Polity General MCQs

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?

Article 21
Article 29
Article 25
Article 19

Explanation: The Right to Marry is an integral part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21, as upheld by the Supreme Court in the Hadiya Case (Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M.).

Which provisions of the Constitution were borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935? A. Federal structure with strong Centre B. Emergency provisions C. Bicameral legislature at the Centre D. Fundamental Rights

B + C + D
A + B
A + C
A + B + C

Explanation: The Government of India Act 1935 provided the skeletal structure of the Constitution, including the federal scheme, emergency provisions, and the bicameral system. Fundamental Rights were borrowed from the US Constitution.

With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The Preamble is a source of power to the legislature. 2. It is not a part of the Constitution. 3. Its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only

Explanation: The Preamble is NOT a source of power nor a prohibition upon powers of the legislature. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the SC ruled it IS a part of the Constitution. However, it is non-justiciable (not enforceable in courts).

The 'Comptroller and Auditor General of India' (CAG) is often called:

The Guardian of the Public Purse
The Legal Advisor to the Govt
The Protector of Civil Liberties
The Watchdog of the Judiciary

Explanation: The CAG ensures that the government spends public money exactly as authorized by the Parliament, making him the guardian of the public exchequer.

The 'Panchayati Raj' was first introduced in which state?

Bihar
Andhra Pradesh
Gujarat
Rajasthan

Explanation: Panchayati Raj was first inaugurated by PM Nehru on Oct 2, 1959, in Nagaur district, Rajasthan.

Which Article provides for the 'Office of the Attorney General of India'?

Article 148
Article 72
Article 74
Article 76

Explanation: Article 76 provides for the Attorney General, the highest law officer in the country. Article 148 is for the CAG.

The 'Quorum' to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is:

1/5th of total members
1/3rd of total members
1/2 of total members
1/10th of total members

Explanation: Article 100(3) specifies that the quorum for a sitting of either House is one-tenth of the total number of members (including the presiding officer).

A 'Point of Order' can be raised by a member of Parliament when:

The budget is not presented on time
A minister gives a wrong statement
The government fails to answer a question
The proceedings of the house do not follow normal rules

Explanation: A member can raise a 'Point of Order' to draw the Chair's attention to a violation of the rules of the House or the Constitution.

In the Indian Constitution, the 'Right to Vote' is a:

Fundamental Right
Constitutional Right
Natural Right
Legal Right

Explanation: Article 326 of the Constitution provides for Universal Adult Suffrage. The Supreme Court has clarified that while it is a statutory right under the RP Act, its source is the Constitution, making it a Constitutional Right.

Which amendment curtailed the power of judicial review of the Supreme Court and High Courts?

44th Amendment
39th Amendment
42nd Amendment
24th Amendment

Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act (1976), passed during the Emergency, significantly curtailed the power of judicial review. Much of this was restored by the 43rd and 44th Amendments.

The 'Dual Citizenship' system is a feature of which form of government?

Parliamentary Government
Unitary Government
Federal Government
Presidential Government

Explanation: In typical federations (like USA), citizens have both national and state citizenship. India is a federation but opted for 'Single Citizenship' to promote national integration.

The 'Nodal Ministry' for the administration of the Panchayati Raj system at the Union level is:

Ministry of Home Affairs
Ministry of Finance
Ministry of Rural Development
Ministry of Panchayati Raj

Explanation: The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (created in 2004) is responsible for all matters relating to PRIs and the 73rd Amendment implementation.

Which Article of the Constitution deals with the Amendment procedure?

Article 360
Article 370
Article 352
Article 368

Explanation: Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.

The principle of 'collective responsibility' of the Council of Ministers is enshrined in:

Article 77
Article 78
Article 75(3)
Article 74

Explanation: Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This is the fundamental principle of parliamentary government.

The 'Zero Hour' in the Indian Parliament starts at:

10:00 AM
12:00 Noon
11:00 AM
2:00 PM

Explanation: Zero Hour starts immediately after the Question Hour (which is at 11:00 AM) and lasts until the regular agenda for the day is taken up.

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:

Appellate Jurisdiction
Advisory Jurisdiction
Writ Jurisdiction
Original Jurisdiction

Explanation: Article 131 gives the SC Original Jurisdiction over federal disputes (Centre vs State or State vs State), meaning these cases must begin directly in the Supreme Court.

The 'Anti-Defection Law' was enacted through which Constitutional Amendment?

52nd Amendment
91st Amendment
42nd Amendment
44th Amendment

Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act (1985) added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution to curb political defections. The 91st Amendment (2003) later strengthened it.

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal Areas in which of the following states?

Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Arunachal
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura
Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram, Assam

Explanation: The Sixth Schedule (Article 244) specifically applies to the 'AMTM' states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

The 'Instrument of Instructions' contained in the Government of India Act 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as:

Directive Principles of State Policy
Conduct of Business of Govt of India
Extent of Executive Power of State
Fundamental Rights

Explanation: DPSPs are similar to the 'Instrument of Instructions' issued to the Governor-General by the British Government under the 1935 Act; they are instructions to the State authorities.

Who determines the 'number of judges' in a High Court?

The President of India
The Parliament of India
Chief Justice of India
The Governor of the State

Explanation: Unlike the Supreme Court (where Parliament decides), the number of judges in a High Court is determined by the President from time to time based on workload.

Which of the following bodies is presided over by a 'Non-member'?

Vidhan Sabha
Panchayat
Rajya Sabha
Lok Sabha

Explanation: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, but he is not a member of the House.

Which of the following are NOT justiciable under the Constitution? A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Fundamental Duties C. Fundamental Rights D. Preamble

A + B
A + D
A + B + D
B + C

Explanation: Justiciable means enforceable in a court of law. Fundamental Rights are justiciable (Article 32). However, DPSPs (Article 37), Fundamental Duties, and the Preamble are non-justiciable.

The Ninth Schedule was inserted into the Constitution by:

First Amendment
Ninth Amendment
Forty-second Amendment
Seventh Amendment

Explanation: The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment in 1951 to protect land reform laws from judicial review on the grounds of violating fundamental rights.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Parliamentary System?

Fixed tenure of the Executive
Presence of nominal and real executives
Membership of ministers in the legislature
Majority party rule

Explanation: In a Parliamentary system, the executive (Council of Ministers) stays in power only as long as it enjoys the 'Confidence' of the Lok Sabha. Fixed tenure is a feature of the Presidential system (like the USA).

The 'Consolidated Fund of India' is defined under which Article?

Article 280
Article 267
Article 266
Article 265

Explanation: Article 266 covers the Consolidated Fund and Public Account. Article 267 covers the Contingency Fund.

What is the maximum period for which 'President's Rule' can be extended (with parliamentary approval every 6 months)?

1 year
Indefinitely
3 years
2 years

Explanation: Under Article 356, President's Rule can be extended up to a maximum of 3 years. National Emergency (Art 352) can be extended indefinitely.

If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?

Third Schedule
First Schedule
Second Schedule
Fifth Schedule

Explanation: The First Schedule contains the names of the States and Union Territories. Any change in the territory or creation of a new state requires an update to this list.

The doctrine of 'basic structure' was first propounded in:

Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)

Explanation: In this landmark 1973 case, the Supreme Court ruled that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter its 'Basic Structure'.

Which Article allows the Parliament to admit new states into the Union of India?

Article 2
Article 3
Article 4
Article 1

Explanation: Article 2 deals with the admission or establishment of new states that were NOT previously part of India. Article 3 deals with changes to existing Indian states.

The 'Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive' is mentioned in which Article?

Article 51
Article 50
Article 48
Article 52

Explanation: Article 50 (DPSP) directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Who was the Chairman of the 'Union Powers Committee' of the Constituent Assembly?

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Jawaharlal Nehru
Sardar Patel
J.B. Kripalani

Explanation: Nehru chaired the Union Powers Committee and Union Constitution Committee. Patel chaired the Provincial Constitution Committee.

Which of the following bodies is/are NOT mentioned in the Constitution of India? 1. NITI Aayog 2. Zonal Councils 3. National Human Rights Commission

1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
1 only
2 and 3 only

Explanation: NITI Aayog is an executive body. Zonal Councils and the NHRC are statutory bodies (created by Acts of Parliament). None are mentioned in the original or amended text of the Constitution.

Under the Indian Constitution, which of the following is/are 'Fundamental Duties'? 1. To safeguard public property. 2. To protect and improve the natural environment. 3. To vote in public elections.

1, 2 and 3
2 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only

Explanation: Voting in elections is a legal/constitutional right, but it is NOT listed among the 11 Fundamental Duties under Article 51A. Safeguarding property and protecting environment are FD numbers 9 and 7 respectively.

Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the reservation of seats for Women in Panchayats is:

Based on population
1/3rd of total seats
1/2 of total seats
1/4th of total seats

Explanation: Article 243D provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women (including seats reserved for SC/ST women).

Which case upheld the primacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles?

I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007)
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
Champakam Dorairajan v. State of Madras (1951)
Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)

Explanation: In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that Fundamental Rights are superior to DPSPs. However, the Minerva Mills case (1980) later established a 'harmony and balance' between the two.

Who can initiate the process of 'Impeachment of the President'?

Only Lok Sabha
Either House of Parliament
Only Rajya Sabha
Supreme Court

Explanation: Article 61 states that the charges for impeachment can be preferred by either House, provided 1/4th members sign the notice and it is passed by 2/3rd majority.

Which Constitutional Amendment substituted the words 'Armed Rebellion' for 'Internal Disturbance' in Article 352?

38th Amendment
44th Amendment
52nd Amendment
42nd Amendment

Explanation: To prevent the misuse of Emergency powers seen in 1975, the 44th Amendment (1978) replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' as a ground for National Emergency.

Which of the following is/are the 'exclusive' powers of the Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency. 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. 3. To impeach the President of India.

1, 2 and 3
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only

Explanation: Only the Lok Sabha can pass a No-Confidence Motion (Article 75). Emergency ratification and Presidential impeachment require the approval of both Houses of Parliament.

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Schedule : Subject Matter)

4th Schedule : Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
8th Schedule : Anti-defection law
7th Schedule : Division of Powers
11th Schedule : Panchayats

Explanation: The 8th Schedule deals with official languages. Anti-defection law is found in the 10th Schedule.

Which provisions ensure independence of the Election Commission of India? A. Security of tenure of Chief Election Commissioner B. Removal procedure similar to Supreme Court judges C. Salaries charged on Consolidated Fund of India D. Appointment by the President

B + C + D
A + B
A + B + C
A + C + D

Explanation: The CEC has security of tenure and a removal process identical to SC judges. Their conditions of service cannot be varied to their disadvantage. Appointment by the President is an executive act and doesn't inherently ensure independence.

A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of: 1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill 3. Constitution Amendment Bill

1 and 3 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only

Explanation: Joint sittings (Article 108) are only available for Ordinary Bills and Financial Bills (II). They are strictly prohibited for Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills.

The concept of 'Equality before Law' used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:

Japan
Britain
France
USA

Explanation: 'Equality before Law' is a British concept (part of Rule of Law). 'Equal Protection of Laws' is an American concept. Both are present in Article 14.

Which of the following is/are part of the 'Electoral College' for the election of the President? 1. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament. 2. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies. 3. Elected members of State Legislative Councils.

2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
1 only

Explanation: Members of Legislative Councils (MLCs) do NOT participate in the Presidential election. Only elected members of MP and MLA bodies (including Delhi and Puducherry) participate.

The 'Doctrine of Pleasure' applies to which of the following in India?

Civil Servants
Supreme Court Judges
Election Commissioners
The CAG

Explanation: Article 310 states that civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President/Governor, though this is limited by safeguards in Article 311.

Which case established the principle that 'Parliament cannot amend the Fundamental Rights' (later overruled)?

Shankari Prasad Case
Minerva Mills Case
Kesavananda Case
Golaknath Case

Explanation: In Golaknath (1967), the SC ruled that FRs have a 'transcendental' position and cannot be amended. This was later overruled in Kesavananda Bharati (1973).

Which of the following Writs can be issued against administrative authorities?

Quo-Warranto
Prohibition
Certiorari
Mandamus

Explanation: Mandamus (meaning 'We Command') is issued to public officials or bodies to perform their legal duties. Certiorari and Prohibition are typically judicial/quasi-judicial writs.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Regarding Money Bills, Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations (not amendments) and must return it within 14 days. Voting on Demands for Grants is an exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from office by:

The Prime Minister
A resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha
The President on recommendation of the Cabinet
A resolution passed by two-thirds majority of both Houses

Explanation: The Speaker is removed by an 'Effective Majority' (majority of all then members) of the Lok Sabha. A 14-day notice is mandatory.

Which Fundamental Right was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the 'Heart and Soul of the Constitution'?

Right against Exploitation
Right to Freedom of Religion
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Right to Equality

Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) the most important article, as without a remedy, all other rights are meaningless.

The concept of 'judicial review' in India is derived from:

British Constitution
Irish Constitution
American Constitution
Canadian Constitution

Explanation: The doctrine of judicial review originated in the USA (Marbury v. Madison). In India, it allows the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders.

Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available only to citizens of India and not to foreigners?

Religious freedom
Equality before law
Right to Life
Protection of language and culture of minorities

Explanation: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are exclusive to Indian citizens. Article 29 (Minority rights) is one of them. Others like Art 14 and 21 are available to all.

A member of UPSC can be removed by the:

Parliament by impeachment
President on the basis of a report by Supreme Court
Chairman of UPSC
Chief Justice of India

Explanation: Under Article 317, for cases of 'misbehaviour', the President must refer the matter to the SC for an inquiry. If the SC recommends removal, it is binding on the President.

The concept of 'Public Interest Litigation' (PIL) originated in:

United Kingdom
Australia
Canada
United States

Explanation: PIL originated in the USA in the 1960s. In India, it was pioneered by Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer in the late 1970s.

The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act is related to:

National Commission for BC
Anglo-Indian Reservation removal
Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Economic Reservation (EWS)

Explanation: The 101st Amendment (2016) paved the way for the introduction of GST. 102nd was NCBC, 103rd was EWS, and 104th was SC/ST/Anglo-Indian reservation changes.

The residuary powers under the Indian Constitution are vested in:

Concurrent List
State Legislature
Union Legislature
President of India

Explanation: Article 248 vests residuary powers (subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists) in the Parliament. This follows the Canadian model.

The 'Inter-State Council' is established by:

The President
Parliament
The Prime Minister
Zonal Council

Explanation: Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and States.

Who among the following is the 'Custodian of the Indian Constitution'?

The Parliament of India
The Supreme Court of India
The Prime Minister of India
The President of India

Explanation: The Supreme Court acts as the final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution, ensuring that no law or executive action violates the constitutional framework.

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor of a State: 1. The same person can be appointed as Governor for two or more states. 2. The Governor's salary is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

2 only
1 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The 7th Amendment (1956) allowed one person to be Governor of multiple states. However, the salary is charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State(s) concerned, not India.

The 'Pardoning Power' of the Governor differs from the President in which way?

President can only pardon for military laws
Governor cannot pardon a death sentence
Governor has no power to suspend a sentence
Governor cannot pardon for state laws

Explanation: Only the President can 'pardon' a death sentence. The Governor can only suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, but cannot grant a full pardon (Article 161 vs 72).

Which of the following is NOT part of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution?

Secularism
Presidential form of Government
Judicial Review
Parliamentary System

Explanation: The Parliamentary system is part of the Basic Structure. Replacing it with a Presidential form would violate the spirit of the 1973 Kesavananda Bharati ruling.

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