Consider the following statements regarding Cooperative federalism in the context of the Seventh Schedule:
1. Under Article 258, the President may, with the consent of the State Government, entrust to that Government functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
2. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 emphasized that the Seventh Schedule should be interpreted in a manner that promotes harmonious relations through the mechanism of cooperative federalism.
3. The Goods and Services Tax Council, created via the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, functions as a constitutional body where the Union and States jointly decide on tax rates.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 258 allows the President to delegate Union executive functions to States with their consent to ensure administrative efficiency. Statement 2 is correct because the 1988 Sarkaria Commission report underscored that the Seventh Schedule must be interpreted through the lens of cooperative federalism to resolve potential legislative overlaps. Statement 3 is correct as the GST Council, established under Article 279A via the 101st Amendment, serves as a quintessential federal institution where the Union and States exercise joint decision-making power.
Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council as a deliberative forum:
1. The GST Council oversees the implementation of the e-way bill system, which was introduced in April 2018 to replace the previous interstate sales tax framework established by the 1956 Central Sales Tax Act.
2. The GST Council functions as a statutory body under the Ministry of Finance, and its recommendations are binding on the Parliament as per the procedural rules of the 2017 GST Act.
3. The GST Council secretariat is located in New Delhi, and its administrative expenses are shared equally between the Consolidated Fund of India and the respective State Contingency Funds.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the e-way bill system was introduced to replace the check-post system under the VAT regime, not the 1956 Central Sales Tax Act. Statement 2 is incorrect as the GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A, and its recommendations are not legally binding on Parliament, which retains its legislative sovereignty. Statement 3 is incorrect because the administrative expenses of the Council are borne entirely by the Central Government, not shared with State Contingency Funds.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-state river water sharing and the Interstate River Water Disputes Act:
1. Under the 1956 Act, the decision of a tribunal, once published in the Official Gazette, holds the same legal force as a decree of the Supreme Court of India.
2. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act of 1956 empowers the President of India to establish a permanent inter-state council to oversee the implementation of tribunal awards.
3. The Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal was formed in 1969 to resolve issues between Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh, and its final award was ratified by the Inter-State Council in 1980.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because Section 6 of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, grants the final award of a tribunal the same legal force as a decree of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Act does not empower the President to create a permanent Inter-State Council for this purpose; instead, the 2019 Amendment introduced a permanent 'Disputes Resolution Committee' and a single permanent Tribunal. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Godavari Water Disputes Tribunal was constituted in 1969, its awards are notified by the Central Government, not ratified by the Inter-State Council, which is a constitutional body under Article 263 established for broader center-state coordination.
Consider the following statements regarding Presidential assent to state legislation under Article 200 and 201:
1. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced the specific provision under Article 201 that the President has a period of six months to communicate their decision on a reserved state bill.
2. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 recommended that the President should convey their assent to a reserved bill within a timeframe of 90 days to maintain the spirit of cooperative federalism.
3. Under the Seventh Schedule, the Union List includes entry 97, which serves as the primary legal basis for the President to veto state legislation that concerns matters of national security.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Constitution prescribes no time limit for the President to act on a reserved bill under Article 201. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Sarkaria Commission did not recommend a 90-day limit, but rather suggested that the President should communicate their decision within a reasonable time and that reasons for withholding assent should be shared with the State Government. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 201 does not rely on Entry 97 of the Union List for the President's power to veto state legislation; rather, the President acts based on the discretionary power granted by the Constitution to ensure state laws do not conflict with national interests or constitutional provisions.
Consider the following statements regarding Presidential assent to state legislation under Article 200 and 201:
1. Article 201 provides that when a bill is reserved for the President, the President may direct the Governor to return the bill to the House or Houses of the Legislature with a message.
2. The proviso to Article 200 allows a Governor to send a bill back to the State Legislature for reconsideration, but if the bill is passed again with or without amendments, the Governor is not permitted to withhold assent.
3. The Supreme Court in the 1994 S.R. Bommai case observed that the reservation of a bill for Presidential assent is a discretionary power exercised by the Governor.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 201 empowers the President to direct the Governor to return a bill for reconsideration by the State Legislature. Statement 2 is correct because the proviso to Article 200 mandates that if the Legislature re-passes a bill returned by the Governor, the Governor must grant assent and cannot withhold it. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court in S.R. Bommai (1994) affirmed that while the Governor acts on aid and advice, the reservation of a bill for the President is a specific discretionary power under the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers on States:
1. Article 258(1) is derived from Section 124 of the Government of India Act 1935, which permitted the Federal Legislature to delegate its legislative functions to the Provincial Governors during the colonial transition period.
2. Article 258(1) empowers the President of India, with the consent of the State Government, to entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Article 258A, which allows the Governor of a State, with the consent of the Government of India, to entrust to that Government or its officers functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while Article 258 is rooted in the Government of India Act 1935, Section 124 specifically concerned the delegation of executive, not legislative, functions. Statement 2 is correct as Article 258(1) enables the President to entrust executive functions of the Union to a State Government with its consent, reflecting the principle of cooperative federalism. Statement 3 is correct because Article 258A was indeed inserted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 (not 42nd, though the functional description is accurate) to provide a reciprocal mechanism allowing States to entrust their executive functions to the Union government.
Consider the following statements regarding Financial devolution through Finance Commission recommendations:
1. The 13th Finance Commission, chaired by Vijay Kelkar, suggested a roadmap for fiscal consolidation and recommended the creation of a National Disaster Response Fund to replace the existing Calamity Relief Fund.
2. The Finance Commission Act of 1951 outlines the qualifications for the chairperson and four other members, noting that the chairperson is chosen from individuals with experience in public affairs.
3. The 12th Finance Commission, which covered the period 2005-2010, proposed the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax framework to streamline the indirect tax structure across state boundaries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) was established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, not by the 13th Finance Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, does not specify the qualifications for members; these are determined by the President, and the chairperson is required to have experience in public affairs, not just 'chosen from' such individuals. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 12th Finance Commission (2005-2010) focused on fiscal restructuring and debt relief, whereas the roadmap for the Goods and Services Tax was formally proposed by the 13th Finance Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 263 and the resolution of inter-state disputes:
1. The Punchhi Commission, constituted in 2007, suggested that the Inter-State Council should meet at least thrice a year to deliberate on matters of national importance and inter-state coordination.
2. The Prime Minister of India serves as the Chairman of the Inter-State Council, which includes all Chief Ministers of States and Administrators of Union Territories as its members.
3. Under Article 263, the Inter-State Council is tasked with investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States, have a common interest.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Punchhi Commission (2007) recommended that the Inter-State Council (ISC) should meet at least thrice a year to ensure robust cooperative federalism. Statement 2 is correct because, under the Inter-State Council Order of 1990, the Prime Minister acts as the Chairman, with all Chief Ministers and Administrators of UTs as members. Statement 3 is correct as Article 263 empowers the President to establish the ISC to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and States or among States themselves, serving as a vital mechanism for inter-state coordination.
Consider the following statements regarding Emergency provisions and the temporary suspension of federal features:
1. The proclamation of President's Rule under Article 356 in a state results in the automatic dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly and the immediate transfer of all legislative powers to the Parliament.
2. Article 354 provides that the President can authorize the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States in a manner different from the recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission during a financial emergency.
3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced the provision for judicial review of the satisfaction of the President in issuing a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 356 allows the President to either suspend or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly, not automatically dissolve it. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 354 relates to the distribution of revenues during a National Emergency (Article 352), not a Financial Emergency (Article 360). Statement 3 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, not the 42nd, restored and clarified the scope of judicial review regarding the President's satisfaction in issuing a Proclamation of Emergency.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperation in internal security and the role of MHA:
1. The Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 to foster inter-state cooperation and resolve regional disputes.
2. The National Investigation Agency Act of 2008 empowers the MHA to deploy central forces to states for terror-related investigations without prior state consent.
3. The Inter-State Council was established in 1990 under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate coordination between the Union and the States.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, established five Zonal Councils to promote regional cooperation and resolve interstate disputes. Statement 2 is correct because the NIA Act, 2008, grants the Central Government the authority to suo motu take over investigations of scheduled offenses, effectively allowing the deployment of central agencies without requiring prior state consent. Statement 3 is correct as the Inter-State Council was constituted in 1990 under Article 263, following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission, to serve as a constitutional forum for Union-State and inter-state coordination.
Consider the following statements regarding The impact of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts on multi-level governance:
1. The Eleventh Schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment to define the financial autonomy of local bodies, allowing them to levy and collect taxes on land revenue and professional income.
2. The 73rd Amendment Act introduced the District Planning Committee under Article 243ZD to consolidate plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities for the entire district.
3. The 74th Amendment Act established the State Election Commission to conduct elections for local bodies, mirroring the powers granted to the Election Commission of India under Article 324.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Eleventh Schedule lists functional items for Panchayats, while financial autonomy is governed by State Legislatures under Article 243H. Statement 2 is incorrect as the District Planning Committee is mandated by Article 243ZD under the 74th Amendment Act, not the 73rd. Statement 3 is incorrect because the State Election Commission is established under Article 243K (for Panchayats) and Article 243ZA (for Municipalities), whereas the 74th Amendment Act itself does not create a single commission for both; furthermore, its powers are restricted to local bodies, unlike the constitutional scope of the Election Commission of India under Article 324.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 263 and the resolution of inter-state disputes:
1. The Inter-State Council was established under the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, which added the provision for regional zonal councils to resolve administrative friction between neighboring states.
2. The 1956 States Reorganisation Act provides for the creation of the Inter-State Council, which functions as a judicial body to pass binding decrees on water-sharing disputes between riparian states.
3. Article 263 encompasses the formation of the National Development Council, which was set up in 1952 to oversee the implementation of Five-Year Plans through the consensus of state legislative assemblies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the Inter-State Council was established by the President under Article 263 in 1990 based on the Sarkaria Commission's recommendation, not by the 42nd Amendment or the 1956 Act. Furthermore, the Inter-State Council is an advisory body, not a judicial one, and water-sharing disputes are specifically excluded from its purview under Article 262, which mandates separate tribunals. Finally, the National Development Council was an extra-constitutional body created by an executive resolution in 1952, having no legal or constitutional link to Article 263.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers on States:
1. The provision under Article 258(2) allows the Parliament to authorize the State Legislature to enact supplementary rules for the administration of Union laws, provided the President grants prior assent under the 1950 Rules of Business.
2. The Supreme Court of India in the 'State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India (1977)' case observed that Article 258 serves as a mechanism for the administrative decentralization of Union functions to State-level executive machinery.
3. The Inter-State Council established under Article 263 functions as the primary appellate body for resolving disputes arising from the implementation of executive powers delegated to States under Article 258.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Supreme Court in the State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India (1977) highlighted that Article 258 facilitates the delegation of Union executive functions to State machinery, reinforcing cooperative federalism. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 258(2) empowers the Parliament to confer powers and impose duties upon the State or its officers through law, but it does not require the President's prior assent under the Rules of Business for the State Legislature to enact supplementary rules. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Inter-State Council under Article 263 is a recommendatory body for policy coordination and dispute resolution between States, not an appellate body for the implementation of delegated executive powers under Article 258.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperation in disaster management under the Disaster Management Act, 2005:
1. The 12th Finance Commission recommended the creation of the National Disaster Response Fund, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance.
2. Under Section 22 of the Act, the State Executive Committee coordinates with the District Disaster Management Authority to prepare the State Disaster Management Plan, which is approved by the President of India.
3. The National Executive Committee, chaired by the Union Home Secretary, serves as the primary executive body for coordinating disaster response as per the 2005 Act and the 2016 National Disaster Management Plan.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance. Statement 2 is incorrect as the State Disaster Management Plan is approved by the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA), chaired by the Chief Minister, rather than the President of India. Statement 3 is incorrect because the National Executive Committee is chaired by the Union Home Secretary, but the National Disaster Management Plan is prepared by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), which is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements regarding Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) and the principle of fiscal federalism:
1. Under the 2016 restructuring of Centrally Sponsored Schemes, the number of core schemes was rationalized into 28 umbrella programs to improve implementation efficiency.
2. The National Development Council, established in August 1952, served as the primary forum for consultation between the Union and states regarding the formulation of national plans.
3. Centrally Sponsored Schemes are funded through a fixed 75:25 ratio for all states, as established by the 2015 recommendations of the Sub-Group of Chief Ministers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2016 rationalization consolidated numerous schemes into 28 umbrella programs to enhance administrative efficiency. Statement 2 is correct because the National Development Council (NDC) acted as the apex body for policy decisions involving the Union and states until the NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect because the funding pattern is not a uniform 75:25 ratio; it varies between 90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states and 60:40 for general category states, based on the 2015 Sub-Group recommendations.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-state river water sharing and the Interstate River Water Disputes Act:
1. The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act of 1956 was enacted by Parliament under the authority granted by Article 262 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal was constituted in 1990 to adjudicate the water sharing conflict between the states of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Puducherry.
3. The 2019 amendment to the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act introduced a permanent tribunal to replace the ad-hoc tribunals previously established for individual disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of inter-state river disputes, leading to the enactment of the 1956 Act. Statement 2 is correct because the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal was indeed established in 1990 to resolve the long-standing water-sharing conflict involving Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Puducherry. Statement 3 is correct as the 2019 Amendment Act replaced the previous ad-hoc tribunal system with a permanent Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal to ensure faster resolution of disputes.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperation in disaster management under the Disaster Management Act, 2005:
1. The National Institute of Disaster Management, established in 2003, operates under the Ministry of Earth Sciences to provide training and research support for capacity building in disaster mitigation.
2. Section 30 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 designates the District Magistrate as the Chairperson of the District Disaster Management Authority, responsible for reviewing the district-level disaster preparedness measures.
3. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 provides for the constitution of the National Disaster Management Authority under the chairmanship of the Prime Minister.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Section 3 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 mandates the Prime Minister as the ex-officio Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the District Magistrate acts as the Chairperson of the District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA), this provision is outlined under Section 25 of the Act, not Section 30.
Consider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils and regional cooperation frameworks:
1. The National Development Council, chaired by the Prime Minister, oversees the financial allocations for the Zonal Councils under the provisions of the 1956 Reorganisation Act.
2. The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution in 1990, and it serves as the primary administrative secretariat for the Zonal Councils.
3. The Zonal Councils were originally proposed in the 1953 report of the Fazal Ali Commission, which suggested the inclusion of the Union Territories as permanent voting members.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and are chaired by the Union Home Minister, not overseen by the National Development Council. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body under Article 263 meant for coordination between states, while the Zonal Councils are serviced by the Inter-State Council Secretariat under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the other way around. Statement 3 is incorrect because Zonal Councils were proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru during the debate on the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and Union Territories are not permanent voting members; they are represented by their Administrators or Lieutenant Governors.
Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council as a deliberative forum:
1. The GST Council was established under Article 279A of the Constitution, introduced via the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2016.
2. The GST Council is empowered to recommend the inclusion of petroleum products under the GST regime, a provision formally activated by the 101st Amendment in September 2016.
3. Decisions in the GST Council are taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 279A was inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, to establish the GST Council as a constitutional body. Statement 3 is correct because the Council functions on a weighted voting system where the Centre has one-third weightage and the States collectively have two-thirds, requiring a three-fourths majority for decisions. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the GST Council is empowered to make recommendations, the 101st Amendment specifically kept petroleum crude, high-speed diesel, motor spirit, natural gas, and aviation turbine fuel outside the GST net until the Council decides a date for their inclusion, which has not yet been activated.
Consider the following statements regarding Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) and the principle of fiscal federalism:
1. The Gadgil-Mukherjee formula, adopted in 1991, determines the distribution of Central Assistance for state plans based on per capita income and fiscal management performance.
2. The 15th Finance Commission recommended a 41 percent share for states, accounting for the 1 percent adjustment for the newly formed Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
3. The 14th Finance Commission increased the vertical devolution of tax revenues to states from 32 percent to 42 percent to provide greater fiscal autonomy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the 14th Finance Commission significantly increased the vertical devolution of tax revenues from 32% to 42% to empower states. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Gadgil-Mukherjee formula was adopted in 1969 (revised in 1991) to allocate Central Assistance for State Plans, not specifically for CSS, and it has been largely superseded by the NITI Aayog framework. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 15th Finance Commission recommended a 41% share, the 1% adjustment was specifically made to provide for the newly formed Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh from the divisible pool, maintaining the 41% net share for states.
Consider the following statements regarding Joint Parliamentary Committees and federal consensus building:
1. The Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 to provide a forum for inter-state cooperation on issues like linguistic minorities and border disputes.
2. The Joint Committee on the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019, was formed under the Rules of Procedure of the Rajya Sabha, and it holds the authority to override state-level legislative resolutions on immigration.
3. The 15th Finance Commission report included specific recommendations for enhancing the fiscal autonomy of local bodies, which were discussed in joint legislative forums to ensure federal alignment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Zonal Councils were indeed established by Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, to foster inter-state cooperation. Statement 3 is correct because the 15th Finance Commission emphasized fiscal federalism by recommending specific grants for local bodies, which were deliberated in consultative forums to align state and central fiscal policies. Statement 2 is incorrect because Joint Parliamentary Committees are constituted by a motion in one House with the concurrence of the other, and they lack the constitutional authority to override state-level legislative resolutions, as immigration and citizenship remain matters under the Union List.
Consider the following statements regarding Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) and the principle of fiscal federalism:
1. The 13th Finance Commission introduced the concept of performance-based grants, which were linked to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax across all states by 2012.
2. Article 282 of the Constitution provides the legal basis for discretionary grants, which the Sarkaria Commission suggested should be routed through the Finance Commission.
3. The NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in 2015 and holds the authority to allocate funds for Centrally Sponsored Schemes directly to district administrations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 13th Finance Commission recommended performance-based grants for various sectors like local governance and environment, but the GST-linked compensation mechanism was a distinct fiscal arrangement under the 101st Constitutional Amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Article 282 is the constitutional basis for discretionary grants, the Sarkaria Commission actually recommended that the Planning Commission, not the Finance Commission, should play a more consultative role in these allocations to ensure cooperative federalism. Statement 3 is incorrect because NITI Aayog is a think-tank and does not possess the mandate or financial powers to allocate funds directly to district administrations; fund allocation for CSS remains a function of the Union Ministries through the Finance Ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding All India Services as a mechanism for administrative integration:
1. Article 312 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to create one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
2. The All India Services (Discipline and Appeal) Rules of 1969 provide that the Governor of a state possesses the final authority to dismiss an officer belonging to the Indian Administrative Service without reference to the Union government.
3. The Inter-State Council, established under Article 263, serves as the primary constitutional body responsible for the direct recruitment and training of All India Service officers to maintain uniform administrative standards across the country.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 312 mandates a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting) in the Rajya Sabha to create new All India Services, reflecting its role as a representative of states. Statement 2 is incorrect because, under Article 311, only the President of India has the authority to dismiss or remove an All India Service officer, as they are appointed by the Union. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Inter-State Council is a consultative body for coordination between states and the Centre under Article 263, whereas the recruitment and training of these officers are managed by the Union government through the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) and the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA).
Consider the following statements regarding Joint Parliamentary Committees and federal consensus building:
1. The Joint Parliamentary Committee on the Office of Profit was first constituted in 1954 to examine the composition of various committees and boards under the Government of India.
2. The Joint Committee on the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, held extensive consultations with state governments to address concerns regarding the localization of data storage.
3. Article 263 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and the States.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Joint Committee on Offices of Profit was first constituted in 1954 to identify positions that disqualify members from holding office. Statement 2 is correct because the Joint Committee on the PDP Bill, 2019, engaged in widespread deliberations, including consultations with state representatives, to balance national security with federal data governance concerns. Statement 3 is correct as Article 263 provides the constitutional mandate for the President to establish an Inter-State Council to facilitate coordination and resolve disputes between the Union and the States, serving as a pillar of cooperative federalism.
Consider the following statements regarding All India Services as a mechanism for administrative integration:
1. The Indian Forest Service was constituted as the third All India Service in 1966, and its officers are governed by the service rules framed by the State Public Service Commissions in consultation with the Union Public Service Commission.
2. The Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966 proposed that the disciplinary authority over All India Service officers serving in states should be transferred to the State Chief Secretary to ensure administrative accountability.
3. The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act of 1956 established the common cadre system for All India Services, ensuring that officers are allocated to state cadres based on the domicile requirements of the respective state legislatures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because All India Service rules are framed by the Central Government, not State Public Service Commissions. Statement 2 is incorrect as the disciplinary authority over All India Service officers remains with the Union Government, not the State Chief Secretary, to ensure independence from local political pressures. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Constitution (All-India Services Act, 1951) governs the cadre system, and officers are explicitly prohibited from being allocated based on domicile to maintain national integration and impartiality.
Consider the following statements regarding The impact of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts on multi-level governance:
1. The 74th Amendment Act provided for the Metropolitan Planning Committee in cities with a population exceeding ten lakhs, which functions under the direct supervision of the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. Article 243K provides for the constitution of the State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats and recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the State and the local government.
3. The 73rd Amendment Act introduced the Gram Sabha as the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system, granting it the authority to approve development plans and select beneficiaries for poverty alleviation programs as per the 1992 statute.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Metropolitan Planning Committee is a state-level body mandated by Article 243ZE, not under the direct supervision of the Union Ministry. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 243K deals with State Election Commissions, while the State Finance Commission is constituted under Article 243I for Panchayats and Article 243Y for Municipalities. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Gram Sabha is the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system, the 1992 Act did not explicitly grant it the power to select beneficiaries; such powers were devolved to the Gram Sabhas subsequently by various state legislatures under the framework of the Act.
Consider the following statements regarding The impact of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts on multi-level governance:
1. Article 243G of the Constitution empowers the State Legislatures to devolve powers and responsibilities to Panchayats regarding the 29 functional items listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
2. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, introduced Part IXA, which gives constitutional recognition to Urban Local Bodies and mandates the constitution of Ward Committees in municipalities with a population of three lakhs or more.
3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, inserted Part IX into the Constitution, which provides for the establishment of a three-tier structure of Panchayati Raj institutions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Article 243G empowers State Legislatures to devolve powers to Panchayats for the 29 items in the Eleventh Schedule, while the 74th Amendment introduced Part IXA and mandated Ward Committees for municipalities with a population of three lakhs or more. Furthermore, the 73rd Amendment added Part IX to the Constitution, establishing a mandatory three-tier Panchayati Raj structure across states (except those with populations below 20 lakhs). There are no incorrect statements provided in the question.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial interpretation of the 'Basic Structure' regarding federal balance:
1. The Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) verdict established the doctrine of basic structure, which limits the Parliament's power to alter the federal character of the Constitution.
2. Under the Seventh Schedule, the Union List contains 100 items as per the current constitutional arrangement, defining the scope of legislative competence for the central government.
3. Article 263 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and the States.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Kesavananda Bharati judgment (1973) explicitly identified federalism as a part of the 'basic structure,' thereby restricting Parliament's amending power. Statement 2 is correct because, although originally containing 97 items, the Union List currently comprises 100 items following various constitutional amendments. Statement 3 is correct as Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to facilitate coordination and resolve disputes, serving as a key mechanism for cooperative federalism.
Consider the following statements regarding Emergency provisions and the temporary suspension of federal features:
1. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the Parliament holds the authority under Article 250 to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List.
2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the term 'armed rebellion' for 'internal disturbance' to limit the scope of invoking Article 352.
3. The Supreme Court in the S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) case observed that the federal structure is a basic feature of the Constitution, which remains operative even during the proclamation of President's Rule under Article 356.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency. Statement 2 is correct because the 44th Amendment (1978) replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' to prevent the misuse of Article 352 for political reasons. Statement 3 is correct as the S.R. Bommai judgment established that federalism is a basic feature and the President's power under Article 356 is subject to judicial review to prevent arbitrary dissolution of state governments.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperative federalism in the context of the Seventh Schedule:
1. The Concurrent List, comprising 52 entries as of the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, serves as a primary mechanism for cooperative legislative action between the Centre and States.
2. The Seventh Schedule includes Entry 97 in the Union List to cover residuary powers, and the 1956 States Reorganisation Act serves as the primary constitutional instrument for adjusting these entries during inter-state boundary disputes.
3. Article 246 of the Constitution organizes the legislative powers of the Union and the States into three distinct lists under the Seventh Schedule.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Concurrent List enables both levels of government to legislate on shared subjects, with the 42nd Amendment increasing its entries to 52. Statement 3 is correct because Article 246 explicitly delineates the legislative competence of the Union and States through the three lists of the Seventh Schedule. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Entry 97 covers residuary powers, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 is a statutory act for territorial adjustment and not a constitutional instrument for modifying the Seventh Schedule's legislative entries.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperation in internal security and the role of MHA:
1. The 2002 Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act provides for the creation of the National Security Advisory Board, which coordinates internal security intelligence between the MHA and state home departments.
2. The 2016 amendment to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act allows the MHA to designate individuals as terrorists, enhancing federal counter-terror cooperation.
3. The MHA operates the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) project, which links over 15,000 police stations across the country.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, deals with the registration and regulation of cooperative societies, not internal security or the National Security Advisory Board. Statement 2 is correct as the 2019 amendment to the UAPA (often cited in the context of 2016-era policy shifts) empowered the MHA to designate individuals as terrorists to strengthen national security coordination. Statement 3 is correct because the CCTNS, launched in 2009 under the MHA, successfully integrated over 15,000 police stations nationwide to create a unified database for crime investigation and federal intelligence sharing.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of NITI Aayog in promoting competitive and cooperative federalism:
1. The Atal Innovation Mission, introduced in the 2016 Union Budget, functions as a statutory authority under the Ministry of Finance to oversee state-level startup funding.
2. The NITI Aayog Act of 2015 provides for the formal integration of the Finance Commission's recommendations into the annual state resource allocation process.
3. The Regional Councils of NITI Aayog are formed for a specified tenure to address specific issues impacting more than one state or region.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Regional Councils are constituted by NITI Aayog for a specified tenure to address issues impacting specific regions or groups of states. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Atal Innovation Mission is an initiative under NITI Aayog, not a statutory authority under the Ministry of Finance. Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no 'NITI Aayog Act of 2015'; NITI Aayog was established through a Cabinet Resolution, and it does not have the mandate to formally integrate Finance Commission recommendations into state resource allocation.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial interpretation of the 'Basic Structure' regarding federal balance:
1. The Sarkaria Commission report submitted in 1988 suggested the creation of a permanent Inter-State Council, which was subsequently established by an amendment to Article 263 in 1990.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 transferred education from the State List to the Concurrent List, a move upheld by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case.
3. Article 356 was invoked for the first time in the state of Punjab in 1951, following the collapse of the Gopi Chand Bhargava ministry due to internal party disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Inter-State Council was established by a Presidential Order under Article 263, not by a constitutional amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect as the transfer of education to the Concurrent List occurred via the 42nd Amendment, but the Minerva Mills case (1980) dealt with judicial review and the basic structure, not the validity of this specific transfer. Statement 3 is incorrect because while President's Rule was first imposed in Punjab in 1951, it was due to the resignation of the Chief Minister following internal Congress party disputes, but the state was under Governor's rule, not the Gopi Chand Bhargava ministry collapse as described.
Consider the following statements regarding Emergency provisions and the temporary suspension of federal features:
1. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 suggested that the power to dismiss a State Government under Article 356 should be exercised only after the Governor receives a formal request from the leader of the opposition party.
2. Under Article 353, the executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to any State as to the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised during a Proclamation of Emergency.
3. Under the provisions of Article 359, the President is empowered to suspend the enforcement of the right to move any court for the enforcement of the fundamental rights, including those guaranteed under Article 20 and Article 21.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 353 empowers the Union to issue executive directions to states during a National Emergency. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended that Article 356 be used as a last resort, not that the Governor must seek a request from the opposition leader. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment Act (1978) explicitly prohibits the suspension of the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 even during an Emergency.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers on States:
1. Under Article 258(2), a law made by Parliament which applies in any State may, notwithstanding that it relates to a matter with respect to which the Legislature of the State has no power to make laws, confer powers and impose duties upon the State or officers and authorities thereof.
2. Article 258A was incorporated into the Constitution following the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission in 1983 to formalize the voluntary transfer of State-level police powers to the Central Reserve Police Force.
3. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 expanded the scope of Article 258 to include the delegation of judicial powers from the Union to the High Courts of the States to reduce the backlog of central litigation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 258(2) empowers Parliament to confer powers and impose duties on State officers regarding matters within the Union's legislative competence, even if the State legislature lacks such power. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 258A was inserted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, not the Sarkaria Commission, to allow States to entrust executive functions to the Union. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 7th Amendment did not delegate judicial powers to High Courts; Article 258 is strictly limited to the delegation of executive powers, and judicial independence prevents such administrative delegation.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 263 and the resolution of inter-state disputes:
1. Article 263 empowers the President of India to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears to the public interest that such a council be charged with the duty of inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between States.
2. The Sarkaria Commission, established in 1983 under the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria, recommended the permanent establishment of the Inter-State Council to strengthen cooperative federalism.
3. The Inter-State Council was formally constituted in 1990 through a Presidential Order based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission report submitted in 1988.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise upon inter-state disputes, making statement 1 correct. The Sarkaria Commission (1983) indeed recommended the permanent establishment of this body to foster cooperative federalism, and the Inter-State Council was subsequently constituted in 1990 via a Presidential Order following the commission's 1988 report, confirming statements 2 and 3 as correct. As all statements accurately reflect the constitutional provisions and historical developments regarding the Inter-State Council, there are no incorrect statements.
Consider the following statements regarding Financial devolution through Finance Commission recommendations:
1. The First Finance Commission was established in 1951 under the chairmanship of K.C. Neogy and recommended the inclusion of corporate tax in the divisible pool of central revenues.
2. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary.
3. The 14th Finance Commission introduced the concept of performance-based grants for local bodies and increased the share of states in central taxes to 42 percent starting from the 2014-15 fiscal year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Article 280 mandates the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years or earlier. Statement 1 is incorrect because while K.C. Neogy chaired the first commission, it did not recommend the inclusion of corporate tax in the divisible pool, which was a later development. Statement 3 is incorrect because, although the 14th Finance Commission did increase the states' share to 42%, it was effective from the 2015-16 fiscal year, not 2014-15, and the performance-based grant mechanism was primarily a feature of the 15th Finance Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding The role of the Governor in maintaining centre-state synergy:
1. The National Integration Council, reconstituted in 2008, functions as the advisory body that oversees the Governor's discretionary powers regarding the administration of Fifth Schedule areas in the states.
2. The Inter-State Council, established in 1990 under Article 263, serves as a platform for the Governor and the Chief Minister to deliberate on issues of common interest for centre-state synergy.
3. The Punchhi Commission report submitted in 2010 recommended that the doctrine of 'pleasure' should be replaced by a specific procedure for the removal of the Governor by the state legislature.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Integration Council is a high-level advisory body for national unity, not an oversight mechanism for the Governor's discretionary powers under the Fifth Schedule, which are governed by the Constitution and the President. Statement 2 is correct as Article 263 empowers the Inter-State Council to foster coordination between the Centre and States, where Governors and Chief Ministers discuss policy synergy. Statement 3 is correct because the Punchhi Commission (2010) recommended amending the doctrine of 'pleasure' to provide a fixed tenure and a specific procedure for the Governor's removal by the state legislature to ensure institutional independence.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperation in disaster management under the Disaster Management Act, 2005:
1. The 2016 National Disaster Management Plan provides a framework for multi-hazard risk assessment and was formulated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in alignment with the Sendai Framework.
2. Section 14 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 enables the State Government to establish a State Disaster Management Authority with the Chief Minister as the ex-officio Chairperson.
3. The National Disaster Response Fund is constituted under Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 to meet the expenses for emergency response, relief, and rehabilitation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Disaster Management Plan is formulated by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Statement 2 is correct as Section 14 of the DM Act, 2005 mandates the establishment of the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) headed by the Chief Minister. Statement 3 is correct because Section 46 of the Act specifically provides for the constitution of the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) to manage emergency response and relief operations.
Consider the following statements regarding The role of the Governor in maintaining centre-state synergy:
1. The 1983 Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Governor be appointed in consultation with the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha to maintain political neutrality during centre-state interactions.
2. The Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966 proposed the creation of a permanent Zonal Council secretariat, which currently functions as the primary body for the Governor to report directly to the Union Home Ministry.
3. Under the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, the Governor gained the authority to reserve state bills for the President's consideration based on the recommendation of the Inter-State Council.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Governor be appointed in consultation with the Chief Minister of the concerned state, not the Leader of the Opposition. Statement 2 is incorrect as Zonal Councils are advisory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and Governors do not report to the Union Home Ministry through them. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Governor's power to reserve bills for the President is derived from Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution, which predate the 42nd Amendment, and is not linked to the Inter-State Council.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperation in internal security and the role of MHA:
1. The Ministry of Home Affairs chairs the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council, which reviews the implementation of recommendations made by the Sarkaria Commission.
2. The 1971 North Eastern Council Act encompasses the mandate of the Union Home Minister as the ex-officio Chairman of the Council, overseeing regional development and internal security infrastructure.
3. The NATGRID project, approved by the Cabinet Committee on Security in 2010, provides a platform for intelligence agencies to access data from 11 different databases.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Union Home Minister chairs the Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council, which monitors the implementation of Sarkaria Commission recommendations. Statement 3 is correct because NATGRID, approved in 2010, integrates data from 11 distinct sources like banks, telecom, and airlines to enhance counter-terror capabilities. Statement 2 is incorrect because, while the North Eastern Council Act was enacted in 1971, the Union Home Minister serves as the ex-officio Chairman only since the 2002 amendment; previously, the Minister of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) held this position.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council and its constitutional mandate:
1. The Inter-State Council is tasked with investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States have a common interest.
2. The Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council, first set up in 1996, is chaired by the Union Minister of Home Affairs.
3. The Inter-State Council Secretariat, which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, provides administrative support for the Council's meetings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 263 empowers the President to establish the Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states and discuss subjects of common interest. Statement 2 is correct because the Standing Committee, established in 1996 to ensure continuous consultation, is chaired by the Union Home Minister. Statement 3 is correct as the Inter-State Council Secretariat was set up in 1991 and operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs to facilitate the Council's functions.
Consider the following statements regarding Financial devolution through Finance Commission recommendations:
1. The 15th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, recommended maintaining the vertical devolution of tax proceeds to states at 41 percent for the 2021-26 period.
2. The Finance Commission is responsible for suggesting the principles that govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 275.
3. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Union government and serve as the basis for the annual budget presentation under the provisions of Article 281.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 15th Finance Commission recommended a 41% share for states, adjusting the 42% share of the 14th FC by 1% to account for the creation of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct because Article 275 mandates the Commission to formulate principles for providing grants-in-aid to states in need of assistance from the Consolidated Fund of India. Statement 3 is incorrect because the recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature and not binding on the government, although they are laid before each House of Parliament as per Article 281.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council and its constitutional mandate:
1. Article 263 of the Constitution empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if the public interest is served by such an inquiry.
2. The Sarkaria Commission, established in 1983, recommended the creation of a permanent Inter-State Council to foster better Centre-State coordination.
3. The Inter-State Council was formally established in 1990 through a Presidential Order following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise upon disputes between states or subjects of common interest, which is a constitutional mechanism for cooperative federalism. The Sarkaria Commission (1983-88) strongly advocated for a permanent body to resolve Centre-State tensions, leading the V.P. Singh government to formally establish the Inter-State Council via a Presidential Order in 1990. As all three statements accurately reflect the constitutional provisions and historical timeline of the Council's formation, there are no incorrect statements.
Consider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils and regional cooperation frameworks:
1. The Chief Ministers of the states included in each zone act as the Vice-Chairman of the respective Zonal Council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year.
2. The Zonal Councils include the Chief Secretaries of the member states as permanent members, and they hold the power to issue binding directives on interstate river water disputes.
3. The Zonal Councils function as advisory bodies, providing a forum for discussion on matters of common interest like border disputes and linguistic minorities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, mandates that the Chief Ministers of the member states serve as Vice-Chairmen of their respective Zonal Councils by rotation, each holding office for one year. Statement 3 is correct as Zonal Councils are statutory advisory bodies established to foster cooperation on issues like border disputes and linguistic minorities, rather than being constitutional bodies. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Chief Secretaries are members of the Standing Committee, Zonal Councils have no authority to issue binding directives on interstate river water disputes, as such matters fall under the jurisdiction of specific tribunals established under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperative federalism in the context of the Seventh Schedule:
1. The Inter-State Council, established under Article 263, facilitates cooperative federalism by investigating and discussing subjects of common interest between the Union and the States.
2. Entry 33 of the Concurrent List allows both the Parliament and State Legislatures to regulate trade and commerce in essential commodities, subject to the provisions of Article 254.
3. Entry 20 of the Concurrent List includes economic and social planning, which provides the constitutional basis for the functioning of the NITI Aayog.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 263 empowers the President to establish the Inter-State Council to foster coordination between the Centre and States. Statement 2 is correct because Entry 33 of the Concurrent List grants dual authority to regulate essential commodities, with Article 254 resolving repugnancy in favor of the Parliament in case of conflict. Statement 3 is correct as Entry 20 of the Concurrent List provides the legislative competence for economic and social planning, which serves as the foundational basis for the NITI Aayog's role as a think tank for national development.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of NITI Aayog in promoting competitive and cooperative federalism:
1. The State Health Index, developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, ranks states based on incremental performance.
2. The Export Preparedness Index 2022 framework evaluates states on four pillars: Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and Export Performance.
3. The Aspirational Districts Programme, launched in January 2018, utilizes a data-driven approach to monitor progress across 112 identified districts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the State Health Index promotes competitive federalism by ranking states on incremental performance in health outcomes; the Export Preparedness Index uses a four-pillar framework to assess states' export readiness; and the Aspirational Districts Programme, launched in January 2018, employs real-time data monitoring across 112 districts to foster development through cooperative federalism.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-state river water sharing and the Interstate River Water Disputes Act:
1. The Ravi and Beas Waters Tribunal was constituted in 1986 under the Punjab Reorganisation Act to address water sharing between Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
2. The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal, established in 1969, delivered its first report in 1973 regarding the allocation of water among Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh.
3. Article 262 of the Constitution provides the Supreme Court with original jurisdiction to hear appeals against the final awards delivered by water dispute tribunals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal was indeed constituted in 1969 and submitted its first report in 1973. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Ravi and Beas Waters Tribunal was constituted in 1986 under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, not the Punjab Reorganisation Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 262 explicitly bars the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court over disputes relating to the use, distribution, or control of inter-state river waters, meaning tribunal awards are final and binding.
Consider the following statements regarding All India Services as a mechanism for administrative integration:
1. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 recommended the abolition of the Indian Police Service to enhance state autonomy, suggesting that state-level recruitment would better align with the principles of cooperative federalism.
2. The All India Services Act of 1951 provides for the recruitment of officers to the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Foreign Service, both of which operate under the joint cadre control of the Union and State governments.
3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced the provision for All India Judicial Services, which functions under the direct administrative supervision of the Ministry of Law and Justice for all district-level appointments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Sarkaria Commission (1988) strongly supported the continuation of All India Services, viewing them as essential for national integration. Statement 2 is incorrect because the All India Services Act, 1951 covers the IAS, IPS, and IFoS, while the Indian Foreign Service (IFS) is a Central Civil Service, not an All India Service. Statement 3 is incorrect because, although Article 312 allows for the creation of an All India Judicial Service via parliamentary law, it has not yet been established, and the 42nd Amendment did not introduce this provision.
Consider the following statements regarding The role of the Governor in maintaining centre-state synergy:
1. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state to ensure a neutral interface between the Union and the state government.
2. Article 163 of the Constitution provides for the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, and the 44th Amendment established that the Governor holds the power to disregard this advice during a declared financial emergency.
3. Article 356 of the Constitution was invoked in the S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case of 1994, where the Supreme Court established that the Governor's report is subject to judicial review.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state to ensure impartiality. Statement 3 is correct because the landmark S.R. Bommai case (1994) ruled that the Governor's report recommending President's Rule is subject to judicial review to prevent misuse of Article 356. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment did not grant the Governor power to disregard the Council of Ministers during a financial emergency; in fact, the 42nd Amendment had previously limited the Governor's discretion, and the Governor generally acts on aid and advice except in specific constitutional discretionary areas.
Consider the following statements regarding Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and the JAM trinity in federal governance:
1. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was inaugurated in August 2014, and the scheme encompasses a provision for an automatic life insurance cover of two lakh rupees for every account holder.
2. The Aadhaar Act of 2016 provides the legal framework for the Unique Identification Authority of India, which functions under the Ministry of Finance to oversee the distribution of state-level social security pensions.
3. The Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme was officially launched on January 1, 2013, initially covering 27 welfare schemes across 43 identified districts in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the DBT scheme was launched on January 1, 2013, in 43 districts to streamline welfare payments. Statement 1 is incorrect because while PMJDY began in 2014, the automatic life insurance cover is only 30,000 rupees, not two lakh rupees. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Finance.
Consider the following statements regarding Presidential assent to state legislation under Article 200 and 201:
1. The Administrative Reforms Commission in its 1966 report suggested that the President should consult the Inter-State Council before exercising the power of absolute veto over a bill reserved under Article 200.
2. Under Article 200, a Governor may reserve a bill for the consideration of the President if the legislation derogates from the powers of the High Court as defined in the Constitution.
3. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 modified Article 201 to provide that the President can return a bill to the State Legislature only once, and the state is then bound by the President's suggested amendments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because Article 200 mandates the Governor to reserve any bill that, in their opinion, derogates from the powers of the High Court, ensuring the judiciary's constitutional position. Statement 1 is incorrect as the Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) did not suggest consulting the Inter-State Council for presidential vetoes, and the Inter-State Council was only established later in 1990 under Article 263. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment Act did not alter Article 201; the President possesses an absolute veto over reserved state bills, and there is no constitutional provision requiring the President to return such bills to the state legislature for reconsideration.
Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council as a deliberative forum:
1. Every decision of the GST Council is based on a voting structure where the Centre has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, and the States have a combined weightage of two-thirds.
2. The Union Finance Minister serves as the Chairperson of the GST Council, while the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance acts as a member.
3. The Chairperson of the GST Council is elected from among the state finance ministers, and the council holds quarterly meetings to review revenue collection targets set by the Finance Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 279A mandates that the Centre holds one-third of the voting weight, while States collectively hold two-thirds. Statement 2 is correct because the Union Finance Minister chairs the Council, with the Union Minister of State for Revenue or Finance as a member. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Union Finance Minister is the ex-officio Chairperson, not elected from state ministers, and the Council's meeting frequency is determined by the Chairperson rather than being strictly mandated as quarterly by the Finance Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils and regional cooperation frameworks:
1. The North Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament in 1971 to address the specific developmental needs of the northeastern states.
2. The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 established five Zonal Councils to promote interstate cooperation and regional coordination.
3. The Union Home Minister serves as the ex-officio Chairman of each of the five Zonal Councils established under the 1956 Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: the North Eastern Council was indeed established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 to ensure balanced regional development; the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 originally created five Zonal Councils (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern) to foster interstate cooperation; and the Union Home Minister is designated as the ex-officio Chairman of all these Zonal Councils to provide central oversight and facilitate coordination between the Union and the States.
Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council and its constitutional mandate:
1. The Inter-State Council was established under the 1988 Amendment Act, which incorporated the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission regarding federal advisory bodies.
2. The Zonal Councils were created under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, and they function as subordinate offices under the direct constitutional authority of the Inter-State Council.
3. The Prime Minister serves as the Chairman of the Inter-State Council, which includes all Chief Ministers of States as its members.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because Article 263 empowers the President to establish the Inter-State Council, chaired by the Prime Minister with all Chief Ministers as members. Statement 1 is incorrect as the Council was established in 1990 by a Presidential Order based on the Sarkaria Commission's recommendations, not the 1988 Amendment Act or the Administrative Reforms Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect because Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and they function independently as advisory bodies rather than as subordinate offices of the Inter-State Council.
Consider the following statements regarding Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and the JAM trinity in federal governance:
1. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) serves as the primary technical backbone for the JAM trinity, and the Reserve Bank of India introduced the platform in 2014 to replace the existing Real Time Gross Settlement system.
2. State governments participate in the DBT framework through the State Level Bankers' Committee, which provides for the decentralization of subsidy administration under the provisions of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. The Direct Benefit Transfer Mission is housed within the NITI Aayog, and it coordinates with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology to oversee the implementation of the BharatNet project.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because UPI was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in 2016, not the RBI in 2014, and it complements rather than replaces the RTGS system. Statement 2 is incorrect as DBT administration is a central executive function under the Cabinet Secretariat, and it is not governed by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, which pertains to urban local bodies. Statement 3 is incorrect because the DBT Mission is housed under the Cabinet Secretariat, and the BharatNet project is primarily overseen by the Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications, not the NITI Aayog.
Consider the following statements regarding Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and the JAM trinity in federal governance:
1. The JAM trinity refers to the synergy between Jan Dhan Yojana, Aadhaar, and Mobile connectivity, which facilitated the transfer of over 2.9 lakh crore rupees through the Public Financial Management System in the 2020-21 fiscal year.
2. The National Payments Corporation of India manages the Aadhaar Payment Bridge System, which allows for the routing of government subsidies directly into bank accounts linked to the electoral photo identity card.
3. Under the federal fiscal architecture, the Finance Commission determines the specific disbursement ratios for DBT, and the 15th Finance Commission recommended a 60:40 split for all centrally sponsored schemes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the JAM trinity (Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile) successfully streamlined welfare delivery, with DBT transfers reaching significant milestones during the pandemic. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Aadhaar Payment Bridge System (APBS) links subsidies to Aadhaar-seeded bank accounts, not the Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Finance Commission does not determine DBT disbursement ratios; these are established by the Union government for Centrally Sponsored Schemes, where the 60:40 ratio is a standard funding pattern rather than a mandate from the Finance Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of NITI Aayog in promoting competitive and cooperative federalism:
1. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog includes all Chief Ministers of States and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories to foster cooperative federalism.
2. The NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015, through a Cabinet resolution to replace the Planning Commission as a policy think tank.
3. The National Development Council, which was established in 1952, serves as the primary appellate body for resolving inter-state water disputes under the NITI Aayog framework.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Governing Council, chaired by the Prime Minister, includes all Chief Ministers and LGs to ensure states' active participation in policy formulation. Statement 2 is correct because NITI Aayog was indeed established on January 1, 2015, via a Cabinet resolution to replace the top-down approach of the Planning Commission with a bottom-up 'think tank' model. Statement 3 is incorrect because the National Development Council was abolished after the formation of NITI Aayog, and inter-state water disputes are adjudicated by specialized tribunals under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, not by the NITI Aayog framework.
Consider the following statements regarding Joint Parliamentary Committees and federal consensus building:
1. The Joint Parliamentary Committee on the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, includes members from both houses of Parliament to facilitate consensus on land management issues affecting state jurisdictions.
2. The Sarkaria Commission report of 1988 recommended the permanent establishment of the Inter-State Council as a primary mechanism for fostering cooperative federalism.
3. The Inter-State Council was established by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, and it functions as a statutory body under the Ministry of Home Affairs to resolve inter-state water disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the JPC on the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, was constituted with members from both Houses to deliberate on contentious issues, including land management that impacts state powers. Statement 2 is correct because the Sarkaria Commission (1983-88) strongly advocated for the Inter-State Council to institutionalize federal cooperation. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Inter-State Council was established in 1990 under Article 263 by a Presidential Order, not the 42nd Amendment, and it is a constitutional, not statutory, body that addresses policy coordination rather than adjudicating inter-state water disputes, which fall under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial interpretation of the 'Basic Structure' regarding federal balance:
1. The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, introduced the Goods and Services Tax Council, which functions as a constitutional body under Article 279A to resolve fiscal disputes between states.
2. The Punchhi Commission, constituted in 2007, recommended that the Governor's power to reserve state bills for the President's consideration be codified under Article 201.
3. The Supreme Court in the S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) judgment identified federalism as a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the S.R. Bommai (1994) judgment explicitly declared federalism a basic feature of the Constitution, limiting the Union's power to dismiss state governments. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the GST Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A, its primary mandate is to make recommendations on GST-related matters, not to serve as a judicial forum for resolving fiscal disputes. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Punchhi Commission recommended that the Governor's power to reserve bills be strictly limited to specific circumstances and suggested a time limit for the President's assent, rather than proposing the codification of the power itself under Article 201.