provides women the right to seek divorce on specific grounds and was enacted following the recommendations of the 1935 Law Commission report.
2. The Shah Bano Begum v. Union of India judgment of 1985 brought the issue of maintenance under personal laws into the national discourse regarding the need for a common civil code.
3. The Adoption Regulations of 2017, notified by the Central Adoption Resource Authority, provide a standardized procedure for inter-country adoptions under the framework of the 1993 Hague Convention.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the 1985 Shah Bano judgment highlighted the conflict between personal laws and Section 125 of the CrPC, sparking a national debate on the Uniform Civil Code. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1939 Act was a result of the efforts of Islamic scholars like Maulana Ashraf Ali Thanvi, not a 1935 Law Commission report. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2017 Regulations were notified under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, rather than directly under the 1993 Hague Convention framework.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional validity of Section 125 of the CrPC in relation to personal laws:
1. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, contains a specific clause that limits the jurisdiction of secular courts under Section 125 of the CrPC when parties are governed by personal law customs.
2. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, was enacted by Parliament following the judicial interpretation of Section 125 of the CrPC in the Shah Bano judgment.
3. In the Danial Latifi v. Union of India (2001) case, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the 1986 Act by interpreting the provision of 'reasonable and fair provision' to be made within the iddat period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 125 of the CrPC is a secular provision applicable to all citizens regardless of religion, and no personal law act limits its jurisdiction. Statement 2 is correct as the 1986 Act was a legislative response to the Supreme Court's 1985 Shah Bano verdict, which had affirmed a Muslim woman's right to maintenance under the CrPC. Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court in Danial Latifi (2001) saved the 1986 Act from being declared unconstitutional by ruling that the 'reasonable and fair provision' mandated by the Act must cover the woman's entire life, not just the iddat period.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional status under Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 contains a provision under Section 29 that allows for the automatic application of a uniform civil code to all citizens of India upon the notification of a central gazette.
2. Article 37 of the Constitution provides that the principles laid down in Article 44 are enforceable by the High Courts through the issuance of writs in cases where personal laws conflict with public policy.
3. The Law Commission of India, in its 21st report submitted in 2018, recommended the immediate implementation of a uniform code to replace existing religious personal laws in the interest of gender equality.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, does not contain any provision for the automatic application of a Uniform Civil Code. Statement 2 is incorrect as Article 37 explicitly states that Directive Principles, including Article 44, are not enforceable by any court, meaning High Courts cannot issue writs to enforce them. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 21st Law Commission's 2018 consultation paper concluded that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at that stage, instead recommending the codification of personal laws to address discrimination.
Consider the following statements regarding Interplay between UCC and the Right to Privacy under Puttaswamy judgment:
1. The Puttaswamy judgment established that any state interference with privacy must pass the triple test of legality, need, and proportionality.
2. The 21st Law Commission of India released a consultation paper in August 2018, noting that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage.
3. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavor to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) verdict established the 'triple test'-legality, legitimate state aim, and proportionality-for any state intrusion into privacy. Statement 2 is correct because the 21st Law Commission’s August 2018 consultation paper concluded that a UCC is 'neither necessary nor desirable at this stage,' suggesting instead the codification of various personal laws. Statement 3 is correct as Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) that mandates the State to strive for a uniform civil code for all citizens across India.
Consider the following statements regarding International perspective on UCC in secular democracies:
1. Japan adopted the Meiji Civil Code in 1898, which incorporated Western legal principles and provided for the immediate dissolution of the traditional Ie family system to ensure gender equality in inheritance.
2. The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms, enacted in 1982, provides for the harmonization of provincial family laws, resulting in a national uniform code that governs divorce proceedings across all territories.
3. The 1996 South African Constitution includes the Recognition of Customary Marriages Act, which functions as a federal statute that replaced all traditional tribal marriage practices with a single secular code.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Meiji Civil Code of 1898 actually reinforced the patriarchal 'Ie' (family) system, which was only dismantled post-WWII under the 1947 Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect as Canada does not have a national uniform family code; family law remains under provincial jurisdiction, and the Charter focuses on rights rather than legal harmonization. Statement 3 is incorrect because the South African Constitution recognizes customary marriages alongside civil law, and the 1998 Act serves to integrate customary practices into the legal framework rather than replacing them with a single secular code.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional position of the Special Marriage Act, 1954 as a precursor:
1. Under the provisions of the 1954 Act, the marriage of two persons of different religions is subject to the personal law of the husband, unless the parties opt for the Indian Succession Act, 1925.
2. The Special Marriage Act, 1954, contains a specific provision that permits the conversion of a religious marriage into a civil marriage through a joint declaration before a District Magistrate.
3. The 1954 legislation replaced the Civil Marriage Act of 1872, which was originally introduced by Sir Henry Maine to facilitate inter-faith unions during the British colonial administration.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Special Marriage Act (SMA), 1954, operates independently of personal laws, and succession for those married under it is governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925, by default, not by the husband's personal law. Statement 2 is incorrect as the SMA does not contain a provision for converting an existing religious marriage into a civil marriage; it only provides a framework for solemnizing a new civil marriage. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the SMA, 1954, repealed the Special Marriage Act of 1872, the 1872 Act was not introduced by Sir Henry Maine, but was a result of the efforts of reformers like Keshab Chandra Sen to allow inter-caste and inter-religious marriages without requiring the renunciation of one's religion.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between Article 25 (Right to Freedom of Religion) and Article 44:
1. The Law Commission of India, in its 21st report submitted in 2018, recommended the immediate enactment of a Uniform Civil Code to replace the existing personal laws governing marriage, divorce, and succession.
2. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 functions as a mandatory civil code for all citizens, as it operates independently of the religious personal laws applicable to Hindus, Muslims, and Christians.
3. The Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India judgment of 1995 established that Article 25 provides an exemption for religious personal laws from the scope of Article 44, effectively prioritizing individual religious freedom over state legislative action.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 21st Law Commission's 2018 consultation paper stated that a UCC is 'neither necessary nor desirable at this stage,' suggesting instead the codification of personal laws. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an optional secular law that citizens may choose to marry under, rather than a mandatory code replacing religious personal laws. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Sarla Mudgal judgment actually emphasized the need for a UCC to prevent the misuse of religious conversion for bigamy and did not grant religious personal laws an exemption from Article 44.
Consider the following statements regarding Implications of UCC on the 'Basic Structure' doctrine:
1. Article 25 of the Constitution provides for the freedom of conscience, and the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced the term 'secular' to facilitate the immediate implementation of a Uniform Civil Code.
2. Article 44 of the Constitution, which directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code, was debated in the Constituent Assembly on 23 November 1948.
3. The Shah Bano case of 1985 resulted in the enactment of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, which the Supreme Court later incorporated into the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 44 was indeed discussed in the Constituent Assembly on 23 November 1948, where members debated whether the UCC should be mandatory or directory. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 42nd Amendment added 'secular' to the Preamble, it was not intended to facilitate the 'immediate' implementation of the UCC, which remains a Directive Principle under Article 44. Statement 3 is incorrect because, although the Shah Bano case led to the 1986 Act, the Supreme Court never incorporated this specific legislation into the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution; the Basic Structure doctrine is a judicial principle established in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) to limit the Parliament's amending power.
Consider the following statements regarding Comparative analysis of Goa Civil Code with potential national models:
1. The Indian Succession Act of 1925 serves as the foundational framework for the Goa Civil Code, providing the legal basis for the inventory proceedings conducted by the state judiciary.
2. The Portuguese Civil Code was extended to Goa by the decree of 18 November 1869 and continues to govern matters of marriage, divorce, and succession in the state.
3. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, which directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens, was debated in the Constituent Assembly on 23 November 1948.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867 was extended to Goa via the decree of 18 November 1869 and remains the basis for its family laws. Statement 3 is correct because Article 44 was indeed debated in the Constituent Assembly on 23 November 1948, where members like K.M. Munshi and B.R. Ambedkar discussed its inclusion in the Directive Principles. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Goa Civil Code is based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, not the Indian Succession Act of 1925, which applies to the rest of India.
Consider the following statements regarding Interplay between UCC and the Right to Privacy under Puttaswamy judgment:
1. The Shah Bano case of 1985 involved a dispute over maintenance payments under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, highlighting the tension between personal laws and secular legal standards.
2. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 allows individuals from different religious backgrounds to marry under a secular framework, serving as an optional precursor to a uniform civil code.
3. The Supreme Court in the Sarla Mudgal case (1995) emphasized the need for a Uniform Civil Code to prevent the practice of religious conversion solely for the purpose of solemnizing a second marriage.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1985 Shah Bano judgment affirmed a Muslim woman's right to maintenance under Section 125 of the CrPC, sparking a national debate on the conflict between personal laws and gender justice. Statement 2 is correct because the Special Marriage Act, 1954 provides a secular legal framework for inter-faith marriages, functioning as a voluntary step toward a uniform civil code. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court in Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995) ruled that a Hindu marriage cannot be dissolved by conversion to Islam, thereby highlighting the urgent need for a UCC to prevent the misuse of religious conversion for bigamy.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal status of personal laws under Article 13 of the Constitution:
1. The 1973 Kesavananda Bharati judgment established the basic structure doctrine, which includes the Uniform Civil Code as a fundamental feature that prevents the legislature from amending personal laws.
2. The 1951 First Amendment to the Constitution introduced Article 13(4) to protect the validity of the Zamindari Abolition Acts, which also extended constitutional immunity to all personal law statutes.
3. The definition of law under Article 13 encompasses ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs, or usages.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Article 13(3)(a) explicitly defines 'law' to include ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs, or usages having the force of law in India. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Uniform Civil Code is a Directive Principle under Article 44, not a part of the basic structure doctrine, and the judiciary has consistently held that personal laws are subject to constitutional scrutiny. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the First Amendment introduced Article 31B and the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws, it did not grant constitutional immunity to personal law statutes, which remain subject to fundamental rights.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative competence of Parliament vs State Legislatures under Concurrent List Entry 5:
1. Article 37 of the Constitution provides that the Directive Principles, including the provision for a Uniform Civil Code, are enforceable by the High Courts through writ jurisdiction.
2. The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 serves as the foundational legislation for the Uniform Civil Code, applying to all religious communities residing within the territory of India.
3. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred the subject of marriage and divorce from the State List to the Concurrent List to facilitate uniform national standards.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 37 explicitly states that Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, applies exclusively to Hindus and specific related groups, not all religious communities. Statement 3 is incorrect because 'Marriage and divorce' were already in the Concurrent List (Entry 5) under the original Constitution, not transferred by the 42nd Amendment.
Consider the following statements regarding Status of tribal customary laws and Article 371 protections:
1. Article 371B was introduced through the 22nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1969 to facilitate the creation of a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly, which oversees the implementation of central civil laws in tribal districts.
2. The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 contains a specific savings clause under Section 2(2) that exempts Scheduled Tribes from its provisions, a section that was incorporated following the recommendations of the 1954 B.N. Rau Committee.
3. The 1963 State of Nagaland Act includes provisions for the continuation of existing laws, and the High Court of Gauhati has interpreted these provisions as being subject to the overarching jurisdiction of the Uniform Civil Code as defined in Article 44.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 371B provides special provisions for Assam but does not grant the committee power to oversee central civil laws in tribal districts. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Section 2(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act does exempt Scheduled Tribes, it was not based on the 1954 B.N. Rau Committee, which primarily dealt with the codification of Hindu law prior to the Act's passage. Statement 3 is incorrect because the State of Nagaland Act, 1963, specifically protects Naga customary laws under Article 371A, and the judiciary has consistently held that these protections override general civil laws, meaning the Uniform Civil Code cannot automatically supersede these constitutional safeguards.
Consider the following statements regarding Impact of UCC on gender justice and equality under Article 14 and Article 15:
1. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 provides a secular framework for marriage that exists alongside personal laws, allowing individuals to opt for a civil union regardless of their religious affiliation.
2. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act of 2005 granted daughters equal coparcenary rights in ancestral property, aligning personal law with the equality principles of Article 14.
3. India is a signatory to the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW), which encourages member states to ensure equality in family and marriage laws.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Special Marriage Act, 1954, serves as a secular alternative to religious personal laws, enabling inter-faith marriages under civil law. Statement 2 is correct because the 2005 amendment to the Hindu Succession Act removed gender-based discrimination, granting daughters equal rights as coparceners in ancestral property, thereby upholding the constitutional mandate of Article 14. Statement 3 is correct as India ratified CEDAW in 1993, committing to the principle of equality and the elimination of discrimination against women in all spheres, including family and marriage laws.
Consider the following statements regarding Status of tribal customary laws and Article 371 protections:
1. The 21st Law Commission of India, in its 2018 consultation paper, observed that a Uniform Civil Code is neither necessary nor desirable at this stage, emphasizing the protection of diverse cultural practices.
2. The Special Marriage Act of 1954 provides a secular framework for marriage, and its provisions were extended to the state of Sikkim in 1975 to ensure that customary tribal practices are integrated into the national civil registry.
3. Article 371C, which pertains to the State of Manipur, provides for the constitution of a Hill Areas Committee whose functions include the review of state-level civil legislation, a power derived from the 27th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 21st Law Commission’s 2018 consultation paper argued that a UCC is neither necessary nor desirable, advocating instead for the codification of personal laws to address discrimination. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Special Marriage Act, 1954, does not integrate customary tribal practices into a national registry, and its application in Sikkim was part of the state's integration process, not a mechanism for tribal law codification. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Article 371C provides for a Hill Areas Committee in Manipur, it was introduced by the 27th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971, but its primary function is to safeguard the interests of hill areas, not to grant it specific power to review or veto state-level civil legislation.
Consider the following statements regarding Impact of UCC on gender justice and equality under Article 14 and Article 15:
1. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, which serves as a constitutional basis for advocating gender-neutral personal laws.
2. The 21st Law Commission of India released its consultation paper in 2018, which recommended the immediate implementation of a Uniform Civil Code to replace the existing structure of the Indian Succession Act of 1925.
3. The Goa Civil Code, based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, remains the only state-level legislation in India that incorporates the Directive Principles of State Policy into its administrative framework for religious endowments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 15 mandates non-discrimination, providing a constitutional impetus for gender-neutral laws that supersede discriminatory personal practices. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 21st Law Commission’s 2018 consultation paper stated that a UCC is 'neither necessary nor desirable at this stage,' rather than recommending its immediate implementation. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the Goa Civil Code is a family law code, it does not govern religious endowments, nor is it the only legislation related to Directive Principles; it is simply a pre-constitutional code that remains in force.
Consider the following statements regarding International perspective on UCC in secular democracies:
1. In the United States, the 14th Amendment provides for equal protection under the law, and the Supreme Court utilized this provision in the 1967 Loving v. Virginia ruling to standardize marriage age limits across all fifty states.
2. The German Civil Code, or Bürgerliches Gesetzbuch, became effective in 1900 and contains specific clauses that automatically nullify religious marriage contracts in favor of state-registered civil unions.
3. The Turkish Civil Code of 1926 was modeled after the Swiss Civil Code, facilitating a transition from Ottoman-era religious legal systems to a secularized, unified national framework.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the 1926 Turkish Civil Code, inspired by the Swiss model, replaced religious Sharia courts with a secular, unified legal framework. Statement 1 is incorrect because while Loving v. Virginia (1967) struck down bans on interracial marriage, it did not standardize marriage age limits across all states, which remain subject to individual state laws. Statement 2 is incorrect because the German Civil Code (BGB) does not nullify religious marriages; rather, German law requires a civil marriage ceremony to be legally recognized, while religious ceremonies remain optional and legally secondary.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional position of the Special Marriage Act, 1954 as a precursor:
1. The Special Marriage Act, 1954, traces its legislative origin to the recommendations of the B.N. Rau Committee, which was tasked with drafting the Hindu Code Bill in 1941.
2. The 1954 Act allows for the registration of marriages performed under religious rites, provided the couple submits an application to the Marriage Officer within 90 days of the ceremony.
3. The Indian Succession Act of 1925 applies to all marriages solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, regardless of the religious background of the parties involved.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1954 Act replaced the Special Marriage Act of 1872, not the B.N. Rau Committee's Hindu Code Bill, which focused specifically on codifying Hindu personal law. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act does not provide for the registration of marriages already performed under religious rites; rather, it provides a distinct civil procedure for solemnizing marriages independent of religious ceremonies. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 19 of the Act, marriage under this law results in the severance of the individual from their undivided Hindu family, and succession is governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925, but this is a consequence of the civil nature of the contract, not a blanket application regardless of religious background.
Consider the following statements regarding Implications of UCC on the 'Basic Structure' doctrine:
1. The Supreme Court in the Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India (1995) judgment highlighted the legislative vacuum regarding a uniform code for personal laws.
2. The Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) verdict established that the Basic Structure doctrine prevents the Parliament from altering the secular character of the Constitution.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy, including Article 44, were declared justiciable by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills (1980) judgment to ensure the harmonization of personal laws with the Basic Structure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Sarla Mudgal (1995) judgment emphasized the need for a UCC to prevent misuse of personal laws and urged the government to enact it. Statement 2 is correct because the Kesavananda Bharati (1973) verdict established the 'Basic Structure' doctrine, identifying secularism as a core feature that Parliament cannot abrogate. Statement 3 is incorrect because Directive Principles of State Policy, including Article 44, remain non-justiciable under Article 37, and the Minerva Mills (1980) judgment did not alter this status but rather emphasized the 'harmonious balance' between Fundamental Rights and DPSP.