Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for electoral rolls and disqualification of voters:
1. Under Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, a person is disqualified for registration in an electoral roll if they are not a citizen of India.
2. The qualifying date for the registration of voters in an electoral roll is defined as the first day of January of the year in which the electoral roll is for the time being under revision.
3. Section 19 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, establishes that every person who is not less than 18 years of age on the qualifying date shall be entitled to be registered in the electoral roll.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct as per the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Section 16 explicitly disqualifies non-citizens, those of unsound mind, or those disqualified by corrupt practices from electoral registration. Section 14 defines the qualifying date as January 1st of the year of revision, and Section 19 mandates that any citizen who is at least 18 years old on this date is entitled to be registered in the electoral roll.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection:
1. Under Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule, a member of a House belonging to a political party is disqualified if they voluntarily give up their membership of such party.
2. The Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India through the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, to curb the evil of political defections.
3. The presiding officer of the House is empowered to decide questions of disqualification arising under the Tenth Schedule, as per the 1992 Supreme Court judgment in the Kihoto Hollohan case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct. Statement 1 is accurate as per Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the Tenth Schedule, which mandates disqualification for voluntarily giving up party membership. Statement 2 is correct because the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, introduced the Tenth Schedule to address political defections. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) case upheld the presiding officer's authority to decide disqualification matters, while also establishing that their decision is subject to judicial review.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal provisions for by-elections and casual vacancies:
1. The Election Commission of India issued a circular in 2008 clarifying that the six-month timeline for filling casual vacancies applies to both Parliamentary constituencies and State Legislative Assembly constituencies.
2. The Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996, introduced a provision allowing the President of India to extend the six-month limit for by-elections in cases of natural disasters, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect.
3. As per the Supreme Court judgment in the case of Election Commission of India v. Ashok Kumar (2000), the judicial review of the election process is limited once the notification for a by-election has been issued by the competent authority.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, mandates filling casual vacancies within six months, a timeline the ECI clarified applies uniformly to both Parliament and State Legislatures. Statement 3 is correct because the Supreme Court in ECI v. Ashok Kumar (2000) held that once the election process begins, judicial interference under Article 226 is barred, and matters must be challenged via an election petition. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Section 151A allows the ECI to defer elections due to difficulties, it does not require a Rajya Sabha resolution, and the power rests with the Commission in consultation with the Central Government.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of election expenditure and ceiling limits:
1. Failure to lodge an account of election expenses within the time and in the manner required by law can lead to the disqualification of a person under Section 10A of the Act.
2. The ceiling on election expenses for assembly constituencies was increased by the Ministry of Law and Justice in 2014, and this amendment removed the requirement for candidates to submit vouchers for expenses below 500 rupees.
3. Rule 90 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, specifies the maximum limit of election expenses that a candidate can incur in an assembly or parliamentary constituency.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 10A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, empowers the Election Commission to disqualify a person for up to three years for failure to lodge accounts within the prescribed time and manner. Statement 3 is correct because Rule 90 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, provides the legal framework for the Election Commission to notify the maximum expenditure limits for candidates. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while expenditure limits are periodically revised, the requirement to maintain and submit vouchers for all expenses (typically those exceeding Rs. 200) remains a mandatory part of the transparency mechanism under the Election Commission's guidelines, and no such blanket exemption for expenses below Rs. 500 exists.
Consider the following statements regarding Conditions for registration of political parties under Section 29A:
1. Under the existing framework of Section 29A, the Election Commission of India maintains a permanent database of party office bearers, and the Supreme Court in the 2002 judgment provided for the automatic renewal of registration every five years.
2. The application for registration under Section 29A includes a copy of the memorandum or rules and regulations of the association, which should contain a specific provision for internal democracy.
3. The Election Commission of India publishes the notice of the application for registration in two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers to invite objections from the public.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no provision for automatic renewal of registration every five years under Section 29A, and the ECI does not maintain a permanent database of office bearers as a statutory requirement for renewal. Statement 2 is correct as the application must include the party's constitution or memorandum, which must explicitly contain a specific provision for internal democracy as mandated by the ECI. Statement 3 is correct because the ECI mandates that the applicant party publish a notice of their registration application in two national and two local daily newspapers to invite public objections within 30 days.
Consider the following statements regarding Role and powers of the Election Commission in conducting elections:
1. The Election Commission issued the Model Code of Conduct for the first time in 1968 during the assembly elections in Kerala to regulate the behavior of political parties.
2. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides for the disqualification of a person from being chosen as a member of either House of Parliament if convicted for an offense under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
3. The Delimitation Commission Act, 2002, provides for the readjustment of the allocation of seats in the House of the People and the division of each State into territorial constituencies based on the 1991 census data.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Election Commission first introduced the Model Code of Conduct in 1968 during the Kerala assembly elections to ensure free and fair polls. Statement 2 is correct because Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, mandates disqualification for convictions under specific laws, including the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Delimitation Commission Act, 2002, utilized the 2001 census data for the readjustment of parliamentary and assembly constituencies, not the 1991 census.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal framework for disclosure of assets and criminal antecedents:
1. Section 33A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides for the disclosure of criminal antecedents by candidates filing nomination papers.
2. The Supreme Court judgment in Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India (2002) directed the Election Commission to seek information on assets and liabilities from candidates.
3. Rule 4A of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, prescribes Form 26 for candidates to furnish information regarding pending criminal cases and financial details.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 33A was inserted into the RPA, 1951, via a 2002 amendment to mandate disclosure of criminal antecedents. Statement 2 is correct because the landmark 2002 ADR v. Union of India judgment empowered the ECI to mandate disclosure of assets, liabilities, and criminal records to ensure voter awareness. Statement 3 is correct as Rule 4A of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, specifically mandates that candidates must file an affidavit in Form 26, which consolidates all required information regarding pending criminal cases, assets, and educational qualifications.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for NOTA (None of the Above) in voting:
1. The NOTA option was first introduced in the 2013 assembly elections held in five states, including Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Delhi.
2. In the 2014 Lok Sabha elections, the NOTA option was implemented nationwide for the first time, allowing voters to officially register their disapproval of all candidates in the fray.
3. Under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, the NOTA symbol is represented by a rectangular ballot paper containing a black cross, which is printed at the bottom of the list of candidates.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
The NOTA option was introduced following the Supreme Court's 2013 'PUCL v. Union of India' judgment, leading to its debut in the 2013 assembly elections across five states and its subsequent nationwide implementation in the 2014 Lok Sabha polls. Statement 3 is accurate as the Election Commission of India, under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, mandates the NOTA symbol-a rectangular ballot paper with a black cross-to be placed at the bottom of the candidate list on Electronic Voting Machines. All three statements are factually correct, as they accurately reflect the legal origin, timeline of implementation, and the procedural design of the NOTA option in Indian elections.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of election expenditure and ceiling limits:
1. The Supreme Court in the Kanwar Lal Gupta v. Amar Nath Chawla case observed that election expenses should be viewed as a significant factor in maintaining the purity of the electoral process.
2. The Election Commission of India appoints Expenditure Observers from the Indian Revenue Service to monitor the election expenditure of candidates during the campaign period.
3. The expenditure incurred by the political party for the general propaganda of the party is excluded from the candidate's individual election expense limit as per the Explanation to Section 77(1).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1975 Kanwar Lal Gupta case established that unchecked election spending undermines democratic equality. Statement 2 is correct because the Election Commission mandates the deployment of Expenditure Observers, primarily from the Indian Revenue Service (IRS), to ensure transparency and prevent the use of black money. Statement 3 is correct because the Explanation to Section 77(1) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, clarifies that general party propaganda expenses are not counted toward a candidate's individual ceiling, provided the candidate is not specifically identified in the campaign material.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for electoral rolls and disqualification of voters:
1. Under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the electoral roll for a parliamentary constituency is prepared by the Delimitation Commission, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Law and Justice.
2. Section 16(2) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides that the disqualification of a person on the grounds of corrupt practices is determined by the District Magistrate during the annual revision of the electoral roll.
3. The qualifying date for voter registration was amended by the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021, to include four specific dates in a year, which allows citizens to register upon attaining the age of 18.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the electoral roll is prepared by the Electoral Registration Officer under the superintendence and control of the Election Commission of India, not the Delimitation Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect as Section 16(2) of the RPA, 1950, specifies that no person shall be disqualified for registration on grounds of corrupt practices unless such disqualification arises from a report or judicial order under the RPA, 1951, and the District Magistrate has no such authority. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021, introduced four qualifying dates (1st January, 1st April, 1st July, and 1st October) for voter registration, but the statement is technically flawed as it implies registration is automatic upon turning 18, whereas it remains subject to the specific quarterly qualifying dates.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of election expenditure and ceiling limits:
1. Section 77 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, requires every candidate to keep a separate and correct account of all expenditure in connection with the election.
2. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, includes provisions for the Election Commission to disqualify a candidate for life if they exceed the expenditure limit set during the 1996 amendment.
3. The Election Commission of India revised the expenditure limits for Parliamentary constituencies to 95 lakh rupees for larger states in January 2022.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 77 of the RPA, 1951 mandates candidates to maintain a separate, accurate account of election expenses, which must be lodged with the District Election Officer within 30 days of the election results. Statement 3 is correct because the Election Commission of India, in January 2022, increased the expenditure limit for Parliamentary constituencies to Rs 95 lakh for larger states and Rs 75 lakh for smaller states. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the ECI can disqualify a candidate for up to three years for failing to lodge an account of election expenses under Section 10A, there is no provision in the RPA for 'life-long' disqualification based solely on exceeding expenditure limits.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection:
1. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review by the High Courts and the Supreme Court.
2. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, limits the size of the Council of Ministers to 15 percent of the total strength of the House and introduces the provision for disqualification of members who are disqualified under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
3. Independent members of a House are disqualified if they join any political party after being elected as an independent candidate.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) ruled that the Speaker's decision is subject to judicial review. Statement 3 is correct as per the Tenth Schedule, which mandates that an independent member incurs disqualification upon joining any political party. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 91st Amendment Act (2003) capped the Council of Ministers at 15 percent, it did not introduce the disqualification provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which were already present in the original 1951 Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Disqualification grounds under Section 8 of RPA 1951:
1. Section 9 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, deals with disqualification for dismissal for corruption or disloyalty, and the certificate issued by the Election Commission serves as conclusive proof of such dismissal for a period of five years.
2. The Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2002, introduced specific provisions under Section 8(1) to disqualify candidates convicted for offences under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 1976, with the disqualification lasting for a fixed term of ten years.
3. The disqualification triggered by a conviction under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, is covered under Section 8(1) of the RPA, 1951, and the disqualification remains in effect until the President of India grants a formal pardon.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 9 of the RPA, 1951, deals with disqualification for dismissal for corruption or disloyalty, but the period of disqualification is five years from the date of such dismissal, not a certificate serving as proof for that duration. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2002 Amendment did not introduce FCRA-related disqualifications under Section 8(1); such offences are not specifically listed as grounds for automatic disqualification under this section. Statement 3 is incorrect because while conviction under the UAPA, 1967, is a ground for disqualification under Section 8(1), the disqualification lasts for a period of six years from the date of conviction, not until a pardon is granted by the President.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal framework for disclosure of assets and criminal antecedents:
1. The 2018 Supreme Court ruling in Public Interest Foundation v. Union of India directed political parties to publish the criminal antecedents of their candidates in newspapers and on social media.
2. The 2003 amendment to the Conduct of Election Rules established the requirement for candidates to disclose their educational qualifications, which is linked to the disqualification criteria under Section 8 of the 1951 Act.
3. The Supreme Court in the 2013 Lily Thomas judgment ruled that the disclosure of criminal antecedents applies to candidates in local body elections, as these are governed by the same constitutional provisions as parliamentary polls.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2018 Public Interest Foundation judgment mandated political parties to publish criminal antecedents of candidates in widely circulated newspapers and on social media. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the 2003 amendment mandated disclosure of educational qualifications, these are not linked to disqualification criteria under Section 8 of the RPA, 1951, which pertains specifically to conviction for certain offenses. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Lily Thomas judgment (2013) struck down Section 8(4) of the RPA, 1951, to ensure immediate disqualification of convicted lawmakers, and it does not extend the disclosure requirements to local body elections, which are governed by respective State Election Commissions.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for NRI voting and proxy voting rights:
1. Under the current legal framework, overseas electors who have acquired citizenship of another country are eligible to register as voters provided they hold an Overseas Citizen of India card issued under the 2005 Citizenship Amendment Act.
2. The 2018 Bill to amend the Representation of the People Act proposed proxy voting for overseas electors, which was passed by the Rajya Sabha before the dissolution of the 16th Lok Sabha.
3. The Election Commission of India launched the ECI-NRI portal in 2019, which allows overseas voters to submit Form 6A and upload scanned copies of their visa documents for direct postal ballot enrollment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because, under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, only non-resident Indian citizens who have not acquired the citizenship of any other country are eligible to register as overseas electors. Statement 2 is incorrect because, although the 2018 Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha, it lapsed upon the dissolution of the 16th Lok Sabha and was never passed by the Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is incorrect because there is no such ECI-NRI portal for direct postal ballot enrollment; currently, overseas electors must be physically present in their constituency to cast their vote, as the proposal for electronically transmitted postal ballots for NRIs has not yet been implemented.
Consider the following statements regarding Role and powers of the Election Commission in conducting elections:
1. Under Section 13CC of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, officers designated for election duty are deemed to be on deputation to the Election Commission during the period of an election.
2. The Election Commission of India exercises its power to recognize national parties under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, which was enacted by the Parliament to supplement the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
3. The Election Commission of India derives its authority to superintend, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls from Article 324 of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 13CC of the RPA, 1950, mandates that officers involved in election work are deemed to be on deputation to the ECI, ensuring the Commission's disciplinary control over them. Statement 3 is correct because Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls in the ECI. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, was issued by the Election Commission itself in exercise of its powers under Article 324, not by an Act of Parliament.
Consider the following statements regarding Eligibility criteria for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures:
1. The disqualification criteria under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, includes provisions for members of Parliament who fail to lodge an account of election expenses within 45 days of the declaration of results.
2. Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, allows individuals convicted of offenses involving the hoarding of essential commodities to contest elections after a period of two years from their release.
3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides for a minimum age of 21 years for candidates contesting Rajya Sabha seats, aligning with the voting age established by the 61st Constitutional Amendment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the RPA, 1951 mandates lodging election expenses within 30 days, not 45. Statement 2 is incorrect as Section 8(1)(i) disqualifies individuals convicted of hoarding essential commodities for six years from the date of conviction, not two years from release. Statement 3 is incorrect because the minimum age for contesting Rajya Sabha seats is 30 years, whereas 25 years is required for Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions regarding corrupt practices under Section 123:
1. The 1975 amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, introduced Section 123(7), which clarifies that the obtaining or procuring of assistance from government servants for the furtherance of the prospects of a candidate's election constitutes a corrupt practice.
2. The Supreme Court in the Abhiram Singh v. C.D. Commachen (2017) judgment interpreted Section 123(3) to include appeals made by a candidate, their agent, or any other person with the consent of the candidate or their election agent.
3. Section 123(4) of the Act identifies the publication of any statement of fact which is false, and which the candidate either believes to be false or does not believe to be true, in relation to the personal character or conduct of any candidate, as a corrupt practice.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 1975 amendment (enacted post-Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain) clarified that assistance from government servants is a corrupt practice. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court's 2017 judgment in Abhiram Singh v. C.D. Commachen expanded the scope of Section 123(3) to prohibit appeals based on religion, race, caste, community, or language, regardless of whether it is the candidate's own or their opponent's identity. Statement 3 is correct as Section 123(4) explicitly defines the publication of false statements regarding the personal character or conduct of a candidate as a corrupt practice, provided the publisher knows or believes it to be false.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions regarding corrupt practices under Section 123:
1. Section 123(6) pertains to the incurring or authorizing of election expenditure in contravention of Section 77, and the 2014 notification by the Ministry of Law and Justice increased the expenditure limit for assembly constituencies to reflect inflation-adjusted figures.
2. Section 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, classifies the appeal by a candidate to vote or refrain from voting on the grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language as a corrupt practice.
3. The Supreme Court ruling in the Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) case established that Section 123(5) provides for the automatic cancellation of a candidate's nomination papers if they are found guilty of hiring vehicles for the free conveyance of electors.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Section 123(3) explicitly prohibits appeals based on religion, race, caste, community, or language, a provision upheld by the Supreme Court in the Abhiram Singh case. Statement 1 is incorrect because while Section 123(6) deals with expenditure violations, the expenditure limits are determined by the Election Commission of India under Rule 90 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, not by a Ministry of Law and Justice notification. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Lily Thomas (2013) judgment dealt with the disqualification of convicted legislators under Section 8(4), whereas Section 123(5) defines the hiring of vehicles as a corrupt practice that may lead to an election petition, not automatic cancellation of nomination papers.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for disqualification for failure to lodge account of election expenses:
1. The Election Commission of India maintains the power to extend the 30-day period for lodging election expenses by an additional 15 days upon receiving a formal request from the Returning Officer of the concerned constituency.
2. Section 77 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, specifies that the account of election expenses includes all expenditure incurred by the candidate and the political party, and failure to report these results in automatic disqualification by the District Magistrate.
3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, empowers the High Court to remove a disqualification incurred due to the failure to lodge election accounts if the candidate submits a petition within 60 days of the order.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Election Commission of India (ECI) has the power to remove or reduce the period of disqualification, but the 30-day window for lodging expenses is a statutory requirement under Section 78 of the RPA, 1951, not subject to extension by the Returning Officer. Statement 2 is incorrect as Section 77 mandates candidates to maintain an account of expenses, but the disqualification under Section 10A is imposed by the ECI, not the District Magistrate. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 11 of the RPA, 1951, it is the Election Commission of India-not the High Court-that holds the authority to remove or reduce the period of disqualification for a candidate who fails to lodge their account of election expenses.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Returning Officers in the election process:
1. The Returning Officer holds the power to order a re-poll in a specific polling station if the voter turnout exceeds 90 percent, a measure incorporated into the Conduct of Election Rules to prevent booth capturing.
2. The Returning Officer maintains the custody of all electronic voting machines and VVPAT slips in the constituency treasury for a period of six months, as specified in the guidelines issued by the Ministry of Law and Justice.
3. The appointment of a Returning Officer for a parliamentary constituency is finalized by the Governor of the respective state, acting on the recommendation of the Chief Electoral Officer under the 1951 election framework.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Returning Officer (RO) has no such power; re-polls are ordered by the Election Commission of India under Section 58 of the RPA, 1951, based on specific reports of booth capturing or irregularities, not voter turnout percentages. Statement 2 is incorrect as EVMs and VVPATs are stored in secure strongrooms under the supervision of the District Election Officer, and the retention period is generally 45 days post-declaration of results unless an election petition is pending. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 21 of the RPA, 1951, the RO for a parliamentary or assembly constituency is designated or nominated by the Election Commission of India in consultation with the State Government, not by the Governor.
Consider the following statements regarding Disqualification grounds under Section 8 of RPA 1951:
1. Section 8(1) of the Act encompasses offences related to the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, and provides for a disqualification period of six years starting from the date of the initial FIR filing.
2. Section 8(4) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which previously allowed convicted members a three-month grace period to file appeals, was declared ultra vires by the Supreme Court in the Lily Thomas v. Union of India case in 2013.
3. Under Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years is disqualified from the date of such conviction.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because disqualification under Section 8(1) begins from the date of conviction, not the filing of the FIR. Statement 2 is correct as the Supreme Court in Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) struck down Section 8(4) for being unconstitutional, thereby ensuring immediate disqualification of convicted legislators. Statement 3 is correct because Section 8(3) mandates that any person sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more stands disqualified from the date of conviction for the duration of the sentence plus an additional six years.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of exit polls and opinion polls under Section 126A:
1. The Election Commission of India derives its authority to regulate exit polls from the amendment introduced to the Representation of the People Act in the year 2009.
2. The Model Code of Conduct, as updated in 2019, incorporates the provisions of Section 126A and provides for the suspension of broadcasting licenses for news channels that report exit poll data before the final phase.
3. The Press Council of India issued guidelines in 2014 regarding the publication of opinion polls, which are legally binding under the provisions of Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 126A was inserted into the Representation of the People Act, 1951, via the 2009 amendment to empower the ECI to notify a period during which exit polls are prohibited. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Model Code of Conduct does not contain provisions for the suspension of broadcasting licenses, and such punitive actions fall under the purview of the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Press Council of India's guidelines on opinion polls are voluntary and advisory in nature, lacking the status of legally binding provisions under Section 126A.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions regarding corrupt practices under Section 123:
1. Section 123(2) deals with undue influence, and the 2003 amendment to this provision incorporated the use of electronic social media platforms as a specific category of corrupt practice for candidates contesting Lok Sabha elections.
2. The Election Commission of India derives its power to disqualify a candidate for corrupt practices directly from Article 324 of the Constitution, which was supplemented by the 1996 amendment to Section 123(8) regarding the use of private vehicles for voter conveyance.
3. Section 123(1) defines bribery as a corrupt practice, and the 1989 amendment to this section expanded the definition to include the provision of free public transport services to voters by political parties during the polling period.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, does not contain the specific amendments or provisions mentioned. Statement 1 is false as the 2003 amendment did not introduce electronic social media as a corrupt practice; Statement 2 is incorrect because disqualification for corrupt practices is adjudicated by the High Court under Section 8A, not directly by the ECI under Article 324; and Statement 3 is false because the 1989 amendment did not expand the definition of bribery to include free public transport for voters.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal requirements for filing nomination papers and scrutiny:
1. Section 32 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, permits any person registered as an elector in any constituency in India to contest an election, and the 1996 amendment increased the security deposit for independent candidates to curb the number of non-serious contestants.
2. Section 33 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides that a nomination paper for an election to the Lok Sabha is to be presented to the Returning Officer by the candidate or their proposer between 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM.
3. Under Section 34 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a candidate for a parliamentary constituency election deposits a sum of 25,000 rupees, which is reduced to 12,500 rupees for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while Section 32 allows an elector to contest, the 1996 amendment to Section 34 increased security deposits for all candidates, not just independents, to deter non-serious contestants. Statement 2 is correct as Section 33 mandates that nomination papers be presented to the Returning Officer during the specified hours of 11:00 AM to 3:00 PM. Statement 3 is correct because Section 34 stipulates a security deposit of âš25,000 for Lok Sabha candidates, which is halved to âš12,500 for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of exit polls and opinion polls under Section 126A:
1. The Supreme Court in the Ashok Kumar vs. Election Commission of India case upheld the constitutionality of Section 126A, which covers both print media advertisements and private opinion polling.
2. Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, prohibits the conduct and public dissemination of exit polls during the period notified by the Election Commission of India.
3. Section 126 of the Act provides for a 48-hour silence period before polling, and this duration is extended to the entire duration of the election process under the 1996 amendment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Section 126A, inserted via the 2009 amendment, empowers the ECI to notify a period during which conducting or disseminating exit polls is prohibited. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Ashok Kumar case (2007) dealt with the ECI's power to postpone elections under Article 324, not the constitutionality of Section 126A. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Section 126 mandates a 48-hour silence period, the 1996 amendment did not extend this to the entire election process; rather, the silence period remains restricted to the 48 hours preceding the close of poll for each phase.
Consider the following statements regarding Regulation of exit polls and opinion polls under Section 126A:
1. The Election Commission of India publishes the notification for exit poll restrictions under Section 126A, which includes provisions for the immediate seizure of electronic devices used by unauthorized polling agencies.
2. The notification issued under Section 126A remains in force from the commencement of the first phase of polling until half an hour after the close of the final phase of polling.
3. The 2009 amendment to the Representation of the People Act introduced Section 126A to regulate opinion polls, and it further empowered the Chief Electoral Officer to initiate criminal proceedings for violations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Section 126A prohibits conducting exit polls and disseminating their results from the start of the first phase of polling until half an hour after the final phase concludes. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 126A does not provide the Election Commission with the power to seize electronic devices, and violations are instead punishable by imprisonment of up to two years or a fine. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 126A specifically regulates exit polls, not opinion polls, and the power to initiate prosecution for violations lies with the Election Commission or a designated officer, not exclusively the Chief Electoral Officer.
Consider the following statements regarding Eligibility criteria for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures:
1. The disqualification for failure to lodge election expense accounts is associated with the Election Commission of India's oversight, and the Act provides for a period of six years of ineligibility starting from the date of the commission's order.
2. The eligibility criteria for contesting a Legislative Assembly seat includes provisions for a candidate to be an elector in any constituency within the same state, as per the amendments introduced by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2003.
3. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person convicted of an offense and sentenced to imprisonment for six months is disqualified from contesting elections for a period of five years from the date of conviction.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Election Commission of India (ECI) identifies the failure to lodge accounts, the disqualification period is three years, not six. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2003 amendment actually removed the requirement of being an elector in the same state for Rajya Sabha elections, but for Legislative Assembly seats, a candidate must be an elector in any constituency within that specific state, which was already the law; the amendment did not change this requirement. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 8 of the RPA 1951, a person is disqualified only if sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more, and the disqualification period lasts for the duration of the sentence plus an additional six years upon release.
Consider the following statements regarding Model Code of Conduct and its legal enforceability:
1. The Election Commission established the 'Expenditure Monitoring Division' in 2010, which functions under the statutory authority granted by the 1950 Act to oversee party compliance with the code.
2. During the 1991 Lok Sabha elections, the Election Commission of India formally issued comprehensive instructions to political parties to prevent the misuse of official machinery.
3. The 1979 guidelines issued by the Election Commission for the use of government aircraft by ministers are currently codified as Rule 12 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the ECI issued comprehensive instructions in 1991 to curb the misuse of official machinery, which eventually became a core component of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC). Statement 1 is incorrect because the MCC is not a statutory document derived from the 1950 Act but is a set of guidelines evolved by the ECI through consensus with political parties, lacking direct statutory backing. Statement 3 is incorrect because the guidelines regarding the use of government aircraft are part of the MCC itself and are not codified as Rule 12 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal framework for disclosure of assets and criminal antecedents:
1. Candidates contesting Rajya Sabha elections are governed by the 1950 Act, which provides for the submission of asset affidavits to the Returning Officer before the scrutiny of nominations.
2. The Election Commission of India introduced the 'Know Your Candidate' mobile application in 2015, which allows voters to access the asset declarations filed under the 1951 Act.
3. The Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2002, incorporated Section 33B to validate the disclosure of assets, which the Supreme Court subsequently upheld in the PUCL case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because disclosure requirements are governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not the 1950 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 'Know Your Candidate' (KYC) app was launched by the ECI in 2020, not 2015. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Supreme Court struck down Section 33B (inserted by the 2002 Amendment) as unconstitutional in the PUCL v. Union of India (2003) case, ruling that it violated the voters' fundamental right to information.
Consider the following statements regarding Disqualification of sitting members upon conviction:
1. The 2002 amendment to the Representation of the People Act introduced the requirement for candidates to file an affidavit disclosing their criminal antecedents, which also serves as the basis for immediate disqualification upon filing.
2. The Election Commission of India holds the authority to reduce the period of disqualification for any person convicted under Section 8(1) of the Act, as per the powers granted by the 1951 legislation.
3. The disqualification period for a person convicted under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, commences from the date of the appellate court's final order rather than the initial trial court conviction.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2002 amendment mandated disclosure of criminal antecedents but did not link it to immediate disqualification upon filing. Statement 2 is incorrect because, under Section 11 of the RPA, 1951, the power to remove or reduce the period of disqualification lies with the Election Commission of India only for specific cases, but it cannot override the statutory disqualification period mandated by Section 8 for serious offenses. Statement 3 is incorrect because, as per the Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) judgment, disqualification under Section 8 of the RPA, 1951, takes effect immediately upon conviction by the trial court, not from the date of the appellate court's final order.
Consider the following statements regarding Eligibility criteria for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures:
1. Article 102 of the Constitution refers to the disqualification of members, and the Representation of the People Act, 1951, encompasses the specific rule that a person holding a profit-bearing office in a government-aided university is ineligible for candidacy.
2. Section 9A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, allows a person to contest elections if they have entered into a contract with the appropriate government for the supply of goods, provided the contract was signed before the notification of the election.
3. The 1951 Act provides for the disqualification of a candidate if they are found guilty of corrupt practices by the High Court, and this provision is associated with a maximum disqualification period of three years from the date of the order.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 'Office of Profit' is defined under Article 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a), but the RPA, 1951 does not automatically disqualify someone for holding an office in a government-aided university unless specifically declared by law. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 9A of the RPA, 1951, explicitly disqualifies a person from contesting if they have a subsisting contract with the government for the supply of goods or execution of works, regardless of when the contract was signed. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 8A of the RPA, 1951, the period of disqualification for corrupt practices is determined by the President in consultation with the Election Commission, and it can extend up to a maximum of six years, not three.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for postal ballots and absentee voters:
1. The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was amended in October 2019 to include the 'absentee voter' category for senior citizens above the age of 80 years.
2. The 2019 amendment to the Conduct of Election Rules introduced the postal ballot facility for Persons with Disabilities (PwD) and those employed in the Ministry of External Affairs stationed at foreign missions.
3. Service voters belonging to the Armed Forces or members of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act, 1950 apply are eligible to cast their votes through postal ballots.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was amended in October 2019 to allow 'absentee voters' aged 80+ to vote via postal ballot. Statement 3 is correct because service voters, including Armed Forces personnel, have long been entitled to use postal ballots or proxy voting under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Statement 2 is incorrect because while PwDs were included in the 2019 amendment, employees of the Ministry of External Affairs stationed abroad were already covered under the existing definition of 'service voters' and did not require this specific amendment for postal ballot eligibility.
Consider the following statements regarding Disqualification of sitting members upon conviction:
1. The disqualification of a convicted member takes effect from the date of conviction, provided the sentence of imprisonment is for a period of two years or more.
2. The President of India exercises the power to remove disqualifications arising from convictions under the Representation of the People Act after consulting with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha for all sitting members.
3. Under the provisions of the 1951 Act, a person convicted for an offence related to the promotion of enmity between different groups under Section 153A of the IPC faces disqualification for a period of five years from the date of release.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 8(3) of the RPA, 1951 mandates disqualification for a minimum of two years of imprisonment from the date of conviction. Statement 2 is incorrect because, per Article 103, the President decides on disqualifications in consultation with the Election Commission of India, not the Speaker. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 8(1) of the RPA, 1951 stipulates that conviction under Section 153A of the IPC leads to disqualification for a period of six years from the date of conviction, not five years from the date of release.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for NRI voting and proxy voting rights:
1. Overseas electors are currently permitted to cast their votes in person at the polling station in their respective constituency in India upon production of their original passport.
2. Section 20A of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides for the appointment of a proxy by an overseas elector through a notarized power of attorney submitted to the District Election Officer.
3. The Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010, inserted Section 20A into the 1950 Act to enable overseas electors to register in the electoral rolls of their constituency of residence in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as overseas electors must be physically present at their polling station in India to vote, as remote or postal voting for NRIs is not yet operational. Statement 3 is correct because the 2010 Amendment Act introduced Section 20A, allowing Indian citizens residing abroad to register in the electoral rolls of their constituency of residence in India. Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no provision in the Representation of the People Act, 1950, that allows overseas electors to appoint a proxy; proxy voting is currently restricted to specific categories like service voters.
Consider the following statements regarding Model Code of Conduct and its legal enforceability:
1. The Election Commission of India derives its power to enforce the Model Code of Conduct from Article 324 of the Constitution, which was amended in 1996 to include the code as a formal schedule.
2. The 1951 Representation of the People Act includes Section 126A, which provides the legal framework for the Model Code of Conduct to remain in force until the final declaration of results.
3. The Model Code of Conduct originated from the 1968 Kerala Legislative Assembly elections, where the Election Commission first evolved a code for political parties.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) was first evolved by the Election Commission during the 1960 Kerala assembly elections and later formalized in 1968. Statement 1 is incorrect because the MCC is not a statutory document and was never incorporated into the Constitution or the Representation of the People Act via an amendment; it is a set of guidelines evolved by consensus. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 126A of the RPA, 1951, pertains to the restriction on exit polls, not the legal framework for the MCC, which remains a non-statutory instrument enforced by the ECI under its plenary powers under Article 324.
Consider the following statements regarding Model Code of Conduct and its legal enforceability:
1. The Supreme Court judgment in the 2013 Lily Thomas case clarified that the Model Code of Conduct is enforceable under Section 77 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, regarding expenditure limits.
2. The Supreme Court in the 2001 S. Subramaniam Balaji v. State of Tamil Nadu case noted that the Model Code of Conduct lacks a specific statutory basis under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
3. The Election Commission issued the 'Guidelines on Election Manifestos' in 2013, which are incorporated under Part VII of the Representation of the People Act to regulate financial promises made by candidates.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji (2013) clarified that the MCC is not a statutory document but a set of guidelines evolved by the ECI to ensure a level playing field. Statement 1 is incorrect as the Lily Thomas case (2013) dealt with the disqualification of convicted legislators under Section 8(4) of the RPA, 1951, not the enforceability of the MCC. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the ECI issued guidelines on manifestos in 2013, they are not incorporated into the RPA, 1951, but are instead enforced by the ECI under its plenary powers granted by Article 324 of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for postal ballots and absentee voters:
1. Overseas electors, as defined under Section 20A of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, are currently not eligible to cast their votes through the postal ballot mechanism.
2. The facility of voting by postal ballot is extended to electors subjected to preventive detention under any law for the time being in force, as per the 1961 Rules.
3. The Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) allows service voters to download their ballot papers and return them by post after recording their preference.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because overseas electors must be physically present in their constituency to vote, as the proposal for proxy voting or ETPBS for them has not yet been implemented. Statement 2 is correct under Rule 18 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, which classifies those under preventive detention as 'special voters' eligible for postal ballots. Statement 3 is correct as ETPBS facilitates service voters by allowing them to download blank ballots electronically, which are then marked and returned via post to the Returning Officer.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for NOTA (None of the Above) in voting:
1. The Supreme Court of India directed the Election Commission to provide the NOTA option on electronic voting machines in the 2013 judgment of People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India.
2. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, includes a provision in Section 49-O that allows a voter to record their refusal to vote, which was later replaced by the NOTA symbol on EVMs.
3. The Election Commission introduced the NOTA button in 2009 during the general elections to ensure voter privacy, following recommendations from the 170th Law Commission Report.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in the 2013 PUCL v. Union of India judgment directed the ECI to provide the NOTA option to uphold voter secrecy and democratic participation. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Section 49-O of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 (not the RPA, 1951) previously allowed voters to record a refusal to vote, it did not guarantee secrecy, unlike the NOTA button. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ECI introduced the NOTA symbol in 2013, not 2009, and it was implemented following the Supreme Court's mandate rather than a direct recommendation from the 170th Law Commission Report.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Returning Officers in the election process:
1. Section 22 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, permits the Returning Officer to delegate the power of accepting or rejecting nomination papers to any Assistant Returning Officer appointed by the District Magistrate.
2. The Returning Officer possesses the legal authority to disqualify a candidate during the nomination process if the candidate has a pending criminal case, a provision introduced by the 1951 Act to ensure legislative integrity.
3. The Returning Officer issues the formal certificate of election to the winning candidate under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, immediately after the declaration of results by the Chief Electoral Officer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because, under Section 22 of the RP Act, 1951, an Assistant Returning Officer (ARO) can perform all functions of the Returning Officer (RO), but the power to reject a nomination paper cannot be delegated to an ARO if the RO is present. Statement 2 is incorrect as the RO cannot disqualify a candidate for pending criminal cases; disqualification is governed by Section 8 of the RP Act, 1951, and can only be triggered by a conviction, not a mere pending case. Statement 3 is incorrect because the certificate of election is issued by the RO under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, not the RP Act, 1950, and it is issued by the RO themselves, not the Chief Electoral Officer.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal requirements for filing nomination papers and scrutiny:
1. Section 36(4) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides that the Returning Officer does not reject any nomination paper on the ground of any defect which is not of a substantial character.
2. Rule 4 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, prescribes that nomination papers for an election to the House of the People are to be filed in Form 2A, which includes details regarding the candidate's electoral roll registration.
3. The scrutiny process under Section 36 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, includes the verification of the candidate's criminal antecedents as per the 2002 Supreme Court judgment, and the Returning Officer possesses the authority to disqualify a candidate based on the information provided in the affidavit.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 36(4) of the RP Act, 1951, mandates that Returning Officers (RO) shall not reject nominations for defects that are not of a 'substantial character'. Statement 2 is correct because Rule 4 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, specifies Form 2A for Lok Sabha nominations, which requires mandatory details like electoral roll registration. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the RO verifies the completeness of the affidavit, they lack the judicial authority to disqualify a candidate based on the veracity of the information provided; disqualification on grounds of false information falls under the jurisdiction of the High Court through an election petition.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for electoral rolls and disqualification of voters:
1. The Election Commission of India possesses the authority under Section 21 of the 1950 Act to direct the preparation or revision of electoral rolls for any constituency.
2. The Chief Electoral Officer of a State is appointed by the Election Commission of India under Section 13A of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, to supervise the preparation of electoral rolls.
3. Section 16(1)(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, provides that a person is disqualified for registration if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct as per the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Section 21 empowers the Election Commission to direct the revision of electoral rolls, while Section 13A mandates the appointment of a Chief Electoral Officer by the Commission to supervise all election-related work in a state. Furthermore, Section 16(1)(c) explicitly disqualifies individuals from registration in electoral rolls if they are declared to be of unsound mind by a competent court.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal provisions for by-elections and casual vacancies:
1. The Election Commission of India is empowered to defer the holding of a by-election if it is difficult to hold the poll within the six-month period, provided such deferment is made in consultation with the Central Government.
2. The notification for a by-election is issued by the Election Commission of India under Section 150 or Section 151 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, depending on whether the vacancy pertains to the State Legislative Assembly or Parliament.
3. Under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a by-election is not necessary if the remainder of the term of a member in relation to a vacancy is less than one year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as per Section 151A of the RPA, 1951, which allows the ECI to defer by-elections in consultation with the Central Government if it is difficult to hold them within six months. Statement 2 is correct because the ECI derives its authority to issue notifications for filling casual vacancies in Parliament and State Legislatures from Sections 147, 149, 150, and 151 of the RPA, 1951. Statement 3 is correct as the proviso to Section 151A of the RPA, 1951, explicitly states that no by-election is required if the remainder of the term of the member whose vacancy is to be filled is less than one year.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Returning Officers in the election process:
1. Under Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Election Commission designates an officer of the government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for each constituency in consultation with the State Government.
2. Following the conclusion of the poll, the Returning Officer performs the counting of votes in the presence of candidates or their election agents as prescribed by the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961.
3. The Returning Officer is responsible for the scrutiny of nomination papers under Section 36 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which involves checking the validity of the candidate's affidavit and electoral roll entry.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 21 of the RPA, 1951 mandates the ECI to designate a Returning Officer (RO) in consultation with the State Government. Statement 2 is correct because, under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, the RO is legally tasked with overseeing the counting process to ensure transparency in the presence of authorized agents. Statement 3 is correct as Section 36 of the RPA, 1951 empowers the RO to conduct a quasi-judicial scrutiny of nominations, ensuring candidates meet all constitutional and statutory requirements, including the submission of mandatory affidavits.
Consider the following statements regarding Conditions for registration of political parties under Section 29A:
1. Political parties registered under Section 29A are entitled to accept contributions from individuals or companies, provided they comply with the disclosure norms under Section 29C of the Act.
2. An applicant association is expected to provide a demand draft of ten thousand rupees as a processing fee, payable to the Under Secretary of the Election Commission of India.
3. The registration process under Section 29A is governed by the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, which functions in tandem with the statutory provisions of the 1951 Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 29C mandates that parties must report contributions exceeding Rs 20,000 to the ECI to maintain transparency. Statement 2 is correct because the ECI guidelines specify a non-refundable processing fee of Rs 10,000 via demand draft for new party registration applications. Statement 3 is correct as the 1968 Order provides the operational framework for symbol allotment, which complements the registration requirements mandated by Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for NOTA (None of the Above) in voting:
1. The Election Commission maintains that if the NOTA option receives the highest number of votes in a constituency, the candidate with the second-highest number of votes is disqualified from contesting future elections for five years.
2. The NOTA option is currently applicable to the election of the President of India and the Vice-President of India, as per the 2013 notification issued by the Ministry of Law and Justice.
3. The Supreme Court ruled in the 2004 PUCL case that the NOTA option functions as a right to reject candidates, which triggers a re-election process if the NOTA count exceeds the vote share of the winning candidate.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because NOTA does not disqualify any candidate, nor does it trigger a re-election or mandate a fresh poll regardless of the vote count. The Supreme Court introduced NOTA in the 2013 PUCL v. Union of India case (not 2004) to protect voter anonymity, but it remains a 'neutral' vote without legal power to reject candidates. Furthermore, the Election Commission has clarified that NOTA is not applicable to the indirect elections of the President and Vice-President, where open ballot systems are utilized.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for disqualification for failure to lodge account of election expenses:
1. The account of election expenses is to be lodged by a contesting candidate within 30 days from the date of declaration of the result of the election as per the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961.
2. The disqualification order issued by the Election Commission of India under Section 10A takes effect from the date the order is published in the Official Gazette.
3. Under Section 10A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Election Commission of India holds the authority to disqualify a person for a period of three years for failure to lodge an account of election expenses.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Rule 89 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, mandates lodging accounts within 30 days of the result. Statement 2 is correct because Section 10A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, specifies that disqualification becomes effective only upon the publication of the Election Commission's order in the Official Gazette. Statement 3 is correct as Section 10A empowers the Election Commission to disqualify a candidate for a period of three years if they fail to lodge the account of election expenses in the manner required by law.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for postal ballots and absentee voters:
1. The Election Commission of India launched the ETPBS in 2016 for service voters, which subsequently replaced the proxy voting system for all categories of voters residing in border districts.
2. Section 60 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the classification of migrant workers as absentee voters, allowing them to cast postal ballots from their current place of residence since the 2020 notification.
3. Under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, persons employed in essential services, as notified by the Election Commission, are categorized as absentee voters for postal ballot facilities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, amended under the RPA, 1951, allows 'absentee voters' in essential services (like health, transport, and media) to opt for postal ballots. Statement 1 is incorrect because ETPBS (Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System) was introduced for service voters, but proxy voting remains a valid option for them and has not been replaced for all border district residents. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Election Commission has proposed remote voting for migrant workers, no such provision currently exists under Section 60 of the RPA, 1951, to allow migrant workers to cast postal ballots from their place of residence.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for disqualification for failure to lodge account of election expenses:
1. Under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the disqualification for failure to lodge election accounts applies to the candidate's spouse and immediate family members if they managed the campaign finances during the election period.
2. The Supreme Court of India, in its judgment in the case of Ashok Kumar vs. State of Bihar, clarified that the Election Commission of India can reduce the three-year disqualification period to one year based on the candidate's previous electoral record.
3. Rule 89 of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, provides that the Returning Officer reports the failure to lodge election accounts to the Chief Electoral Officer, who then issues the disqualification notice to the candidate within 10 days.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 10A of the RPA, 1951, specifies that disqualification applies only to the defaulting candidate, not their family members. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Election Commission of India has the power to remove or reduce the period of disqualification under Section 11 of the RPA, 1951, but there is no such judicial precedent in the cited case regarding a mandatory one-year reduction. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Rule 89, the Returning Officer reports the failure to the Election Commission of India, which then determines the disqualification, rather than the Chief Electoral Officer issuing the notice within a 10-day timeframe.
Consider the following statements regarding Disqualification of sitting members upon conviction:
1. Under Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a member of Parliament or State Legislature stands disqualified if convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years.
2. A member of the Rajya Sabha convicted for an offence under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, faces disqualification only if the imprisonment term exceeds three years, as specified in the original 1951 Act.
3. The Supreme Court in the Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) judgment declared that the protection previously enjoyed by sitting members under Section 8(4) of the Act was unconstitutional.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 8(3) mandates disqualification for any conviction resulting in a sentence of two years or more. Statement 3 is correct because the Lily Thomas judgment struck down Section 8(4), which previously allowed convicted members a three-month grace period to file appeals before disqualification took effect. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Representation of the People Act, 1951, does not provide a three-year threshold for FEMA violations; instead, it prescribes disqualification for any conviction resulting in imprisonment of two years or more, regardless of the specific act under which the conviction occurs.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal provisions for by-elections and casual vacancies:
1. Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides that a by-election for filling a casual vacancy in either House of Parliament or a State Legislature is to be held within a period of six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.
2. The Delimitation Commission Act of 2002 allows the Election Commission to adjust constituency boundaries during the interim period of a casual vacancy, provided the notification for the by-election has not been published in the Official Gazette.
3. Section 147 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, governs the casual vacancies in the Legislative Council of a State and provides that such vacancies are to be filled by the Governor through direct nomination if the term remaining is less than two years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 151A of the RPA, 1951, mandates filling casual vacancies within six months, provided the remainder of the term is one year or more. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Election Commission has no authority to adjust constituency boundaries during a by-election; boundaries are fixed by the Delimitation Commission and can only be altered by a fresh Delimitation Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 147 of the RPA, 1951, stipulates that a person elected or nominated to fill a casual vacancy serves only for the remainder of their predecessor's term, and the Governor does not possess the power to nominate members to fill such vacancies.
Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines and VVPAT legal framework:
1. Rule 49A of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, specifies the design and usage of electronic voting machines in parliamentary and assembly constituencies.
2. The Election Commission of India introduced the M3 generation of electronic voting machines in 2013, which include tamper-detection features and self-diagnostics.
3. The Supreme Court of India in the 2013 Subramanian Swamy versus Election Commission of India case observed that VVPAT is an indispensable requirement for free and fair elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Rule 49A was inserted into the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, to provide the legal framework for the use of EVMs. Statement 2 is correct because the M3 generation, introduced around 2013, features advanced tamper-detection and self-diagnostic capabilities to ensure machine integrity. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court in Subramanian Swamy v. ECI (2013) ruled that VVPATs are an indispensable requirement for free and fair elections, leading to the subsequent amendment of the Conduct of Election Rules to mandate their use.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for NRI voting and proxy voting rights:
1. The Supreme Court in the 2013 Shamsher Singh case directed the Union government to implement e-postal ballots for all non-resident Indians to ensure their participation in the 2014 general elections.
2. The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, were amended in 2016 to introduce the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System for service voters, though this facility remains unavailable to general overseas citizens.
3. Overseas electors are classified under the category of 'service voters' in the electoral rolls, which allows them to utilize the facilities provided under the 1951 Act for remote voting via designated diplomatic missions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the 2016 amendment to the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, introduced the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) exclusively for service voters, excluding overseas electors. Statement 1 is incorrect as the Supreme Court case regarding NRI voting is Shamsher Singh v. Union of India (2013), but it did not mandate e-postal ballots for the 2014 elections; rather, it acknowledged the government's efforts to facilitate NRI voting. Statement 3 is incorrect because overseas electors are registered as 'overseas electors' under Section 20A of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and are distinct from 'service voters', currently requiring their physical presence at their designated polling station in India to cast a vote.
Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines and VVPAT legal framework:
1. Rule 49MA of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, provides a procedure for a voter to challenge the accuracy of the VVPAT slip by submitting a written declaration.
2. Under the existing legal framework, the counting of VVPAT paper slips is conducted for five randomly selected polling stations per assembly segment in a constituency.
3. The 2019 Supreme Court directive increased the mandatory verification of VVPAT paper slips to five polling stations per assembly segment from the previous single-station protocol.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Rule 49MA of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, allows voters to challenge VVPAT accuracy via a written declaration, though they face penal consequences for false declarations. The Election Commission mandates the verification of VVPAT slips in five randomly selected polling stations per assembly segment, a protocol established following the 2019 Supreme Court directive which increased the requirement from the previous single-station verification to ensure greater transparency and public trust.
Consider the following statements regarding Role and powers of the Election Commission in conducting elections:
1. Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides for the registration of political associations and bodies with the Election Commission of India for the purpose of the Act.
2. The Election Commission of India maintains the electoral rolls for local body elections under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, which provide for a unified electoral roll across all tiers of government.
3. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, allows for the appointment of election observers under Section 20B, who report to the Chief Electoral Officer of the state regarding the conduct of the poll.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 29A of the RPA, 1951, mandates the registration of political parties with the ECI. Statement 2 is incorrect because, under Articles 243K and 243ZA, the State Election Commission (SEC)-not the ECI-is responsible for local body elections, and there is no constitutional mandate for a unified electoral roll. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while Section 20B of the RPA, 1951, allows for the appointment of observers, they report directly to the Election Commission of India, not the Chief Electoral Officer of the state.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection:
1. The split of a political party, which previously provided an exemption from disqualification under Paragraph 3, was removed by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
2. Paragraph 4 of the Tenth Schedule provides that a member shall not be disqualified if their original political party merges with another party and two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to such merger.
3. A nominated member of a House is disqualified if they join any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which they take their seat.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct because the 91st Amendment Act, 2003, omitted Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule, thereby removing the protection previously granted to 'splits' within a party. Statement 2 is correct as Paragraph 4 mandates that a merger is valid only if at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to it, a threshold raised from one-third by the same 2003 amendment. Statement 3 is correct under Paragraph 2(3) of the Tenth Schedule, which allows a nominated member to join a party only within the first six months of their tenure, after which joining a party triggers disqualification.
Consider the following statements regarding Conditions for registration of political parties under Section 29A:
1. Any association or body of individual citizens of India calling itself a political party seeking registration must submit an application to the Election Commission within 30 days following the date of its formation.
2. Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, was inserted into the statute through the 1989 amendment to formalize the registration process for political parties.
3. The 1989 amendment introduced Section 29A to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and concurrently established the Delimitation Commission to oversee the geographic boundaries of party organizational units.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 29A(2)(b) of the RPA, 1951, mandates that an application for registration must be submitted to the Election Commission within 30 days of the party's formation. Statement 2 is correct because Section 29A was indeed introduced by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1989, to provide a statutory basis for the registration of political parties. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the 1989 amendment introduced Section 29A, it did not establish a Delimitation Commission; Delimitation Commissions are constituted periodically under separate Acts (such as the Delimitation Act, 2002) and have no role in defining the internal organizational boundaries of political parties.
Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines and VVPAT legal framework:
1. The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, were amended in 2013 to introduce the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail system for recording votes.
2. Section 61A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, empowers the Election Commission of India to utilize voting machines in elections.
3. The 1989 amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, introduced Section 61A to authorize EVMs, and the first full-scale implementation occurred during the 1991 Lok Sabha elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, were amended in 2013 to incorporate Rule 49A, enabling the use of VVPATs. Statement 2 is correct because Section 61A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provides the statutory backing for the Election Commission to use voting machines. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Section 61A was indeed introduced in 1989, the first full-scale implementation of EVMs in Lok Sabha elections did not occur until 2004, not 1991.
Consider the following statements regarding Legal requirements for filing nomination papers and scrutiny:
1. The scrutiny of nomination papers under Section 36 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, allows the Returning Officer to reject a nomination if there is a failure to comply with the provisions of Section 33 or Section 34.
2. The Election Commission of India issued the 2013 guidelines regarding the filing of affidavits in Form 26, which incorporates the Supreme Court judgment in the Lily Thomas case and allows the Returning Officer to summarily reject nominations with blank columns.
3. Under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a candidate contesting from two parliamentary constituencies is permitted to retain both seats if elected, provided the candidate resigns from one seat within 14 days of the declaration of results.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 36 of the RPA, 1951, empowers the Returning Officer to reject nominations for non-compliance with Section 33 (nomination requirements) or Section 34 (security deposits). Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the Supreme Court in the Resurgence India Case (2013) ruled that candidates must fill all columns in Form 26, the Returning Officer can only reject a nomination if the candidate fails to furnish information even after being given an opportunity to do so, not merely for leaving a column blank. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 33(7) of the RPA, 1951, allows a candidate to contest from two constituencies, but Section 70 mandates that if elected from both, the candidate must vacate one seat within 14 days, and failure to do so results in both seats becoming vacant.
Consider the following statements regarding Disqualification grounds under Section 8 of RPA 1951:
1. The disqualification criteria under Section 8(2) cover offences involving the hoarding of essential commodities, and the period of disqualification commences upon the filing of the charge sheet by the investigating agency.
2. The Election Commission of India possesses the inherent power under Section 11 of the Act to remove or reduce the period of disqualification for any person convicted under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
3. Under the provisions of Section 8A of the Act, a person found guilty of a corrupt practice by the High Court is disqualified for a period of six years, with the period beginning from the date of the Supreme Court's final appellate judgment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because disqualification under Section 8(2) begins only upon conviction, not the filing of a charge sheet. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Election Commission of India's power under Section 11 is restricted to removing or reducing disqualification for offences under Section 8(1) and 8(2), whereas the Dowry Prohibition Act falls under Section 8(3), for which the ECI lacks such authority. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 8A, the six-year disqualification period commences from the date the High Court's order finding the person guilty of corrupt practice takes effect, not from the Supreme Court's appellate judgment.