Consider the following statements regarding Gender Budgeting as a tool for inclusive fiscal governance:
1. The Government of India formally introduced the Gender Budget Statement as part of the Union Budget in the 2005-06 fiscal year to track allocations for women-centric schemes.
2. The Expenditure Management Commission, established in 2014, recommended the creation of a separate Gender Ministry to oversee the implementation of the Gender Budgeting Statement across state governments.
3. The Gender Budgeting framework in India draws its primary inspiration from the 1995 Beijing Platform for Action, which established the Global Gender Equality Fund to provide direct grants to developing nations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Gender Budget Statement was formally introduced in the Union Budget 2005-06 to ensure gender-sensitive public expenditure. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Expenditure Management Commission did not recommend a separate Gender Ministry; instead, the Ministry of Women and Child Development acts as the nodal agency for gender budgeting. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the 1995 Beijing Platform for Action advocated for gender-responsive budgeting, it did not establish a 'Global Gender Equality Fund' for direct grants to nations.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory budgeting models in the context of Smart Cities Mission:
1. The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) focuses on water supply infrastructure, and it integrates participatory budgeting by allocating 20 percent of its annual budget to projects selected through direct online citizen bidding.
2. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the formation of Ward Committees, and the Smart Cities Mission framework incorporates these committees as the primary financial auditing bodies for project funds.
3. The Smart Cities Mission launched the 'City Challenge Competition' in 2015, which links the release of central assistance to the establishment of a state-level participatory budgeting commission in each participating city.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because AMRUT does not mandate 20 percent of its budget for online citizen bidding. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 74th Amendment mandates Ward Committees for decentralized planning, but the Smart Cities Mission framework uses Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) for project execution and financial management, not Ward Committees as primary auditing bodies. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 'City Challenge Competition' was a mechanism for selecting cities based on performance and vision, not a mandate for establishing state-level participatory budgeting commissions.
Consider the following statements regarding Budget transparency indices and their implications for democratic governance:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act of 2003 in India introduced the requirement for the government to place the Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement before Parliament.
2. Participatory budgeting was first institutionalized in Porto Alegre, Brazil, in 1989, allowing citizens to directly influence the allocation of a portion of the municipal investment budget.
3. The Global Initiative for Fiscal Transparency (GIFT) was launched in 2011 to promote the adoption of international standards for public participation in the budget cycle.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
The FRBM Act, 2003 mandates the government to lay the Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement before Parliament to ensure fiscal discipline and transparency. Participatory budgeting originated in Porto Alegre, Brazil, in 1989, empowering citizens to directly decide on municipal investment priorities, while the Global Initiative for Fiscal Transparency (GIFT) was indeed established in 2011 to enhance global norms for public participation in fiscal processes. As all three statements accurately reflect historical and legal facts regarding budget transparency and governance, there are no incorrect statements.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative oversight committees and public engagement in budgetary scrutiny:
1. The Estimates Committee, established in 1950 on the recommendation of John Matthai, examines the budget estimates with a view to suggest economies in public expenditure.
2. Article 113 of the Constitution of India specifies that the estimates relating to expenditure other than expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund shall be submitted in the form of Demands for Grants to the Lok Sabha.
3. The Select Committee on Budgetary Transparency, formed in 2012, oversees the integration of participatory budgeting models into the Union Budget process and reports directly to the Finance Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Estimates Committee was indeed established in 1950 based on the recommendation of the then Finance Minister John Matthai to ensure administrative efficiency and economy. Statement 2 is correct because Article 113 mandates that estimates of expenditure, excluding 'charged' expenditure, must be presented as Demands for Grants to the Lok Sabha for voting. Statement 3 is incorrect because there is no such 'Select Committee on Budgetary Transparency' in the Indian parliamentary system, and participatory budgeting is not a formally integrated statutory process reporting to the Finance Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act and citizen access to fiscal data:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Rules of 2004 established the Office of the Fiscal Council to provide independent oversight of government borrowing projections.
2. Article 112 of the Constitution defines the annual financial statement, and the 2003 FRBM Act added the requirement for quarterly reporting of the revenue deficit to the Comptroller and Auditor General.
3. The FRBM Act of 2003 introduced the requirement for the Union Government to lay the Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement before both Houses of Parliament.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because the FRBM Act, 2003 mandates the government to lay a Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement before Parliament to ensure fiscal transparency. Statement 1 is incorrect because the FRBM Act does not establish a Fiscal Council; the proposal for such a body was recommended by the N.K. Singh Committee (2016) but has not been implemented. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Article 112 mandates the Annual Financial Statement, the FRBM Act requires the government to place quarterly reviews of receipts and expenditure before Parliament, not specifically a report of the revenue deficit to the CAG.
Consider the following statements regarding Budget transparency indices and their implications for democratic governance:
1. The World Bank's BOOST initiative provides a standardized platform for sub-national governments to publish expenditure data, which is integrated into the G20's annual anti-corruption monitoring reports.
2. The 2012 Open Government Partnership declaration established a binding mechanism for member states to allocate at least 5 percent of their national budget through community-led voting processes.
3. The 2017 Fiscal Transparency Report by the U.S. Department of State identifies the implementation of the Right to Information Act as the primary metric for assessing sovereign credit ratings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the World Bank's BOOST initiative facilitates public access to sub-national expenditure data, it is not a mechanism integrated into G20 anti-corruption reports. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Open Government Partnership is a voluntary multilateral initiative that promotes transparency and citizen participation without imposing binding mandates or specific budgetary quotas like a 5 percent community-led voting requirement. Statement 3 is incorrect because the U.S. Department of State's Fiscal Transparency Report assesses the transparency of government budgets for foreign aid purposes, whereas sovereign credit ratings are determined by private agencies like Moody's or S&P based on fiscal health, not RTI implementation.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen-led evaluation of welfare scheme implementation:
1. The Kerala Model of decentralized planning, initiated during the Ninth Five Year Plan in 1997, provides for the direct allocation of 40 percent of the state's total annual plan outlay to the Gram Panchayats for local welfare implementation.
2. The Participatory Budgeting model, first implemented in Porto Alegre in 1989, allows local residents to directly decide on the allocation of a portion of the municipal capital investment budget.
3. The Social Audit Rules notified under the National Food Security Act, 2013, allow for the appointment of an independent Social Audit Unit that reports directly to the National Human Rights Commission regarding the distribution of subsidized food grains.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Porto Alegre model, pioneered in 1989, institutionalized direct citizen participation in municipal investment decisions. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Kerala model allocated approximately 35-40% of the state plan outlay to local bodies, but this was for the entire Local Self-Government sector, not exclusively to Gram Panchayats. Statement 3 is incorrect because Social Audit Units under the NFSA report to the State Government and the Department of Food and Civil Supplies, not the National Human Rights Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding E-governance initiatives for real-time expenditure tracking by citizens:
1. The National Informatics Centre developed the 'Budget-Track' interface in 2015, which links the Consolidated Fund of India to a public portal for viewing the real-time expenditure of individual members of parliament.
2. The Government e-Marketplace (GeM) platform, operational since 2016, provides a public API that displays the real-time bank account balances of every district magistrate office across the country.
3. The Union Budget 2019-20 introduced the 'Vyay-Mitra' mobile application, which allows citizens to track the daily utilization of funds by the Ministry of Finance in real-time.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect as no such platforms or applications exist under these names for the specified purposes. The Government of India utilizes the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) for tracking fund flows, but there is no 'Budget-Track' interface for individual MP expenditures, no GeM API for district magistrate bank balances, and no 'Vyay-Mitra' application for real-time Ministry of Finance fund utilization tracking.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory budgeting models in the context of Smart Cities Mission:
1. The Pune Municipal Corporation implemented a participatory budgeting model in 2016, allowing residents to vote on local infrastructure projects funded through the Smart Cities Mission grants.
2. As of 2022, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs promotes the 'Citizen Perception Survey' as a tool to measure public satisfaction with urban service delivery and budget utilization.
3. The National Urban Policy Framework of 2018 emphasizes decentralized planning, and it includes provisions for the direct transfer of Smart Cities Mission funds to Resident Welfare Associations to manage local sanitation budgets.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Pune pioneered participatory budgeting in India, integrating citizen-led project selection into its Smart City initiatives since 2016. Statement 2 is correct because the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs introduced the 'Citizen Perception Survey' under the Ease of Living Index to assess public satisfaction with municipal services and budget outcomes. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the National Urban Policy Framework promotes decentralized planning, there is no provision for the direct transfer of Smart Cities Mission funds to Resident Welfare Associations, as funds are strictly managed by Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) and municipal bodies.
Consider the following statements regarding Social Audit framework under MGNREGA and its impact on fiscal transparency:
1. The Social Audit process is integrated into the Public Financial Management System (PFMS), and the audit reports are uploaded to the central portal by the Ministry of Finance to ensure fiscal transparency.
2. The Mahatma Gandhi NREGA Audit of Schemes Rules, 2011, includes provisions for the National Social Audit Advisory Body, which oversees the financial disbursement of funds to the state-level implementing agencies.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India provides the auditing standards for social audits, which are used by the Social Audit Units to assess the fiscal performance of MGNREGA.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because the CAG notified the 'Auditing Standards for Social Audit' in 2016 to ensure uniformity and quality in the process. Statement 1 is incorrect because social audit reports are uploaded by the State Social Audit Units (SAUs) to the MGNREGA portal, not the Ministry of Finance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the National Social Audit Advisory Body provides technical support and policy guidance, but it has no role in the financial disbursement of funds, which is managed through the Ministry of Rural Development and state implementing agencies.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and their relevance to public expenditure tracking:
1. The 2011 Public Procurement Bill refers to the inclusion of citizen feedback mechanisms in tender evaluation processes, which are overseen by the Central Vigilance Commission.
2. The National e-Governance Plan, launched in 2006, includes provisions for the automated publication of municipal budgets, which are audited by the Finance Commission every fiscal year.
3. The Performance Monitoring and Evaluation System, established in 2009, encompasses the submission of annual reports that link departmental budget utilization to specific citizen charter benchmarks.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Public Procurement Bill (2012) focused on transparency in government procurement but did not mandate citizen feedback in tender evaluation overseen by the CVC. Statement 2 is incorrect as the National e-Governance Plan (2006) focuses on service delivery digitization, and municipal budgets are audited by State Local Fund Auditors or CAG, not the Finance Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Performance Monitoring and Evaluation System (PMES) introduced the Results-Framework Document (RFD) to track departmental outcomes, but it did not formally link budget utilization to specific Citizen Charter benchmarks.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative oversight committees and public engagement in budgetary scrutiny:
1. The Departmentally Related Standing Committees, introduced in 1993, examine the detailed Demands for Grants of the concerned ministries and report their findings to the Houses of Parliament.
2. In 2017, the Union Budget presentation date was advanced to February 1st to facilitate the completion of the legislative approval process before the start of the new financial year.
3. The Public Accounts Committee, which consists of 22 members, scrutinizes the Appropriation Accounts and the annual finance accounts of the Government of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: The Departmentally Related Standing Committees were indeed established in 1993 to ensure detailed parliamentary scrutiny of ministerial demands; the advancement of the Union Budget to February 1st in 2017 was a strategic reform to ensure the passage of the Finance Bill before the financial year begins on April 1st; and the Public Accounts Committee, comprising 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, is constitutionally mandated to audit the government's appropriation and finance accounts to ensure financial accountability.
Consider the following statements regarding Public Expenditure Tracking Surveys (PETS) methodology:
1. The Quantitative Service Delivery Survey (QSDS) is often used alongside PETS to measure the quality of teacher performance in rural districts, as established by the 2002 OECD transparency guidelines.
2. In India, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) adopted the PETS methodology in 2010 to monitor the disbursement of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act funds at the village panchayat level.
3. The 2005 Paris Declaration on Aid Effectiveness incorporated PETS as a standard reporting mechanism for all signatory nations to track the flow of private sector investments into public healthcare.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because PETS is a diagnostic tool used to track the flow of public funds from central budgets to frontline service providers, not a mechanism governed by the 2002 OECD guidelines or the 2005 Paris Declaration. Statement 1 is false as PETS/QSDS focus on resource leakage and service delivery efficiency rather than teacher performance metrics; Statement 2 is false because the CAG primarily uses performance audits rather than adopting PETS as a formal methodology for MGNREGA; and Statement 3 is false as the Paris Declaration focused on aid effectiveness and donor coordination, not private sector investment tracking.
Consider the following statements regarding Gender Budgeting as a tool for inclusive fiscal governance:
1. The Ministry of Finance issues guidelines to all ministries and departments to establish Gender Budgeting Cells, which serve as the focal point for coordinating gender-responsive fiscal policies.
2. In the 2023-24 Union Budget, the total allocation under the Gender Budget reached approximately 2.23 lakh crore rupees, reflecting a focus on schemes with at least 30 percent direct benefit to women.
3. The National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP) conducted a comprehensive study in 2004 that identified the need for gender-disaggregated data to improve the efficacy of public expenditure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Ministry of Finance mandates Gender Budgeting Cells (GBCs) in all ministries to ensure gender-responsive planning. Statement 2 is correct because the 2023-24 Union Budget allocated Rs 2.23 lakh crore to the Gender Budget, specifically targeting schemes where at least 30% of provisions are earmarked for women. Statement 3 is correct as the 2004 NIPFP study was a foundational exercise that highlighted the necessity of gender-disaggregated data to track the impact of public expenditure on women's socio-economic status.
Consider the following statements regarding Decentralized planning and the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts:
1. The District Planning Committee, as envisaged under Article 243ZD, is tasked with consolidating the plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities in the district.
2. Article 243G of the Constitution empowers the State Legislatures to devolve powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats for the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act added the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution, which contains 29 functional items for the consideration of Panchayati Raj Institutions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Article 243ZD mandates District Planning Committees to consolidate rural and urban plans, Article 243G empowers State Legislatures to devolve planning responsibilities for economic development and social justice to Panchayats, and the 73rd Amendment Act introduced the Eleventh Schedule, which lists 29 functional items to strengthen local self-governance. There are no incorrect statements as each accurately reflects the constitutional provisions established by the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts of 1992.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen-led evaluation of welfare scheme implementation:
1. The Citizen Report Card system, developed by the Public Affairs Centre in Bengaluru in 1994, serves as a statutory tool for the Comptroller and Auditor General to evaluate the service delivery standards of urban local bodies.
2. The Jan Sunwai or public hearing mechanism, pioneered by the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan in Rajasthan during the 1990s, is formally recognized as a mandatory judicial review process under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
3. The Outcome Budgeting framework introduced by the Union Government in 2005-06 integrates the performance indicators of welfare schemes into the Finance Commission's annual recommendations for state fiscal transfers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Citizen Report Card is a voluntary social accountability tool used by civil society, not a statutory instrument for the CAG. Statement 2 is incorrect as Jan Sunwai is a grassroots social audit mechanism and does not constitute a mandatory judicial review process under the RTI Act. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Outcome Budget focuses on linking outlays to outputs and outcomes for internal government monitoring, rather than integrating performance indicators into the Finance Commission's fiscal transfer recommendations.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information (RTI) Act as a catalyst for fiscal accountability:
1. The 2009 amendment to the RTI Act established a dedicated Fiscal Oversight Committee, which functions under the Ministry of Finance to review the annual expenditure reports submitted by local municipal bodies.
2. Section 4(1)(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, requires public authorities to publish the budget allocated to each of its agencies, indicating the particulars of all plans, proposed expenditures, and reports on disbursements made.
3. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act of 2003 introduced the concept of Social Audits, which serves as the primary mechanism for citizens to challenge the legality of budget allocations under the RTI Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, 2005 mandates public authorities to proactively disclose budget allocations, proposed expenditures, and disbursements to ensure transparency. Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no 2009 amendment establishing a Fiscal Oversight Committee under the Ministry of Finance for this purpose. Statement 3 is incorrect because the FRBM Act, 2003 focuses on fiscal discipline and deficit reduction, whereas Social Audits are primarily mandated under specific schemes like MGNREGA, 2005, rather than being a direct creation of the FRBM Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory Budgeting (PB) mechanisms in urban local bodies:
1. The Kerala Municipality Act of 1994 includes provisions for the 'Gram Sabha' and 'Ward Sabha' to discuss and prioritize local development projects, which form the basis for the annual municipal budget preparation.
2. The MyCityMyBudget initiative, piloted in Bengaluru in 2015, utilizes a digital and offline platform to collect citizen feedback on infrastructure needs, which is subsequently presented to the Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike for budget consideration.
3. In the 'Bhagidari' scheme launched by the Government of Delhi in 2000, citizen groups and Resident Welfare Associations collaborate with local officials to determine the allocation of funds for neighborhood development projects.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: Statement 1 is accurate as the Kerala Municipality Act, 1994, institutionalized Ward Sabhas, making Kerala a pioneer in democratic decentralization and participatory planning. Statement 2 is correct because the 'MyCityMyBudget' initiative, launched by Janaagraha in 2015, successfully bridges the gap between citizens and the Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP) by crowdsourcing infrastructure priorities. Statement 3 is correct as the 'Bhagidari' scheme, initiated in 2000, formally integrated Resident Welfare Associations (RWAs) into the governance process to ensure citizen participation in local fund allocation and service delivery.
Consider the following statements regarding Outcomes-based budgeting vs Output-based budgeting in public participation:
1. The 2017 merger of the Railway Budget with the Union Budget allows for a shift toward outcome-based monitoring, and it follows the recommendations of the 2015 NITI Aayog report on fiscal federalism.
2. The Performance Budgeting system, adopted by the Union Government in 1968, focused on the physical outputs of departmental programs rather than their long-term socioeconomic outcomes.
3. Participatory budgeting in the Porto Alegre model of 1989 prioritized outcome-based indicators to ensure that public funds directly addressed the most pressing urban infrastructure deficits.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the merger of the Railway Budget with the Union Budget (2017) was based on the recommendations of the Bibek Debroy Committee, not a 2015 NITI Aayog report on fiscal federalism. Statement 2 is correct as the 1968 Performance Budgeting system was introduced to track physical achievements (outputs) rather than qualitative socioeconomic impacts. Statement 3 is correct because the Porto Alegre model pioneered participatory budgeting by empowering citizens to identify local needs, shifting the focus toward tangible outcomes like improved sanitation and infrastructure in underserved areas.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Civil Society Organizations (CSOs) in pre-budget consultations:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act of 2003 includes provisions for the mandatory inclusion of a CSO representative in the drafting committee of the Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement.
2. The Budget Division of the Department of Economic Affairs publishes the 'People's Budget' document within 48 hours of the presentation of the Union Budget to ensure transparency for grassroots organizations.
3. The Union Budget process typically initiates in September with the Ministry of Finance issuing circulars to various ministries for the preparation of Revised Estimates for the current financial year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because the Union Budget process begins in September with the Ministry of Finance issuing the Budget Circular to various Ministries and Departments to initiate the preparation of Revised Estimates for the current year and Budget Estimates for the next. Statement 1 is incorrect as the FRBM Act, 2003, focuses on fiscal discipline and transparency through statutory reports like the Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, but it does not mandate CSO representation in its drafting committee. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the 'People's Budget' is a transparency initiative, it is not a mandatory document published within a 48-hour window by the Budget Division, nor is it a statutory requirement under current budgetary procedures.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory Budgeting (PB) mechanisms in urban local bodies:
1. The Participatory Budgeting process in Porto Alegre, Brazil, initiated in 1989, allows residents to vote on municipal investment priorities during regional and thematic assemblies.
2. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides the framework for Ward Committees in urban areas, which serve as the primary institutional mechanism for citizen engagement in local financial planning.
3. The Smart Cities Mission guidelines issued in 2015 refer to the establishment of Special Purpose Vehicles, which operate under the direct supervision of the State Finance Commission to approve participatory budgeting outcomes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Porto Alegre pioneered Participatory Budgeting in 1989, empowering citizens to directly influence municipal investment allocations. Statement 2 is correct because the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act mandated the creation of Ward Committees under Article 243S to facilitate grassroots participation in urban governance and planning. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Smart Cities Mission guidelines utilize Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) for project implementation, these entities are corporate bodies governed by the Companies Act, not under the direct supervision of the State Finance Commission, which primarily focuses on fiscal devolution between states and local bodies.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability mechanisms in the utilization of District Mineral Foundation (DMF) funds:
1. The composition of the District Mineral Foundation Governing Council includes a mandatory 50 percent representation from local mining companies to ensure the technical feasibility of proposed welfare projects.
2. The audit of District Mineral Foundation accounts is conducted by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India or an auditor appointed by the state government, with the annual report placed before the State Legislative Assembly.
3. Section 9B of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015, establishes the legal framework for the creation of District Mineral Foundations in all districts affected by mining-related operations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the DMF Governing Council prioritizes local community representation, not mining companies, to ensure welfare projects align with the needs of affected populations. Statement 2 is correct as the Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) guidelines mandate annual audits by the CAG or state-appointed auditors, with reports submitted to the State Legislature. Statement 3 is correct because Section 9B of the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015, legally mandates the establishment of DMFs in all districts impacted by mining operations to ensure sustainable development for affected persons.
Consider the following statements regarding Gender Budgeting as a tool for inclusive fiscal governance:
1. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts provide for the reservation of one-third of seats for women in local bodies and include a clause for the automatic earmarking of 50 percent of municipal funds for gender-specific infrastructure.
2. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act of 2003 includes a specific provision that ties the reduction of the fiscal deficit to the successful achievement of gender parity targets in public sector employment.
3. The Ministry of Women and Child Development launched the 'Gender Budgeting Portal' in 2010 to allow individual citizens to directly reallocate funds between different departmental schemes during the budget preparation phase.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 73rd and 74th Amendments mandate at least one-third reservation for women, there is no constitutional or statutory provision for the automatic earmarking of 50 percent of municipal funds for gender-specific infrastructure. Statement 2 is incorrect as the FRBM Act, 2003 focuses on fiscal discipline, debt reduction, and deficit targets, and contains no provisions linking fiscal deficit reduction to gender parity in public employment. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Gender Budgeting Portal serves as a repository for knowledge and data to facilitate gender-responsive planning, but it does not empower citizens to directly reallocate funds between departmental schemes.
Consider the following statements regarding Social Audit framework under MGNREGA and its impact on fiscal transparency:
1. The Social Audit Rules, 2011, notified by the Ministry of Rural Development, delineate the specific procedures for the verification of records and public hearings.
2. Section 17 of the MGNREGA Act, 2005, provides for the regular conduct of social audits of all projects implemented by the Gram Panchayat.
3. Social Audit Units (SAUs) are independent entities established at the state level to facilitate the audit process, separate from the implementing agencies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
All three statements are correct: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Audit of Schemes Rules, 2011, were notified by the Ministry of Rural Development to formalize the audit process, while Section 17 of the MGNREGA Act, 2005, mandates that the Gram Sabha conduct regular social audits of all projects implemented by the Gram Panchayat. Furthermore, to ensure impartiality and prevent conflict of interest, the Audit of Schemes Rules require states to establish independent Social Audit Units (SAUs) that operate separately from the implementing agencies.
Consider the following statements regarding Outcomes-based budgeting vs Output-based budgeting in public participation:
1. The 2005 Outcome Budgeting framework includes provisions for decentralized fiscal planning, and it was modeled after the 1992 Rio Earth Summit guidelines for sustainable municipal financing.
2. Output-based budgeting tracks the quantity of services delivered, such as the number of kilometers of road constructed under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana.
3. The Government of India introduced Outcome Budgeting in 2005 to shift the focus from mere financial outlays to measurable developmental indicators.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as output-based budgeting focuses on physical deliverables like road length, while Statement 3 is correct because the Government of India introduced the Outcome Budget in 2005 to transition from tracking financial expenditure to evaluating actual developmental impacts. Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2005 Outcome Budgeting framework was an internal administrative reform by the Ministry of Finance to enhance accountability, and it has no connection to the 1992 Rio Earth Summit guidelines.
Consider the following statements regarding Social Audit framework under MGNREGA and its impact on fiscal transparency:
1. Under the MGNREGA framework, the Gram Sabha is empowered to conduct a social audit to verify the quality of works and the transparency of wage payments.
2. The Mahatma Gandhi NREGA Audit of Schemes Rules, 2011, provides that the social audit report must be placed in the public domain within 15 days of the conclusion of the public hearing.
3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the establishment of the Social Audit Units, and these units report their findings directly to the District Magistrate for immediate disciplinary action.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 17 of the MGNREGA Act mandates the Gram Sabha to monitor the execution of works and conduct social audits. Statement 2 is correct because the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA Audit of Schemes Rules, 2011, explicitly requires the Social Audit Unit to place the report in the public domain within 15 days of the public hearing. Statement 3 is incorrect because Social Audit Units are mandated by the MGNREGA Act and its rules, not the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, and these units function independently rather than reporting directly to the District Magistrate for disciplinary action.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in the 'Budget Estimates' vs 'Revised Estimates' process:
1. Revised Estimates are finalized by the Ministry of Finance after reviewing the performance of the first two quarters and are presented to Parliament along with the Budget Estimates for the following year.
2. The Budget Estimates are prepared by the NITI Aayog based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission, and these projections are finalized during the pre-budget meetings held in January.
3. The Revised Estimates process involves a mandatory audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, who certifies the mid-year expenditure figures before they are published in the Union Budget document.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because Revised Estimates (RE) reflect the anticipated expenditure for the current financial year based on actual performance in the first 6-7 months, presented alongside the Budget Estimates (BE) for the next year. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Ministry of Finance, not NITI Aayog, prepares the Budget Estimates, and these are finalized through internal departmental consultations rather than Finance Commission recommendations. Statement 3 is incorrect because the RE process is an administrative estimation by the government, whereas the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) only conducts an audit of actual expenditures after the financial year concludes, not mid-year estimates.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory monitoring of public service delivery in rural India:
1. Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the devolution of power to Panchayati Raj Institutions includes the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice at the village level.
2. The Social Audit Unit, established as an independent organization under the Ministry of Rural Development, facilitates the verification of records against physical progress for rural infrastructure projects.
3. The Gram Sabha, under Section 3 of the MGNREGA Act 2005, holds the authority to conduct social audits of all works implemented within the Gram Panchayat jurisdiction.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 243G of the 73rd Amendment empowers PRIs to prepare plans for economic development and social justice. Statement 2 is correct because the MGNREGA Audit of Schemes Rules, 2011, mandates the establishment of independent Social Audit Units (SAUs) by state governments, supported by the Ministry of Rural Development, to ensure transparency. Statement 3 is correct as Section 17 of the MGNREGA Act, 2005, explicitly mandates the Gram Sabha to conduct regular social audits of all works executed by the Gram Panchayat to ensure accountability and monitor public service delivery.
Consider the following statements regarding E-governance initiatives for real-time expenditure tracking by citizens:
1. The e-lekha portal, launched in 2012, functions as a public-facing dashboard that provides granular, real-time data on individual beneficiary transfers for all state-level welfare programs.
2. The Expenditure Management Commission, established in 2014, introduced the 'Jan-Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile' trinity to enable citizens to monitor the daily budgetary allocation of local urban bodies.
3. The Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme, initiated in 2008, incorporates a real-time fiscal tracking module that allows citizens to view the exact disbursement status of infrastructure grants.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because they misattribute the functions and origins of these government initiatives. The e-lekha portal is an integrated financial management system for internal government accounting rather than a public-facing beneficiary tracking dashboard, the JAM trinity (Jan-Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile) was a strategy for direct benefit transfer rather than a tool for monitoring local urban body budgets, and the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme focuses on digitizing land data rather than real-time fiscal tracking of infrastructure grants.
Consider the following statements regarding E-governance initiatives for real-time expenditure tracking by citizens:
1. The Public Financial Management System (PFMS), overseen by the Controller General of Accounts, facilitates real-time expenditure tracking for over 3,000 central sector and centrally sponsored schemes.
2. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, ratified in 1993, includes provisions for the mandatory publication of real-time digital expenditure logs by all Gram Panchayats on a centralized national portal.
3. The BharatNet project, which commenced in 2011, serves as the primary technical backbone for the 'MyGov' dashboard to display real-time, itemized expenditure reports for all state-funded rural development projects.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as PFMS, under the Controller General of Accounts, provides a comprehensive platform for tracking funds for over 3,000 schemes, ensuring transparency in public expenditure. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act focuses on the devolution of powers and responsibilities to Panchayati Raj Institutions, not on mandatory digital expenditure reporting. Statement 3 is incorrect because BharatNet is a project for broadband connectivity in Gram Panchayats, while the 'MyGov' platform is a citizen engagement portal, and there is no centralized national dashboard for itemized real-time rural expenditure tracking.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in the 'Budget Estimates' vs 'Revised Estimates' process:
1. The Ministry of Finance issues the Budget Circular, typically in August or September, which initiates the process for departments to submit their initial Budget Estimates for the subsequent financial year.
2. Article 112 of the Constitution of India refers to the Annual Financial Statement, which serves as the primary document for presenting Budget Estimates to Parliament before the commencement of the fiscal year on April 1.
3. The Budget Estimates represent the initial financial projections for the upcoming fiscal year, whereas Revised Estimates reflect adjustments made based on the actual expenditure trends observed during the first six months of the current year.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Budget Circular issued by the Budget Division of the Department of Economic Affairs typically initiates the exercise in August/September to gather projections for the next fiscal year. Statement 2 is correct because Article 112 mandates the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) to Parliament, which must be passed before the new financial year begins on April 1. Statement 3 is correct because Budget Estimates are forward-looking projections, while Revised Estimates are mid-year adjustments based on actual spending patterns and revenue collection trends observed during the first half of the current financial year.
Consider the following statements regarding Budget transparency indices and their implications for democratic governance:
1. The Open Budget Survey, conducted by the International Budget Partnership, evaluates budget transparency across 125 countries using the Open Budget Index.
2. The OECD Best Practices for Budget Transparency, released in 2001, serves as the primary legal framework for the IMF's Article IV consultations regarding national fiscal disclosure.
3. The Public Expenditure and Financial Accountability (PEFA) framework includes 94 performance indicators designed to measure the impact of legislative oversight on the national debt ceiling.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Open Budget Survey by the International Budget Partnership is the world’s only independent, comparative assessment of budget transparency, oversight, and public participation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the OECD Best Practices are voluntary guidelines, not a legal framework, and the IMF uses its own 'Fiscal Transparency Code' for Article IV consultations. Statement 3 is incorrect because the PEFA framework utilizes 31 performance indicators-not 94-to assess the health of public financial management systems, rather than focusing specifically on legislative oversight of debt ceilings.
Consider the following statements regarding Legislative oversight committees and public engagement in budgetary scrutiny:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits audit reports to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament under Article 151 of the Constitution.
2. Under the provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the District Planning Committee is empowered to finalize the annual state budget allocations for all centrally sponsored schemes.
3. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act of 2003 requires the government to place before both Houses of Parliament a Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement along with the annual budget.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 151 mandates the CAG to submit audit reports to the President for tabling in Parliament, while Statement 3 is correct because the FRBM Act, 2003, legally requires the government to present a Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement alongside the annual budget to ensure fiscal discipline. Statement 2 is incorrect because the District Planning Committee, constituted under Article 243ZD, is responsible for consolidating plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities for the district as a whole, rather than finalizing state-level budget allocations for centrally sponsored schemes.
Consider the following statements regarding Integration of community feedback in the Union Budget formulation process:
1. Article 112 of the Indian Constitution outlines the Annual Financial Statement, while the Ministry of Finance initiated the 'Halwa Ceremony' tradition to mark the commencement of the final budget printing process.
2. The 'Jan Bhagidari' initiative encourages citizen participation in the budgetary process, with the Ministry of Finance inviting inputs from industry chambers and trade associations since 2014.
3. The 'MyGov' platform facilitates the 'Union Budget Suggestions' portal, which recorded over 15,000 public submissions during the formulation of the 2024-25 Union Budget.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 112 mandates the Annual Financial Statement, and the 'Halwa Ceremony' is a long-standing tradition marking the 'lock-in' period for budget printing. Statement 2 is correct because the Ministry of Finance has consistently institutionalized pre-budget consultations with diverse stakeholders, including industry leaders and trade bodies, to incorporate broader economic feedback. Statement 3 is correct as the 'MyGov' portal serves as the official digital interface for 'Jan Bhagidari,' successfully crowdsourcing thousands of policy suggestions from citizens for the 2024-25 Union Budget cycle.
Consider the following statements regarding Public Expenditure Tracking Surveys (PETS) methodology:
1. The PETS framework was introduced by the IMF in 1991 as part of the structural adjustment programs to ensure that central bank reserves align with local government infrastructure spending.
2. The World Bank first pioneered the Public Expenditure Tracking Survey (PETS) methodology in Uganda during the 1996 fiscal year to assess the leakage of non-wage education funds.
3. PETS methodology typically utilizes a quantitative approach by comparing the budget allocations at the central ministry level with the actual resources received by frontline service delivery units like primary schools.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because PETS was not introduced by the IMF in 1991 for central bank reserves, but rather developed to address systemic leakages in public funds. Statement 2 is correct as the World Bank pioneered PETS in Uganda in 1996 to track the flow of non-wage education grants, revealing that only 13% of funds reached primary schools. Statement 3 is correct because the methodology relies on quantitative tracking to measure the gap between central budget allocations and the actual resources reaching frontline service delivery units.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information (RTI) Act as a catalyst for fiscal accountability:
1. The 2006 guidelines issued by the Department of Personnel and Training emphasize that proactive disclosure under Section 4 includes the details of subsidy programs and the criteria for identifying beneficiaries in government schemes.
2. The 2017 amendment to the General Financial Rules incorporated provisions for the mandatory disclosure of outcome budgets, which align with the transparency objectives promoted by the Right to Information Act framework.
3. Under the 2005 RTI Act, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India maintains that the disclosure of audit reports submitted to the President under Article 151 of the Constitution is a necessary component of fiscal transparency.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2006 DoPT guidelines mandated proactive disclosure under Section 4(1)(b) to ensure transparency in subsidy distribution and beneficiary selection. Statement 2 is correct because the 2017 General Financial Rules (GFR) institutionalized outcome-based budgeting to link fiscal outlays with measurable results, reinforcing the RTI Act's transparency mandate. Statement 3 is correct as the CAG, in line with the RTI framework, treats audit reports as public documents once tabled in Parliament, fulfilling the constitutional requirement for fiscal accountability under Article 151.
Consider the following statements regarding Decentralized planning and the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts:
1. Gram Sabhas are empowered to approve the plans, programmes, and projects for social and economic development before such plans are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat.
2. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the concept of the Gram Nyayalaya for local dispute resolution, and the first such court was established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act of 1992 to facilitate decentralized justice.
3. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the constitution of Ward Committees in Municipalities with a population of three lakhs or more.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 243A empowers Gram Sabhas to approve plans for social and economic development. Statement 3 is correct because Article 243S mandates the constitution of Ward Committees in Municipalities with a population of three lakhs or more. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Gram Nyayalayas Act was enacted in 2008, not 1992, and it is a separate piece of legislation rather than a provision introduced by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory Budgeting (PB) mechanisms in urban local bodies:
1. The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission, launched in 2005, includes provisions for the direct transfer of municipal funds to registered Resident Welfare Associations to execute local sanitation projects.
2. The Model Municipal Law drafted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in 2003 encompasses the mandatory inclusion of a citizen-elected treasurer in every Ward Committee to oversee the disbursement of development grants.
3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the creation of District Planning Committees, which are responsible for finalizing the annual budget of all urban local bodies within the state.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because JNNURM focused on infrastructure reform and capacity building, not the direct transfer of municipal funds to RWAs. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Model Municipal Law (2003) emphasizes Ward Committees for consultation but does not mandate a citizen-elected treasurer for fund disbursement. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 73rd Amendment pertains to Panchayati Raj Institutions, while the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act mandates the creation of District Planning Committees to consolidate plans prepared by both Panchayats and Municipalities, rather than finalizing municipal budgets.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and their relevance to public expenditure tracking:
1. The 1996 Action Plan for Effective and Responsive Government allows for the periodic review of citizen charters by the National Development Council to ensure alignment with state-level budget priorities.
2. The 2002 Guidelines on Citizen Charters include provisions for the appointment of an independent ombudsman in each district to resolve disputes arising from public expenditure discrepancies.
3. In 1997, the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances initiated the process of formulating citizen charters to improve the responsiveness of public agencies to service users.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) initiated the formulation of Citizen Charters in 1997 to enhance service delivery standards. Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Development Council is not mandated to review Citizen Charters; instead, the 1996 Action Plan focused on internal departmental reviews and public consultation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2002 Guidelines do not provide for a district-level ombudsman for expenditure discrepancies, as grievance redressal mechanisms under Citizen Charters are typically handled by designated internal officers or existing administrative hierarchies.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory monitoring of public service delivery in rural India:
1. The National Social Assistance Programme, launched in 1995, incorporates a mandatory community-led verification protocol that links the disbursement of old-age pensions to the quarterly audit reports of the Gram Sabha.
2. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the District Planning Committee framework, which integrates the budgetary allocations of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme with urban municipal planning.
3. The 11th Schedule of the Constitution identifies 29 functional areas for Panchayats, and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj provides for a centralized digital portal where village residents approve the final state-level budget estimates.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a centrally sponsored scheme where pension disbursement is based on eligibility verification by state authorities, not quarterly Gram Sabha audits. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 74th Amendment pertains to Urban Local Bodies and District Planning Committees, whereas MGNREGA is governed by the 73rd Amendment framework for rural areas. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the 11th Schedule lists 29 subjects for Panchayats, there is no constitutional or statutory provision requiring village residents to approve state-level budget estimates via a centralized portal.
Consider the following statements regarding Decentralized planning and the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts:
1. Article 243W of the Constitution enables the State Legislatures to endow Municipalities with powers to perform functions listed in the Twelfth Schedule, including urban planning.
2. The State Finance Commission, constituted under Article 243I, reviews the financial position of the Panchayats and makes recommendations regarding the distribution of taxes between the State and local bodies.
3. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution includes 'Public Distribution System' as one of the subjects that may be devolved to the Panchayats for decentralized planning.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Article 243W empowers State Legislatures to devolve powers and responsibilities to Municipalities, including the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice as per the Twelfth Schedule. Statement 2 is correct because Article 243I mandates the constitution of a State Finance Commission every five years to review and recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes, duties, and tolls between the State and Panchayats. Statement 3 is correct as the Eleventh Schedule, inserted by the 73rd Amendment Act, explicitly lists 29 functional items, including the 'Public Distribution System' (item 14), to be devolved to Panchayats for effective decentralized planning.
Consider the following statements regarding Transparency in the 'Budget Estimates' vs 'Revised Estimates' process:
1. Data on actual expenditure, as recorded by the Controller General of Accounts, provides the empirical basis for calculating the variance between the Budget Estimates and the Revised Estimates for any given ministry.
2. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, includes provisions for the government to place a Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement before Parliament, which contextualizes the variance between Budget Estimates and Revised Estimates.
3. Under the provisions of the General Financial Rules, 2017, the Revised Estimates for a financial year are approved by the Public Accounts Committee before the government releases the supplementary demands for grants.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) compiles monthly expenditure data, which serves as the factual basis for assessing variances between Budget Estimates (BE) and Revised Estimates (RE). Statement 2 is correct because the FRBM Act, 2003, mandates the government to present a Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, which provides a multi-year framework to explain fiscal deviations and budgetary adjustments. Statement 3 is incorrect because Revised Estimates are prepared by the Ministry of Finance and approved by the Cabinet, not the Public Accounts Committee, which is a post-expenditure oversight body that examines audit reports rather than approving budgetary estimates.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability mechanisms in the utilization of District Mineral Foundation (DMF) funds:
1. State governments maintain the power to divert up to 25 percent of District Mineral Foundation collections toward the State Disaster Response Fund to address regional emergencies caused by industrial accidents.
2. The 2016 Supreme Court judgment in the Federation of Indian Mineral Industries case permitted the retrospective application of District Mineral Foundation contributions to mining leases granted prior to the 2015 amendment date.
3. The Pradhan Mantri Khanij Kshetra Kalyan Yojana (PMKKKY) guidelines issued in 2015 provide for the utilization of at least 60 percent of District Mineral Foundation funds for high-priority sectors like drinking water supply and sanitation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because PMKKKY guidelines mandate that at least 60% of DMF funds be utilized for high-priority sectors, including drinking water supply, environment preservation, and health care. Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no such provision allowing state governments to divert DMF collections to the State Disaster Response Fund. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court, in the Federation of Indian Mineral Industries vs. Union of India (2017) case, clarified that DMF contributions are applicable only prospectively from January 12, 2015, specifically rejecting the retrospective application to mining leases granted before that date.
Consider the following statements regarding Integration of community feedback in the Union Budget formulation process:
1. The Union Budget 2021-22 introduced the 'Union Budget Mobile App', allowing citizens to access 14 budget documents digitally to foster greater public engagement with fiscal data.
2. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, includes provisions for the government to place medium-term fiscal policy statements before Parliament to enhance transparency.
3. Pre-budget consultations for the 2023-24 fiscal year involved 120 representatives from various sectors, including economists, agricultural experts, and social sector organizations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Union Budget Mobile App was indeed launched in 2021 to provide digital access to all 14 Union Budget documents. Statement 2 is correct because the FRBM Act, 2003, mandates the government to present the Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement and Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement to Parliament to ensure fiscal transparency. Statement 3 is correct as the pre-budget consultations for the 2023-24 cycle were broad-based, engaging over 120 representatives from diverse sectors including agriculture, industry, and social organizations to incorporate public feedback into the fiscal planning process.
Consider the following statements regarding Right to Information (RTI) Act as a catalyst for fiscal accountability:
1. The 2013 National Food Security Act contains a provision for the creation of a Central Budget Transparency Bureau, which oversees the implementation of RTI requests related to food subsidy disbursements.
2. The 1991 liberalization policy framework includes the Public Expenditure Tracking Survey, which provides the legal basis for citizens to access real-time bank transaction data of government departments through the RTI portal.
3. The 2005 RTI Act includes a specific schedule that defines the methodology for calculating the fiscal deficit, allowing citizens to request the raw data used by the Reserve Bank of India in its annual monetary policy reports.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are factually incorrect as none of the mentioned provisions exist within the cited legislations. The National Food Security Act, 2013, focuses on legal entitlements to food grains and grievance redressal mechanisms rather than creating a Central Budget Transparency Bureau. Similarly, the 1991 liberalization policy did not institutionalize a Public Expenditure Tracking Survey for real-time bank data access, and the 2005 RTI Act is a procedural law for information access that does not contain schedules defining fiscal deficit methodology or mandate the disclosure of raw RBI monetary policy data.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory monitoring of public service delivery in rural India:
1. The Management Information System (MIS) of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin allows for geo-tagged monitoring of house construction stages by both officials and local community members.
2. The 14th Finance Commission recommended that Gram Panchayats receive direct grants to strengthen local self-governance, which are subject to public disclosure and social audit requirements.
3. The 'Jan Sunwai' or public hearing process serves as a platform where local beneficiaries cross-verify expenditure statements of rural development schemes against the actual service delivery on the ground.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as PMAY-G utilizes the AwaasSoft MIS and geo-tagging to ensure transparency in construction progress. Statement 2 is correct because the 14th Finance Commission introduced performance-based grants for Gram Panchayats, mandating public disclosure and social audits to ensure fiscal accountability. Statement 3 is correct as Jan Sunwai acts as a grassroots social audit mechanism, empowering beneficiaries to verify expenditures and service delivery against official records, thereby enhancing local governance.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen Charters and their relevance to public expenditure tracking:
1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the creation of social audit committees, which function under the direct oversight of the Comptroller and Auditor General to verify expenditure patterns.
2. The Right to Information Act of 2005 facilitates public expenditure tracking by empowering citizens to request copies of vouchers and work orders related to local government budgets.
3. The Sevottam model, introduced in 2006, serves as a quality management framework for public service delivery by incorporating citizen charters as one of its three key modules.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 73rd Amendment does not mandate social audit committees under the CAG; instead, social audits are typically facilitated by the Gram Sabha under provisions like the MGNREGA Act. Statement 2 is correct as the RTI Act, 2005, allows citizens to access official records, including vouchers and work orders, ensuring transparency in public spending. Statement 3 is correct because the Sevottam model, launched in 2006, is a quality management framework consisting of three modules: Citizen's Charter, Grievance Redress Mechanism, and Service Delivery Capability.
Consider the following statements regarding Public Expenditure Tracking Surveys (PETS) methodology:
1. The 2015 Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) framework formally integrated PETS as the primary tool for measuring the reduction of poverty gaps in middle-income countries through direct cash transfers.
2. The PETS approach typically focuses on the vertical integration of fiscal data, starting from the international donor agencies and ending at the individual beneficiary bank accounts in developing economies.
3. The PETS methodology relies on the 1998 UN Convention against Corruption to authorize independent auditors to access the internal financial ledgers of private contractors working on government projects.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Public Expenditure Tracking Surveys (PETS) are diagnostic tools used to trace the flow of public funds from central budgets to frontline service delivery points, not for measuring poverty gaps or tracking international donor flows as stated in statements 1 and 2. Statement 3 is incorrect because PETS are analytical research instruments designed to identify leakages and inefficiencies in public service delivery, rather than legal mechanisms derived from the 1998 UN Convention against Corruption for auditing private contractors. Consequently, all three statements are factually incorrect as they misrepresent the scope, purpose, and legal basis of the PETS methodology.
Consider the following statements regarding Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act and citizen access to fiscal data:
1. The Union Finance Ministry launched the Union Budget Mobile App in 2021 to provide digital access to fiscal data, which functions under the oversight of the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance.
2. The 15th Finance Commission report recommended a fiscal deficit glide path for states, and the FRBM Act was amended in 2018 to link the borrowing limits directly to the state-level GST collection targets.
3. Section 7 of the FRBM Act empowers the Central Government to exceed the prescribed fiscal deficit target by 0.5 percent of GDP under grounds of national security or calamity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Section 4(2) of the FRBM Act allows the government to exceed fiscal targets by 0.5% of GDP due to exceptional grounds like national security or calamity. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the Union Budget Mobile App was launched in 2021, it is managed by the Ministry of Finance and not under the oversight of the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2018 FRBM amendment focused on a debt-to-GDP target of 40% for the Centre and did not link state borrowing limits to GST collection targets.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Civil Society Organizations (CSOs) in pre-budget consultations:
1. The Right to Information Act, 2005, serves as a primary tool for CSOs to track the utilization of funds allocated to flagship schemes following the passage of the Finance Bill.
2. The Pre-Budget Consultation meetings held by the Finance Minister allow representatives from Civil Society Organizations to present their recommendations on social sector spending and fiscal priorities.
3. The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance invites memoranda from diverse stakeholders, including non-governmental research bodies, to review the Demands for Grants of the Ministry of Finance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the RTI Act, 2005, empowers CSOs to demand expenditure data, ensuring transparency in post-budget implementation. Statement 2 is correct because the Union Finance Ministry conducts formal pre-budget consultations with various stakeholders, including NGOs and civil society, to solicit inputs on social welfare and fiscal policy. Statement 3 is correct as Parliamentary Standing Committees regularly invite memoranda from expert bodies and research organizations to scrutinize the Demands for Grants, fostering democratic oversight in the budgetary process.
Consider the following statements regarding Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act and citizen access to fiscal data:
1. The FRBM Act provides for the creation of a Sinking Fund to manage public debt, and the guidelines for its operation were notified by the Reserve Bank of India in the 2005-06 fiscal cycle.
2. The Union Budget documents include the 'Budget at a Glance' statement, which provides a broad overview of receipts and disbursements in compliance with fiscal transparency norms.
3. The N.K. Singh Committee report submitted in 2017 recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60 percent for the general government by the fiscal year 2022-23.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the FRBM Act does not mandate a Sinking Fund; such funds are typically established by state governments under their own legislation, and the RBI does not issue notification guidelines for a national-level FRBM Sinking Fund. Statement 2 is correct as the 'Budget at a Glance' is a mandatory document presented under the FRBM Act to provide citizens with a simplified summary of fiscal receipts and expenditures. Statement 3 is correct because the N.K. Singh Committee (2017) proposed a fiscal roadmap targeting a combined debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general government (40% for the Centre and 20% for states) by 2022-23.
Consider the following statements regarding Integration of community feedback in the Union Budget formulation process:
1. The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance allows for the inclusion of public testimony during the 'guillotine' phase of the budget session, ensuring that citizen feedback influences the final appropriation bills.
2. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the establishment of District Planning Committees, which are empowered to finalize the state-level budget allocations before they are submitted to the Union Finance Ministry.
3. The Budgetary Reform Committee of 2016 introduced the 'Outcome Budget' framework, which links the release of central funds directly to the public approval ratings gathered through the 'e-Samiksha' portal.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 'guillotine' is a procedural device to expedite the passage of pending Demands for Grants without discussion, not a mechanism for public testimony. Statement 2 is incorrect as District Planning Committees under Article 243ZD consolidate plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities but do not finalize state-level budget allocations for the Union Finance Ministry. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 'Outcome Budget' framework, introduced in 2005-06, focuses on measurable performance indicators rather than public approval ratings via the e-Samiksha portal, which is a digital monitoring system for government projects.
Consider the following statements regarding Participatory budgeting models in the context of Smart Cities Mission:
1. The Smart Cities Mission guidelines encourage the use of the MyGov platform to facilitate citizen feedback on proposed municipal budget allocations.
2. Under the Smart Cities Mission, the Special Purpose Vehicle is tasked with organizing ward-level consultations to prioritize capital expenditure projects.
3. The 2019 Urban Governance Index ranks Indian cities based on their fiscal autonomy, and it identifies participatory budgeting as a prerequisite for cities to access the Smart Cities Mission performance-based incentive grants.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Smart Cities Mission mandates citizen engagement through digital platforms like MyGov to ensure transparency and inclusivity in urban planning. Statement 2 is correct because the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) is the designated body responsible for implementing projects, which includes conducting mandatory ward-level consultations to align capital expenditure with local needs. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Urban Governance Index (UGI) evaluates municipal performance, participatory budgeting is not a formal prerequisite for accessing performance-based incentive grants under the Smart Cities Mission guidelines.
Consider the following statements regarding Accountability mechanisms in the utilization of District Mineral Foundation (DMF) funds:
1. The District Mineral Foundation funds are classified as part of the Consolidated Fund of India, and their disbursement follows the same parliamentary appropriation procedure as the Union Budget.
2. The District Mineral Foundation operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Mines, which publishes the annual consolidated expenditure report for every district on the 'Khanij Prahari' mobile application.
3. Under the 2015 amendment, the Gram Sabha possesses the final authority to approve the annual budget of the District Mineral Foundation, bypassing the need for review by the Zila Parishad or the District Collector.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because DMF is a non-profit trust created under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015, and its funds are kept in a separate account, not the Consolidated Fund of India. Statement 2 is incorrect as the DMF is managed by the District Mineral Foundation Trust at the district level under the state government's jurisdiction, not the Ministry of Mines, and there is no such centralized mandate for 'Khanij Prahari' to report all district expenditures. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Gram Sabha plays a consultative role in identifying works, the final approval of the annual plan and budget rests with the Governing Council of the DMF, which is chaired by the District Collector.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Gram Sabhas in the preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDP):
1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the Gram Sabha as the primary planning body, and the subsequent 2004 National Rural Employment Guarantee Act empowered it to audit the expenditure of the GPDP funds.
2. As per the guidelines for the 15th Finance Commission, the GPDP preparation cycle is synchronized with the financial year, beginning in the month of October and concluding by December.
3. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj introduced the 'Gram Swaraj' portal in 2015 to facilitate online fund transfers, which serves as the primary interface for villagers to upload their own project proposals for the GPDP.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as the Ministry of Panchayati Raj mandates the 'People's Plan Campaign' (Sabki Yojana Sabka Vikas) to be conducted annually from October 2nd to December 31st to synchronize GPDP preparation with the financial year. Statement 1 is incorrect because while the 73rd Amendment recognizes the Gram Sabha, the social audit mandate for MGNREGA was established by the 2005 Act, not 2004. Statement 3 is incorrect because the e-GramSwaraj portal was launched in 2020 to digitize the planning and accounting process, not in 2015, and it serves as a management tool for Panchayats rather than a direct project-upload interface for individual villagers.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Civil Society Organizations (CSOs) in pre-budget consultations:
1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the direct participation of district-level CSOs in the final approval process of the state-level annual financial statement before it reaches the Governor.
2. The 2021-22 Union Budget introduced the 'Union Budget Mobile App' to facilitate access to budgetary documents for the general public and civil society analysts.
3. The NITI Aayog's 'State Support Mission' allows civil society groups to directly modify the allocation of centrally sponsored schemes during the mid-year review meeting held in December.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the Union Budget Mobile App was launched in 2021 to ensure transparency by providing seamless access to budget documents for all stakeholders. Statement 1 is incorrect as the 73rd Amendment empowers Gram Sabhas at the local level, but CSOs have no constitutional role in the approval process of state-level financial statements. Statement 3 is incorrect because while NITI Aayog engages with stakeholders, it does not grant civil society groups the authority to modify the allocation of centrally sponsored schemes, which remains a prerogative of the executive branch.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Gram Sabhas in the preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDP):
1. Under the 14th Finance Commission recommendations, the Gram Sabha holds the authority to approve the annual GPDP before the submission of the plan to the block-level committee.
2. The 'Sabha App' serves as a digital platform for recording the minutes of Gram Sabha meetings, ensuring that the prioritization of developmental works is captured in real-time.
3. The Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) process is guided by the People's Plan Campaign, which was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj in October 2018.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the 14th Finance Commission mandated that Gram Sabhas must approve the GPDP to ensure decentralized financial accountability. Statement 2 is correct because the 'Sabha App' is a dedicated digital tool launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj to digitize Gram Sabha proceedings and ensure transparency in project prioritization. Statement 3 is correct as the 'People’s Plan Campaign' (Sabki Yojana Sabka Vikas) was indeed launched in October 2018 to facilitate the preparation of GPDPs through a structured, participatory process involving all stakeholders.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of Gram Sabhas in the preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDP):
1. The District Planning Committee, chaired by the Zila Parishad President, holds the final authority to modify the GPDP projects, and it publishes the approved list in the Gazette of India under the Panchayati Raj (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act of 1996.
2. The State Finance Commission is responsible for the direct release of untied grants to the Gram Panchayat, and it reviews the GPDP performance reports submitted by the Sarpanch during the annual state budget session.
3. The Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan, initiated in 2010, provides for the training of elected representatives, and it links the approval of the GPDP to the successful completion of the Socio-Economic Caste Census data verification.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the GPDP is prepared by the Gram Sabha and approved by the Gram Panchayat, not the District Planning Committee, and PESA 1996 does not mandate gazette publication of GPDPs. The State Finance Commission recommends the distribution of taxes and grants, but funds are typically devolved through the State Government, and there is no provision for the Sarpanch to report directly to the state budget session. Furthermore, the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan was revamped in 2018, and GPDP approval is based on the 'People's Plan Campaign' rather than a mandatory link to Socio-Economic Caste Census data verification.
Consider the following statements regarding Outcomes-based budgeting vs Output-based budgeting in public participation:
1. The 1968 Performance Budgeting system provides for the assessment of long-term societal impacts, and it was integrated into the administrative reforms suggested by the First Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966.
2. The 14th Finance Commission report emphasized the transition toward outcome-based frameworks to enhance the transparency of local body expenditures.
3. Outcome-based budgeting focuses on the qualitative impact of public expenditure, such as the reduction in maternal mortality rates following the implementation of the Janani Suraksha Yojana.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 1968 Performance Budgeting system focused on measuring physical outputs (e.g., number of schools built) rather than long-term societal outcomes, which were introduced much later in the 2005-06 Outcome Budget framework. Statement 2 is correct as the 14th Finance Commission explicitly recommended that local bodies adopt outcome-based monitoring to ensure fiscal accountability and transparency in service delivery. Statement 3 is correct because outcome-based budgeting shifts the focus from mere financial inputs or immediate outputs to the actual qualitative change in public welfare, such as health indicators like maternal mortality rates.
Consider the following statements regarding Citizen-led evaluation of welfare scheme implementation:
1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provides for the constitution of District Planning Committees, which are empowered to finalize the district budget by incorporating the prioritized welfare projects submitted by the Zila Parishad.
2. The Gram Swaraj Abhiyan, launched in 2018 to promote social harmony, includes provisions for the direct transfer of funds from the Union Ministry of Panchayati Raj to the bank accounts of individual beneficiaries identified by the Gram Sabha.
3. The Social Audit process under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, involves the Gram Sabha verifying the muster rolls and expenditure records during meetings held at least once every six months.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Section 17 of the MGNREGA mandates social audits by the Gram Sabha at least once every six months to ensure transparency and accountability. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 243ZD of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (not the 73rd) mandates the constitution of District Planning Committees to consolidate plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Gram Swaraj Abhiyan was a focused campaign for saturation of seven specific welfare schemes, and it does not facilitate direct fund transfers from the Union Ministry to individual beneficiaries, as such transfers are typically handled through DBT portals linked to specific departmental schemes.