Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; a Constitutional Amendment Bill does not require prior recommendation. Statement 2 is correct (24th Amendment). Statement 3 is correct (Article 368).
Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
- It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
- It defines and limits the powers of the government.
- It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
- It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
Explanation: The most fundamental purpose of a constitution is to provide a set of rules that limits the exercise of power by the government (Constitutionalism).
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the Constitution doesn't classify ranks (this is done via the Salaries and Allowances Act). Statement 2 is correct (91st Amendment).
Which of the following statements about the 'Chief of Defence Staff' (CDS) are correct? 1. He is the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. 2. He exercises military command over the three Service Chiefs. 3. He acts as the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect; the CDS does not exercise military command over the Service Chiefs but serves as the head of the Department of Military Affairs.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
1. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
2. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
3. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
Explanation: An ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, but under Article 13, no law (including an ordinance) can abridge Fundamental Rights.
If an area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:
1. The State Government loses its executive power.
2. The Union Government can take over total administration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Executive power of the state still extends to these areas; the Union only provides guidance/directions to the Governor.
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court for the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Mandamus *can* lie against a Government company. Statement 3 is correct as Quo Warranto doesn't require the petitioner to be an 'aggrieved' person.
Which of the following bodies is/are headed by the Prime Minister of India?
1. National Water Resources Council
2. National Development Council
3. Inter-State Council
Select the correct answer:
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairman of all three of these important advisory and deliberative bodies.
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
1. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
2. Extent of the executive power of a State
3. Conditions of the Governor's office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Under Article 368, amendments to the 7th Schedule lists and the extent of the executive power of the Union/States require ratification by half the states.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government Law Officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as the definition of 'advocate' under the Advocates Act doesn't create such broad exclusions. Statement 2 is correct; the Bar Council of India regulates legal education standards.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector lending.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the definition was revised (Medium: Investment up to 50cr, Turnover up to 250cr). Statement 2 is correct as per RBI guidelines.
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
- Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
- Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
- Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
- Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
Explanation: Under the Seventh Schedule, Inter-State quarantine falls under Entry 81 of the Union List.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer:
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 4
- 1, 3 and 4
Explanation: The 71st Amendment added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. Maithili was added later by the 92nd Amendment Act in 2003.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held that the power of judicial review is a part of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.
Statement-II: The Constitution of India explicitly defines the scope of 'judicial review'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- I is incorrect but II is correct
- I is correct but II is incorrect
- Both I and II are correct and II is the correct explanation for I
- Both I and II are correct and II is not the correct explanation for I
Explanation: Statement I is correct (L. Chandra Kumar case). Statement II is incorrect as 'Judicial Review' is not explicitly defined in the Constitution.
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because any person can make a complaint, not just a member. Statements 1 and 3 are standard procedural facts for the committee.
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Part IXA was added by the 74th Amendment. Statement 2 is correct: Articles 352-360 cover Emergency. Statement 3 is correct: Article 368 is the sole article in Part XX.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution explicitly mentions that the Governor acts in his/her own discretion in certain spheres.
2. The President can reserve a State bill for consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Article 163 mentions Governor's discretion. The President can only consider bills reserved and forwarded by the Governor under Article 200.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Union Government nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee.
2. The Public Accounts Committee comprises members from the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman. Statement 2 is correct; it has 22 members (15 LS, 7 RS).
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the Writ of Prohibition? 1. It is an order issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal. 2. Its purpose is to stop ongoing proceedings in a case where the lower court lacks jurisdiction. 3. It is corrective in nature rather than preventive. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 3 is incorrect because Prohibition is preventive (issued before judgement), whereas Certiorari is corrective (issued after judgement).
Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; only the AG has this right, not the Solicitor General. Statement 2 is incorrect; while it's a convention, the Constitution says the AG holds office during the pleasure of the President.
With reference to the 'scheduled areas' in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- None
- Only two
- Only one
- All three
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Governor submits the report to the President (not the CM to the Home Ministry).
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
- Only three
- All four
- Only two
- Only one
Explanation: Only the NCBC is a constitutional body (Article 338B). NHRC, Law Commission, and NCDRC are either statutory or executive bodies.
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1935 Act reserved Defence and External Affairs as 'Reserved Subjects' to be administered by the Governor-General in his discretion, not the legislature.
Consider the following statements:
1. Disqualification under the 10th Schedule is decided by the President.
2. There is no mention of 'political party' in the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Disqualification is decided by the Speaker/Chairman. The term 'political party' was added via the 52nd Amendment.
With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker shall be from either the main opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice is to have the Deputy Speaker from the opposition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only three
- Only two
- All four
Explanation: Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because while it is a strong convention (practice) since the 10th Lok Sabha, it is not a 'mandatory' constitutional provision.
Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
- Only one
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Constitution does not define 'Civil' or 'Criminal' contempt; these are defined in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; a nominated member can join within 6 months but is disqualified if they join *after* 6 months. Statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for SC women within the SC quota.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; implementation is linked to the first census and delimitation conducted after the Act, so it didn't start with the 18th Lok Sabha. Statements 2 and 3 are features of the 106th Amendment.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill?
1. Article 109 mentions a special procedure.
2. It shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. Rajya Sabha can suggest changes but cannot reject it.
Select the correct answer:
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: These are the standard constitutional restrictions and procedures governing Money Bills.
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- All three
- Only one
- None
- Only two
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because a joint sitting for a Finance Bill is 'possible' but not 'necessary' or mandatory.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
2. In India, Prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons under the control of Provincial Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as 'Prisons' is a State subject under the Seventh Schedule. Statement 2 is correct as the 1894 Act is the parent legislation governing prisons in India.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
2. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
3. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Article 361 grants immunity to the Governor from court proceedings for official acts and prohibits criminal proceedings during their term. Article 194 grants absolute immunity to members of the State Legislature for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature.
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements regarding a resolution for their removal:
1. He/she shall not preside.
2. He/she shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/she shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Under Article 96, the Speaker can speak and take part in proceedings and can vote in the first instance, but they cannot preside over the sitting.
Consider the following pairs (State : Description):
1. Arunachal Pradesh : Capital named after a fort; has two National Parks.
2. Nagaland : Created via a Constitutional Amendment.
3. Tripura : Was a Part 'C' State, then a UT, then attained statehood.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- Only two
- None
- All three
- Only one
Explanation: All three descriptions accurately reflect the historical and geographical facts of these states.
Consider the following pairs (Political Party : Leader): 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh : Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Swatantra Party : C. Rajagopalachari 3. Socialist Party : Acharya Narendra Dev. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- Only two
- None
- All three
- Only one
Explanation: All leaders matched with their respective parties are historically accurate.
With reference to the Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Finance Minister on behalf of the PM lays the Annual Financial Statement before Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: The President causes the budget to be laid, not 'on behalf of the PM'. Statement 2 is correct per Article 113.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Official Secrets Act, 1923': 1. It covers only spying and espionage. 2. Disclosure of any 'official information' which can be prejudicial to the interests of the State is an offense. 3. A person knowingly misleading a police officer can be charged under this Act. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as the Act is broader than just spying; it covers the disclosure of any classified official documents or information.
With reference to India, consider the following bodies:
1. The Inter-State Council
2. The National Security Council
3. The Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
- None
- Only two
- All three
- Only one
Explanation: Only the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body (Article 263). Zonal Councils are statutory and NSC is an executive body.
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: High Courts have the power of judicial review over central laws under Article 226. Constitutional amendments can be challenged in the Supreme Court if they violate the 'Basic Structure' (Kesavananda Bharati case).
Consider the following statements in respect of the Election Commission of India:
1. The Election Commission of India consists of five members.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- Only one
- None
- All three
- Only two
Explanation: Only statement 3 is correct. The EC has 3 members (not 5) and the EC itself decides the election schedule (not the MHA).
Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker does not vacate office until the first meeting of the new House.
2. A Member elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her party immediately.
3. The Speaker may be removed by a resolution with 14 days' notice.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Article 94 allows the Speaker to remain until the new House meets. The Constitution does not mandate resignation from a political party.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions a special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can suggest changes but cannot reject the bill. Select the answer using the code given below:
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Money Bills follow a special procedure where the Rajya Sabha has limited powers; it must return the bill within 14 days and cannot reject or amend it directly.
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall not lapse. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: All statements reflect the standard rules of lapsing of bills upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha under the Indian parliamentary system.
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. The President of India can prorogue a House without the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. The dissolution of the Lok Sabha can be done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 2 only
- 1 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the President generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers for prorogation. Statement 2 is correct as per standard constitutional practice.
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
Explanation: Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times in India: 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002.
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
- Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
- T.T. Krishnamachari
- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- Rajagopalachari
Explanation: Following the French practice, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, being the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly on Dec 9, 1946.
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?
- 1st Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 1st Amendment (1951) was enacted specifically to address judicial decisions that had struck down state laws relating to agrarian reforms and freedom of speech.
Consider the following statements regarding Panchayati Raj:
1. Intermediate Panchayats exist in all States.
2. Membership eligibility requires attaining 30 years of age.
3. The CM constitutes a commission to review the position of Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Intermediate levels are optional for small states; the age requirement is 21; and the Governor (not CM) constitutes the Finance Commission.
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize?
1. The President of India
2. The Prime Minister of India
3. The Chief Justice of India
4. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer:
- II and IV only
- I, II and III
- I and III only
- II, III and IV
Explanation: The President is the one who confers the award but is not part of the selection jury.
Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
1. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants in India, but not those posted outside.
2. Only the CJI can be the Chairperson.
3. A member shall not be less than 45 years of age.
4. Lokpal cannot inquire into corruption allegations against a sitting PM.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- 3 only
- 1 and 4
- 2 and 3
- None of the above
Explanation: The minimum age is 45. Other statements are incorrect as it applies abroad, eminent persons can be chairs, and it can investigate the PM under safeguards.
Which one of the following is the best description of the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution of India?
- It is the core values of the Constitution which can never be amended.
- It is a theory that certain features of the Constitution are essential and cannot be abolished by the Parliament.
- It is a list of articles that require a referendum to be changed.
- It is the Preamble which acts as a guide to the entire Constitution.
Explanation: The Basic Structure doctrine, established in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), prevents Parliament from using Article 368 to destroy the fundamental identity of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Home Guards:
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- None
- All three
Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because Home Guards are raised under the States/UTs acts, not a Central Act.
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India has the Supreme Court placed the Right to Privacy?
- Article 16
- Article 21
- Article 19
- Article 15
Explanation: In the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) case, the Supreme Court declared the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21.
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of the Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer:
- 1 and 3 only
- 3 only
- 2 only
- 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Ratifying Emergency and Impeaching the President require both Houses. Only the 'No-Confidence Motion' is exclusive to the Lok Sabha (Article 75).
As per Article 368, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer:
- 1 and 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Article 368 explicitly defines the power to amend via addition, variation, or repeal.
Consider the following pairs (Provision in the Constitution of India : Stated under):
1. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive : The DPSP
2. Valuing and preserving rich heritage : The Fundamental Duties
3. Prohibition of child labor below 14 years : The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- All three
- Only two
- None
- Only one
Explanation: These are found in Article 50 (DPSP), Article 51A (FD), and Article 24 (FR) respectively.
In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
1. The principle of natural justice
2. The procedure established by law
3. Fair application of law
4. Equality before law
- 1 only
- 2 only
- 4 only
- 3 only
Explanation: Due process of law is a legal requirement that the state must respect all legal rights that are owed to a person. It balances the power of law of the land and protects the individual person from it.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
2. Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct based on cases like Indra Sawhney. Statement 2 is incorrect because 'efficiency of administration' is not defined in the Constitution.
Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- None
Explanation: 1 is wrong: acts remain valid. 2 is wrong: dissolution of assembly is not a ground for postponement. 3 is wrong: no time limit is prescribed (leading to Pocket Veto).
Regarding the Enforcement Directorate (ED):
1. It is a statutory body established under PMLA.
2. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The ED is under the Ministry of Finance and was established long before the PMLA act was enacted.