Consider the following statements regarding Appellate mechanism: First and Second Appeals:
1. The RTI Act 2005 provides that the burden of proving that the denial of a request was justified rests on the Public Information Officer who denied the request.
2. Under Section 19(8), the Information Commission possesses the authority to require the public authority to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered.
3. Section 19(10) specifies that the Information Commission shall decide the appeal in accordance with such procedure as may be prescribed under the RTI Rules 2012.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct under Section 19(5), which places the onus of proof on the PIO to justify the denial of information. Statement 2 is correct as Section 19(8)(b) empowers the Information Commission to compensate the applicant for any loss or detriment suffered due to the denial. Statement 3 is correct because Section 19(10) mandates that the Commission must decide appeals following the procedures prescribed under the RTI Rules, 2012.
Consider the following statements regarding The 'Doctrine of Severability' in providing partial information:
1. The Supreme Court judgment in the 2011 'Bihar Public Service Commission vs. Saiyed Hussain Abbas Rizvi' case established the doctrine of severability as a mandatory prerequisite for all RTI applications.
2. The Doctrine of Severability is defined under Section 8(2) of the RTI Act 2005, which allows the disclosure of information in the larger public interest despite its exempt status.
3. Section 11 of the RTI Act 2005 governs the procedure for third-party information and serves as the primary legal basis for the doctrine of severability in government records.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
The Doctrine of Severability is actually enshrined in Section 10 of the RTI Act 2005, which mandates that if a request for access to information is rejected on the grounds that it is exempt from disclosure, access may still be provided to that part of the record which does not contain any exempt information. Statement 1 is incorrect because the doctrine is a statutory provision under Section 10, not a judicial creation of the 2011 BPSC case. Statement 2 is incorrect as Section 8(2) deals with the 'Public Interest Override' for exempt information, whereas Section 10 governs severability. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 11 pertains to the notification of third parties, while Section 10 remains the specific legal basis for severability.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital transformation and RTI: E-filing and online portals:
1. The National Informatics Centre developed the e-RTI framework, which includes a feature for real-time video conferencing between the appellant and the Information Commissioner during the hearing of second appeals.
2. The Central Information Commission operates the RTI-MIS portal, which allows citizens to track the status of their applications filed under the 2005 Act and provides for automatic payment of fees via the Unified Payments Interface.
3. Section 4 of the RTI Act provides for the proactive disclosure of information, and the 2019 amendment introduced a provision for the digital authentication of all documents uploaded by Public Information Officers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the e-RTI portal does not feature real-time video conferencing as a standard integrated framework for all second appeals. Statement 2 is incorrect as the RTI-MIS portal does not support UPI-based fee payments, which are currently managed through the RTI Online portal using specific payment gateways. Statement 3 is incorrect because the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 focused solely on the tenure, salary, and service conditions of Information Commissioners and did not introduce any provisions regarding the digital authentication of documents.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional basis and judicial interpretation of Article 19(1)(a):
1. The 1976 ADM Jabalpur case established the judicial precedent that the right to information is a fundamental right, which was later codified in the 2005 legislation.
2. Article 19(1)(a) encompasses the right to privacy as a distinct category, and the 2005 RTI Act incorporates this distinction through the exemption clauses found in Section 8(1)(j).
3. The Official Secrets Act of 1923 was repealed by the Parliament in 2005 to ensure that the RTI Act functions as the primary mechanism for accessing classified government records.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the right to information was first recognized as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) in the 1975 State of UP v. Raj Narain case, not the ADM Jabalpur case, which dealt with the suspension of fundamental rights during an emergency. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act exempts personal information to protect privacy, the right to privacy was explicitly declared a fundamental right under Article 21, not 19(1)(a), in the K.S. Puttaswamy judgment. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Official Secrets Act, 1923, remains in force; the RTI Act only provides that its provisions shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in the Official Secrets Act under Section 22.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for assistance to information seekers under Section 5(3):
1. Section 5(3) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that a Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer shall provide reasonable assistance to the persons seeking information to reduce their oral requests into writing.
2. The RTI Act 2005 replaced the Freedom of Information Act 2002, and Section 5(3) permits the Public Information Officer to charge a nominal fee for the clerical service of transcribing oral requests into written format.
3. Section 5(2) of the RTI Act 2005 relates to the designation of Assistant Public Information Officers, who function under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training to process online applications.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 5(3) mandates that PIOs provide reasonable assistance to individuals, including those who are illiterate, to reduce oral requests into writing. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Act explicitly prohibits charging any fee for the assistance provided under Section 5(3). Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 5(2) mandates the designation of Assistant Public Information Officers at sub-district or divisional levels to receive applications, and they do not function under the administrative control of the DoPT for processing online applications.
Consider the following statements regarding Information commissions' power to impose fines and award compensation:
1. In the case of Manohar v. State of Maharashtra (2012), the Supreme Court clarified that the Information Commission possesses the authority to award compensation to applicants for the harassment caused by the denial of information.
2. The power to impose penalties under Section 20 of the RTI Act 2005 is exercisable by the Information Commission at the time of deciding any complaint or appeal.
3. Under the rules framed by the Central Government in 2007, the Information Commission possesses the authority to award compensation for legal costs, and these awards are enforceable as a decree of a Civil Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court in Manohar v. State of Maharashtra (2012) affirmed that the Commission can award compensation for the loss or detriment suffered by an applicant due to the denial of information. Statement 2 is correct because Section 20(1) of the RTI Act empowers the Information Commission to impose a penalty of Rs. 250 per day, up to a maximum of Rs. 25,000, while deciding a complaint or appeal. Statement 3 is incorrect because the RTI Act does not contain provisions for awarding legal costs, and the Commission's orders are not enforceable as a decree of a Civil Court; rather, they are binding and must be complied with as per the Act's provisions.
Consider the following statements regarding Time-bound obligations of Public Information Officers (PIOs):
1. The Public Information Officer is permitted to transfer a request to another public authority within five days if the subject matter of the application pertains to that authority.
2. An additional period of five days is added to the 30-day limit when the request is transferred by the Public Information Officer to another public authority.
3. The RTI Act incorporates provisions for a 15-day response window for applications submitted to state-level bodies, and this timeline aligns with the 2005 notification regarding the decentralization of record management.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Under Section 6(3) of the RTI Act 2005, a PIO must transfer an application to the relevant public authority within five days, and per Section 7(1), this transfer adds five days to the standard 30-day response limit. Statement 3 is incorrect because the RTI Act prescribes a uniform 30-day response window for all public authorities (except 48 hours for life and liberty cases), and there is no provision for a 15-day window linked to decentralization notifications.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between RTI and Right to Privacy:
1. The Central Information Commission in the Milap Chandra vs. Department of Legal Affairs (2014) case clarified that information regarding the personal life of a public servant, such as their medical records or family details, is protected from public disclosure.
2. The Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution by a nine-judge bench in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017) verdict, influencing the interpretation of the RTI Act's exemption clauses.
3. Section 11 of the RTI Act outlines the procedure for third-party information, and it grants the third party a period of 30 days to file an objection if the requested information involves the disclosure of sensitive personal data as defined under the Information Technology Act of 2000.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the CIC consistently upholds that personal information of public servants, unrelated to public activity, is exempt under Section 8(1)(j). Statement 2 is correct because the landmark 2017 Puttaswamy judgment established privacy as a fundamental right, necessitating a stricter 'public interest' test when balancing RTI requests against personal data. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 11 of the RTI Act mandates a 5-day period for the Public Information Officer to issue a notice to a third party, and the third party is granted 10 days-not 30-to submit their written or oral representation.
Consider the following statements regarding Appellate mechanism: First and Second Appeals:
1. Section 19(1) of the RTI Act 2005 allows an applicant to file a first appeal to an officer senior in rank to the Public Information Officer within 30 days of the expiry of the prescribed time limit.
2. The First Appellate Authority functions under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training, and its decisions are subject to review by the Cabinet Secretary under Section 19(4).
3. The First Appellate Authority is empowered under Section 19(6) to dispose of the appeal within 30 days from the date of its filing, or within an extended period not exceeding 45 days for reasons recorded in writing.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 19(1) mandates filing the first appeal within 30 days of the expiry of the prescribed time limit for information. Statement 3 is correct because Section 19(6) stipulates that the First Appellate Authority must dispose of the appeal within 30 days, extendable up to 45 days for recorded reasons. Statement 2 is incorrect because the First Appellate Authority operates within the concerned public authority, and the RTI Act does not provide for a review of its decisions by the Cabinet Secretary.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Appropriate Government in rule-making:
1. Under Section 28 of the RTI Act 2005, the Competent Authority, as defined in Section 2(e), possesses the power to make rules to provide for the implementation of the Act within their respective jurisdictions.
2. Section 27 of the RTI Act 2005 empowers the appropriate government to make rules to carry out the provisions of the Act by notification in the Official Gazette.
3. The rules framed by the Central Government under Section 27 are subject to the condition of being laid before each House of Parliament for a total period of thirty days.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 28 empowers the Competent Authority (e.g., Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India) to frame rules for their respective jurisdictions. Statement 2 is correct because Section 27 grants the Central and State governments the authority to make rules to carry out the Act's provisions via official notifications. Statement 3 is correct as Section 27(4) mandates that all rules made by the Central Government must be laid before each House of Parliament for a total period of thirty days, ensuring legislative oversight.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisdictional limits of Information Commissions over autonomous bodies:
1. The Central Information Commission was established in 2005 under the provisions of the Right to Information Act, consisting of one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners.
2. The 2019 RTI Amendment Act empowered the Central Government to prescribe the terms of service, including salaries and tenure, for Information Commissioners at both central and state levels.
3. Section 12(5) of the RTI Act 2005 specifies that the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by a committee chaired by the Prime Minister.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the RTI Act 2005 established the CIC with a maximum of ten Information Commissioners. Statement 2 is correct because the 2019 Amendment Act shifted the power to determine the tenure, salaries, and allowances of Information Commissioners from the statute to the Central Government. Statement 3 is correct as Section 12(3) and 12(5) mandate that the appointment committee be chaired by the Prime Minister, with the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister as members.
Consider the following statements regarding Appellate mechanism: First and Second Appeals:
1. A second appeal against the decision of the First Appellate Authority lies with the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission as per the provisions of Section 19(3).
2. The second appeal is required to be filed within 90 days from the date on which the decision of the First Appellate Authority should have been made or was actually received.
3. The Second Appeal mechanism allows the Information Commission to impose a penalty of up to 25,000 rupees on the First Appellate Authority for failing to provide information within the 30-day window specified in Section 20.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 19(3) of the RTI Act mandates that a second appeal lies with the Central or State Information Commission. Statement 2 is correct because the Act stipulates a 90-day limitation period for filing a second appeal from the date the decision was received or should have been made. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 20, penalties are imposed on the Public Information Officer (PIO), not the First Appellate Authority, for failure to provide information or for malafide denials.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between RTI and Right to Privacy:
1. The Supreme Court in the R. Rajagopal vs. State of Tamil Nadu (1994) case established the 'Doctrine of Public Interest', which serves as the primary legal basis for the Information Commission to bypass privacy protections when dealing with the disclosure of judicial records.
2. The Supreme Court in the Girish Ramchandra Deshpande vs. Central Information Commissioner (2012) judgment held that income tax returns and details of assets of public servants are personal information and exempt from disclosure under Section 8(1)(j).
3. The 2019 amendment to the RTI Act introduced a specific provision regarding the protection of personal data of political office holders, aligning the Act with the standards set by the Personal Data Protection Bill introduced in the Lok Sabha in 2018.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Girish Ramchandra Deshpande (2012) ruled that personal details like income tax returns and assets are 'personal information' under Section 8(1)(j), exempting them from disclosure unless a larger public interest is proven. Statement 1 is incorrect because the R. Rajagopal case (1994) established the 'Right to Privacy' as part of Article 21, not a doctrine to bypass privacy for judicial records. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 2019 RTI Amendment Act focused solely on the tenure and service conditions of Information Commissioners, not on personal data protection or political office holders.
Consider the following statements regarding Exclusion of intelligence and security organizations under Second Schedule:
1. The 2005 RTI Act provides for the inclusion of the National Investigation Agency in the Second Schedule, following the 2008 amendment to the parent legislation enacted after the Mumbai attacks.
2. The Second Schedule of the RTI Act 2005 encompasses the Central Bureau of Investigation, which functions under the Department of Personnel and Training and is exempt from providing information on all administrative matters.
3. State Governments possess the authority to amend the Second Schedule of the RTI Act 2005 to include state-level intelligence agencies, provided they obtain prior approval from the Central Information Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Investigation Agency (NIA) was added to the Second Schedule via a notification in 2009, not through an amendment to the parent Act. Statement 2 is incorrect as the CBI is only partially exempt; it must provide information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations. Statement 3 is incorrect because, under Section 24(4) of the RTI Act, State Governments have the power to notify their own intelligence and security agencies in the Official Gazette without requiring prior approval from the Central Information Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Exemptions under Section 8(1) and the public interest override:
1. Section 8(1)(a) of the RTI Act 2005 protects information that would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, or relation with a foreign State.
2. Section 8(1)(g) allows for the withholding of information that would endanger the life or physical safety of any person, including the identities of whistleblowers who have filed complaints under the 2004 Public Interest Disclosure Resolution.
3. The Cabinet papers, including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, are exempted under Section 8(1)(i), but this exemption ceases to apply once the specific policy decision is implemented by the relevant ministry.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as it accurately reflects the scope of Section 8(1)(a) regarding national security and sovereignty. Statement 2 is incorrect because while Section 8(1)(g) protects the life or physical safety of a person, it specifically excludes the identity of the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes, not specifically whistleblowers under the 2004 Resolution. Statement 3 is incorrect because under Section 8(1)(i), Cabinet papers remain exempt until the decision is made and the matter is complete or over, but the proviso explicitly states that the reasons for decisions must be made public after the decision has been taken, regardless of implementation status.
Consider the following statements regarding Role, appointment, and tenure of Information Commissioners:
1. The Chief Information Commissioner holds office for a term of three years from the date on which they enter upon their office or until they attain the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
2. The tenure of Information Commissioners was amended by the 2019 Rules to provide for a fixed five-year term, aligning the status of these officials with the Election Commissioners of India.
3. Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act 2005 provides that the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019, mandates a three-year tenure for Information Commissioners. Statement 3 is correct because the selection committee, as per Section 12(3), includes the Prime Minister (Chair), the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2019 amendment actually removed the previous five-year tenure and the parity with Election Commissioners, granting the Central Government the power to prescribe the terms and conditions of service through rules.
Consider the following statements regarding Maintenance, indexing, and computerization of records:
1. The National Informatics Centre launched the RTI-MIS portal in 2008 to centralize the indexing of all physical records held by state-level public authorities under Section 4(1)(a).
2. Section 4(1)(a) of the RTI Act 2005 directs public authorities to maintain all their records duly cataloged and indexed in a manner which facilitates the right to information.
3. The Central Information Commission introduced the 'Record Management Protocol' in 2011, which permits the destruction of all non-digitized files older than twenty years to reduce storage costs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct as Section 4(1)(a) of the RTI Act 2005 mandates that every public authority must maintain all records duly cataloged and indexed to facilitate the right to information. Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no such 'RTI-MIS portal' launched by the NIC in 2008 for centralizing physical records under Section 4(1)(a). Statement 3 is incorrect because the RTI Act does not empower the Central Information Commission to issue protocols for the destruction of non-digitized files; record retention and destruction are governed by the Public Records Act, 1993, and departmental manuals, not the RTI Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Central Information Commission vs State Information Commissions:
1. The Central Information Commission submits an annual report to the Central Government on the implementation of the provisions of the Act, which is then laid before each House of Parliament.
2. The Central Information Commission holds the authority to exercise appellate jurisdiction over the decisions of State Information Commissions, as established by the 2005 notification regarding inter-commission coordination.
3. Section 15 of the RTI Act governs the constitution of State Information Commissions, which function independently of the Central Information Commission in their respective jurisdictions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as per Section 25 of the RTI Act, which mandates the CIC to submit an annual report to the Central Government for parliamentary review. Statement 3 is correct because Section 15 empowers State Governments to constitute State Information Commissions, which operate as autonomous bodies within their jurisdiction. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RTI Act does not provide the CIC with appellate jurisdiction over the SICs; they are independent entities, and an appeal against an SIC decision lies only with the High Court via writ jurisdiction.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital transformation and RTI: E-filing and online portals:
1. The RTI Act allows for the electronic filing of requests, and the 2012 amendment to the Rules introduced a mandatory requirement for applicants to upload a scanned copy of their Aadhaar card for identity verification.
2. The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances manages the RTI portal, which provides for the multilingual translation of all submitted applications into the official language of the concerned state.
3. The RTI Online portal is integrated with the Public Financial Management System, which allows for the instantaneous refund of application fees to the user if the request is rejected by the Public Information Officer.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All statements are incorrect: The RTI Act, 2005 and its 2012 Rules do not mandate Aadhaar for identity verification; the RTI Online portal is managed by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), not the DARPG, and it lacks any provision for multilingual translation of applications. Furthermore, the RTI Online portal is not integrated with the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) for instantaneous fee refunds, as the application fee is non-refundable regardless of the outcome of the RTI request.
Consider the following statements regarding Maintenance, indexing, and computerization of records:
1. Section 4(2) of the RTI Act 2005 encourages public authorities to provide as much information suo motu to the public at regular intervals through various means of communications, including the internet.
2. The Department of Personnel and Training issued guidelines in 2013 emphasizing that public authorities should proactively disclose information in a machine-readable format to facilitate easy access.
3. Under Section 4(1)(b)(vi), public authorities are expected to publish a statement of the categories of documents that are held by them or are under their control.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 4(2) mandates public authorities to provide as much information suo motu to the public at regular intervals through various means of communication. Statement 2 is correct because the 2013 DoPT guidelines on suo motu disclosure specifically emphasize that information should be provided in a machine-readable format to ensure easy accessibility and data usability. Statement 3 is correct as Section 4(1)(b)(vi) explicitly requires public authorities to maintain and publish a statement of the categories of documents held by them or under their control.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisdictional limits of Information Commissions over autonomous bodies:
1. The 2005 RTI Act includes provisions for the establishment of a National RTI Council, which functions as an appellate body for autonomous bodies that receive over 50 percent of their funding from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The 2009 Rules notified under the RTI Act allow autonomous bodies to appoint their own internal RTI ombudsmen, whose decisions are final and binding before they reach the State Information Commission.
3. Section 25 of the RTI Act 2005 provides for the submission of annual reports by the Information Commissions to the President of India, who then presents these reports to the Inter-State Council for review.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005 does not provide for a National RTI Council, nor does it permit autonomous bodies to bypass Information Commissions via internal ombudsmen. Furthermore, under Section 25, the Central Information Commission submits its annual report to the Central Government, which is then laid before each House of Parliament, not the Inter-State Council.
Consider the following statements regarding Third-party information disclosure protocols:
1. In cases involving trade secrets or intellectual property, the CPIO considers the potential for competitive harm before deciding on the release of information provided by a third party.
2. The decision-making process under Section 11 is subject to the appellate mechanism established under Section 19 of the RTI Act 2005, allowing for review by the First Appellate Authority.
3. The RTI Act 2005 incorporates the 2002 Freedom of Information Act principles, and Section 11 provides for the automatic release of third-party records if no response is received from the concerned entity within fifteen days of the initial notice.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 11(1) of the RTI Act requires the CPIO to consider whether disclosure of third-party information, particularly trade secrets or intellectual property, would cause competitive harm. Statement 2 is correct because any decision made by the CPIO under Section 11 is a formal order that can be challenged before the First Appellate Authority under Section 19. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 11 does not mandate 'automatic release'; instead, it requires the CPIO to reach a decision after considering the third party's submission, and the notice period for the third party to respond is five days, not fifteen.
Consider the following statements regarding Penalty provisions and disciplinary action against non-compliant officials:
1. Section 20(1) of the RTI Act 2005 empowers the Information Commission to impose a penalty of 250 rupees for each day of delay until the application is received or information is furnished.
2. The total amount of penalty imposed under Section 20(1) of the RTI Act 2005 does not exceed 25,000 rupees for a single defaulting Public Information Officer.
3. Section 20(2) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that the Information Commission can recommend disciplinary action against a Public Information Officer under the service rules applicable to them.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Section 20(1) of the RTI Act 2005 mandates a penalty of Rs. 250 per day of delay, capped at a maximum of Rs. 25,000, to ensure timely disclosure of information by the Public Information Officer (PIO). Furthermore, Section 20(2) empowers the Information Commission to recommend disciplinary action against a PIO under their respective service rules if they persistently fail to provide information without reasonable cause. All three statements are factually accurate according to the statutory provisions of the RTI Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Suo motu disclosure obligations under Section 4:
1. The Central Information Commission maintains a monitoring wing that reviews the compliance of public authorities regarding the proactive disclosure standards set in 2005.
2. The 2005 legislation incorporates the recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission regarding the digital archiving of all internal government correspondence since 1990.
3. Section 4(1)(c) of the Act suggests that public authorities publish all relevant facts while formulating important policies or announcing decisions which affect the public.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the CIC is mandated under Section 25(5) to monitor and report on the implementation of the Act, including proactive disclosures. Statement 3 is correct as Section 4(1)(c) explicitly mandates public authorities to publish all relevant facts while formulating important policies or announcing decisions that affect the public. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005 does not contain any provision or mandate based on the Second ARC recommendations regarding the digital archiving of all internal government correspondence since 1990.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Appropriate Government in rule-making:
1. The rule-making power of the appropriate government encompasses the authority to restrict the disclosure of information concerning intelligence agencies listed in the Second Schedule.
2. Section 27 allows the appropriate government to amend the schedules of the RTI Act 2005 through executive orders, provided such changes are published in the Gazette within sixty days.
3. The RTI Act 2005 includes provisions for the State Government to frame rules regarding the salary of the Chief Information Commissioner, which are then ratified by the President of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 24 of the RTI Act explicitly excludes intelligence and security organizations from the Act's purview, rather than being a rule-making power of the government. Statement 2 is incorrect as Section 24(2) empowers the Central Government to amend the Second Schedule via notification in the Official Gazette, not through executive orders under Section 27. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019, stipulates that the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall be determined by the Central Government, not the State Government.
Consider the following statements regarding Jurisdictional limits of Information Commissions over autonomous bodies:
1. Section 2(h) of the RTI Act 2005 defines a public authority to include any body owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the appropriate government.
2. The Supreme Court in the 2013 Thalappalam Ser. Coop. Bank Ltd. vs State of Kerala case clarified the criteria for determining whether an autonomous body falls under the RTI Act.
3. Under Section 19(3) of the RTI Act 2005, a second appeal against the decision of a First Appellate Authority lies with the Central Information Commission or State Information Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 2(h) explicitly defines 'public authority' to include bodies substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate government. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in the 2013 Thalappalam case established that cooperative societies are not public authorities merely due to registration or regulation, unless they meet the 'substantial financing' or 'control' tests. Statement 3 is correct as Section 19(3) mandates that a second appeal against the decision of the First Appellate Authority must be filed with the Central or State Information Commission within 90 days.
Consider the following statements regarding Suo motu disclosure obligations under Section 4:
1. Under Section 4(2) of the Act, public authorities provide as much information as possible suo motu to the public at regular intervals through various means of communication.
2. Section 4(1)(d) of the Act provides for the judicial review of administrative decisions by the High Courts, which serves as a mechanism to verify the accuracy of proactive disclosures.
3. The Department of Personnel and Training issued guidelines in 2013 suggesting that public authorities should publish information in a searchable format on their websites.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 4(2) mandates public authorities to provide information suo motu to reduce the need for formal RTI requests. Statement 3 is correct because the DoPT's 2013 guidelines on suo motu disclosure explicitly directed public authorities to publish information in a searchable, user-friendly format on their websites to enhance transparency. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 4(1)(d) pertains to the requirement for public authorities to provide reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons, not to the judicial review powers of High Courts.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Central Information Commission vs State Information Commissions:
1. Section 12 of the RTI Act provides for the constitution of the Central Information Commission consisting of the Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners.
2. The Right to Information Act received the assent of the President of India on 15 June 2005 and became fully operational on 12 October 2005.
3. The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Prime Minister.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 12 of the RTI Act, 2005 mandates the constitution of the CIC with a Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners. Statement 2 is correct because the Act received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005 and, following a 120-day transition period, became fully operational on 12 October 2005. Statement 3 is correct as the appointment process involves a high-level committee chaired by the Prime Minister, with the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister as members, who then recommend candidates to the President.
Consider the following statements regarding Scope of 'Public Authority' under Section 2(h):
1. Under Section 2(h)(d)(i), any non-governmental organization substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate Government falls within the ambit of a public authority.
2. Section 2(h) of the RTI Act classifies the National Human Rights Commission as a public authority, an entity established under the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 to monitor the implementation of the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
3. Public authorities under Section 2(h) include bodies created by the Constitution of India, such as the Finance Commission, which was first constituted in 1951 under Article 280 to recommend the distribution of tax revenues.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 2(h)(d)(i) explicitly includes NGOs substantially financed by the government under the RTI Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the NHRC is a public authority, it was established to monitor human rights in India under the 1993 Act, not specifically to monitor the 1948 Universal Declaration. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Finance Commission was first constituted in 1951, but it is not a 'body' in the sense of a permanent institution; it is a constitutional commission reconstituted every five years, and the statement misrepresents the definition of public authorities under Section 2(h) which focuses on bodies established by or under the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional basis and judicial interpretation of Article 19(1)(a):
1. Section 2(j) of the RTI Act 2005 defines the right to information as including the right to inspection of work, documents, and records, and the taking of certified samples of material.
2. The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005 under the provisions of Section 12 of the Right to Information Act.
3. The Supreme Court in the 1975 State of UP v. Raj Narain case held that the right to information is derived from the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 2(j) explicitly defines the right to information to include inspection, taking notes, extracts, and certified samples of documents. Statement 2 is correct because the Central Information Commission was constituted by the Central Government via a notification under Section 12 of the RTI Act, 2005. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court in State of UP v. Raj Narain (1975) established the landmark precedent that in a representative democracy, people have a right to know every public act, which is implicit in the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a).
Consider the following statements regarding Information commissions' power to impose fines and award compensation:
1. Under Section 20(1) of the RTI Act 2005, the Information Commission can impose a penalty of Rs 250 per day up to a maximum of Rs 25,000 on the Public Information Officer.
2. Section 19(8)(b) of the RTI Act 2005 empowers the Information Commission to require the public authority to compensate the complainant for any loss or other detriment suffered.
3. The Central Information Commission consists of one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners, as defined under Section 12 of the RTI Act 2005.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 20(1) mandates a penalty of Rs 250 per day, capped at Rs 25,000, for PIOs who fail to provide information without reasonable cause. Statement 2 is correct because Section 19(8)(b) grants the Commission the authority to order public authorities to compensate applicants for any loss or detriment suffered due to the denial of information. Statement 3 is correct as Section 12 specifies that the Central Information Commission shall consist of the Chief Information Commissioner and such number of Central Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary.
Consider the following statements regarding Penalty provisions and disciplinary action against non-compliant officials:
1. Under the rules notified in 2012, the Information Commission possesses the authority to deduct the penalty amount directly from the monthly salary of the Public Information Officer if the officer fails to deposit the fine within 60 days.
2. Under the RTI Act 2005, the burden of proving that a Public Information Officer acted reasonably and diligently lies on the officer concerned during penalty proceedings.
3. The Central Information Commission is empowered to impose penalties on a Public Information Officer who refuses to receive an application for information or does not furnish information within the time specified under Section 7(1).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct under Section 20(1) of the RTI Act, which explicitly places the burden of proof on the PIO to justify their actions. Statement 3 is correct as Section 20(1) empowers the Information Commission to impose a penalty of Rs. 250 per day, up to a maximum of Rs. 25,000, for delays or refusal to provide information. Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI Act and its rules do not grant the Information Commission the authority to directly deduct penalties from an officer's salary; instead, the penalty is treated as a debt recoverable through standard government procedures.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Appropriate Government in rule-making:
1. Under the framework of Section 28, the Supreme Court of India maintains the authority to formulate rules for information disclosure, which are then reviewed by the Ministry of Law and Justice.
2. The RTI Act 2005 provides for the creation of a State-level fund for awareness generation, and the rules governing this fund are determined by the Central Information Commission.
3. Section 27 refers to the power of the appropriate government to prescribe the format of the annual report, which is then presented to the Comptroller and Auditor General for final approval.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 28 empowers the Competent Authority (including the Chief Justice of India) to make rules, which do not require review by the Ministry of Law and Justice. Statement 2 is incorrect as the RTI Act does not mandate a State-level fund for awareness, and rule-making powers under Section 27 rest with the 'appropriate government' (Central or State), not the Information Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 25 mandates the preparation of annual reports, and while the appropriate government has rule-making powers under Section 27, these reports are laid before the Parliament or State Legislature, not the Comptroller and Auditor General for approval.
Consider the following statements regarding Role, appointment, and tenure of Information Commissioners:
1. Appeals against the decisions of the Central Information Commission are heard by the National Human Rights Commission, which possesses the power to modify the orders issued under Section 18 of the Act.
2. The Information Commission maintains its headquarters in New Delhi and is empowered to establish regional benches in each state capital to facilitate the disposal of second appeals within sixty days.
3. The Right to Information Act 2005 provides for the removal of an Information Commissioner by the President on the grounds of proved misbehavior, following an inquiry conducted by the Union Public Service Commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
All three statements are incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005 does not provide for appeals to the NHRC, as the Commission's decisions are final and subject only to judicial review by High Courts or the Supreme Court. Furthermore, the Act does not mandate the establishment of regional benches in state capitals, and the removal of an Information Commissioner is conducted by the President based on an inquiry by the Supreme Court, not the UPSC.
Consider the following statements regarding Time-bound obligations of Public Information Officers (PIOs):
1. The Central Information Commission is empowered to impose a penalty of 250 rupees per day on the Public Information Officer for delays in furnishing information, up to a maximum of 25,000 rupees.
2. The RTI Act provides that failure to provide information within the specified time limit is deemed as a refusal of the request.
3. The Third Party procedure under Section 11 allows the Public Information Officer to extend the response period to 45 days, which is consistent with the 2012 amendment to the RTI Rules concerning confidential commercial information.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as per Section 20(1) of the RTI Act, which mandates a penalty of Rs. 250 per day, capped at Rs. 25,000, for delays or malafide denials. Statement 2 is correct under Section 7(2), which stipulates that failure to provide information within the 30-day statutory limit is treated as a deemed refusal. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while Section 11 allows for an extension to 40 days when third-party information is involved, there was no 2012 amendment that altered this specific timeline to 45 days.
Consider the following statements regarding Exclusion of intelligence and security organizations under Second Schedule:
1. The Intelligence Bureau, established in 1887, is included in the Second Schedule of the RTI Act 2005, making it exempt from the standard transparency provisions.
2. The exemption under Section 24 of the RTI Act 2005 covers the Research and Analysis Wing, which was formed in 1968 and operates under the Cabinet Secretariat with complete immunity from judicial review of its internal audit reports.
3. The Second Schedule of the RTI Act 2005 includes the Enforcement Directorate, which operates under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 and is exempt from disclosing any information related to ongoing financial investigations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the Intelligence Bureau is explicitly listed in the Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005, exempting it from disclosure requirements except for allegations of corruption or human rights violations. Statement 2 is incorrect because while RAW is exempt under Section 24, it does not enjoy 'complete immunity' from judicial review, as the courts retain the power to examine the legality of its actions. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Enforcement Directorate is not listed in the Second Schedule of the RTI Act, and therefore, it is not exempt from the transparency provisions of the Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Conflict between RTI and Right to Privacy:
1. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act 2005 exempts disclosure of personal information which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual.
2. The RTI Act 2005 provides for the 'Public Interest Override' under Section 8(2), which allows the disclosure of information concerning the private life of a citizen if the Information Commissioner determines that the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission report of 2006 recommended the inclusion of a specific clause in the RTI Act to protect the privacy of corporate entities, which was subsequently incorporated into Section 8(1)(d) through the 2009 amendment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 8(1)(j) explicitly exempts personal information that lacks public interest or causes unwarranted privacy invasion. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 8(2) applies to information exempt under Section 8(1) (excluding 8(1)(j)) and the Official Secrets Act, not to personal information under 8(1)(j). Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 8(1)(d), which protects commercial confidence and trade secrets, was part of the original 2005 Act and not introduced by a 2009 amendment.
Consider the following statements regarding Third-party information disclosure protocols:
1. Section 11 of the RTI Act 2005 outlines the procedure for the disclosure of information that relates to or has been supplied by a third party and is treated as confidential by that party.
2. A third party is provided an opportunity to make a representation against the proposed disclosure within ten days from the date of receipt of the notice issued by the CPIO.
3. The Central Public Information Officer is granted a period of five days from the receipt of a request to provide a written notice to the third party regarding the intended disclosure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Section 11 of the RTI Act 2005 mandates that if a CPIO intends to disclose information provided by a third party and treated as confidential, they must issue a written notice to that third party within five days of receiving the request. The third party is then granted ten days from the receipt of this notice to submit a representation against the proposed disclosure. Since all three statements accurately reflect these statutory timelines and procedural requirements, they are entirely correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Relationship between RTI Act and Official Secrets Act:
1. The Official Secrets Act 1923 contains a specific sunset clause under Section 15 that provides for the automatic expiration of classified document status after a period of 30 years.
2. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its 2006 report recommended the repeal of the Official Secrets Act 1923 and its replacement by a National Security Act.
3. Section 22 of the RTI Act 2005 establishes that the provisions of the Act have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent contained in the Official Secrets Act 1923.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Official Secrets Act, 1923, does not contain a sunset clause for the automatic declassification of documents; instead, the RTI Act serves as the primary mechanism for accessing information. Statement 2 is correct as the 2nd ARC (2006) recommended replacing the colonial-era Act with a modern 'National Security Act' to promote transparency. Statement 3 is correct because Section 22 of the RTI Act grants it an 'overriding effect,' ensuring that its provisions prevail over any inconsistent provisions in the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
Consider the following statements regarding Exclusion of intelligence and security organizations under Second Schedule:
1. The Second Schedule of the RTI Act 2005 lists 26 intelligence and security organizations that are exempted from the general disclosure requirements of the Act.
2. The exemption granted to organizations under the Second Schedule does not apply to information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations.
3. Section 24(1) of the RTI Act 2005 permits the Central Government to amend the Second Schedule by notification in the Official Gazette to include or exclude any intelligence or security organization.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Second Schedule currently lists 26 intelligence and security organizations established by the Central Government that are exempted from the Act's purview. Statement 2 is correct because, under the proviso to Section 24(1), the exemption does not extend to information related to allegations of corruption or human rights violations, provided the latter is approved by the Information Commission. Statement 3 is correct as Section 24(1) empowers the Central Government to modify the Second Schedule through a notification in the Official Gazette to add or remove organizations based on evolving security requirements.
Consider the following statements regarding Role, appointment, and tenure of Information Commissioners:
1. State Information Commissioners are appointed by the Governor upon the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Chief Minister and including the Chief Justice of the respective High Court.
2. The salary and allowances of the Chief Information Commissioner are equivalent to those of the Chief Justice of India, and these terms are determined by the Supreme Court Rules of 2005.
3. The Information Commission functions as a constitutional body under Article 76 of the Constitution, and its members are eligible for reappointment for a second term of five years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the selection committee for State Information Commissioners is chaired by the Chief Minister and includes the Leader of the Opposition and a Cabinet Minister nominated by the CM, not the Chief Justice of the High Court. Statement 2 is incorrect as the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowers the Central Government to prescribe the salaries, allowances, and other terms of service of Information Commissioners, rather than being fixed by the Supreme Court Rules. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Information Commission is a statutory body established under the RTI Act, 2005, not a constitutional body under Article 76, and the 2019 Amendment Act removed the fixed five-year tenure, allowing the government to determine the term.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for assistance to information seekers under Section 5(3):
1. The RTI Act 2005 came into full force on 12 October 2005, and Section 5(3) allows the State Chief Information Commissioner to provide legal counsel to applicants who face difficulties in framing their queries.
2. The RTI Act 2005 received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005, and Section 5(3) designates the First Appellate Authority as the primary officer responsible for drafting applications for illiterate citizens.
3. Under the provisions of the RTI Act 2005, the Central Information Commission is empowered to appoint Assistant Public Information Officers at the sub-divisional level to assist applicants in filing appeals against rejected requests.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
The RTI Act 2005 received Presidential assent on 15 June 2005 and came into full force on 12 October 2005, but Section 5(3) actually mandates that the Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) must assist any person seeking information in writing their application, not the Information Commissioner or the First Appellate Authority. Statement 3 is incorrect because APIOs are appointed by the public authority at sub-district or sub-divisional levels to receive applications and appeals for forwarding to the PIO or the concerned appellate authority, rather than being appointed by the Central Information Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Maintenance, indexing, and computerization of records:
1. Section 4(1)(c) of the RTI Act 2005 provides for the publication of relevant facts concerning important policies or decisions which affect the public, and it limits the digitization of these records to a maximum of 500 pages per department.
2. The RTI Act 2005 specifies that records should be computerized within a reasonable time and connected through a network all over the country on different systems to ensure access is facilitated.
3. The 2005 RTI Act includes provisions for the establishment of a National Digital Repository, which serves as the primary storage facility for all records generated by Union Ministries since the enactment of the law.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct because Section 4(1)(a) of the RTI Act mandates that public authorities maintain all records duly cataloged and indexed, and ensure they are computerized and connected through a network within a reasonable time. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 4(1)(c) requires the publication of all relevant facts concerning important policies or decisions to the public, and the Act imposes no such arbitrary limit of 500 pages on digitization. Statement 3 is incorrect as the RTI Act 2005 contains no provision for the establishment of a 'National Digital Repository'; record-keeping remains the decentralized responsibility of individual public authorities.
Consider the following statements regarding Provisions for assistance to information seekers under Section 5(3):
1. The RTI Act 2005 defines a public authority under Section 2(h), and Section 5(3) grants the Assistant Public Information Officer the authority to waive the application fee for individuals belonging to the Below Poverty Line category.
2. According to the RTI Act 2005, the Public Information Officer is authorized to delegate the duty of assisting information seekers to non-governmental organizations registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
3. Section 5(3) of the RTI Act 2005 is linked to the obligation of the Public Information Officer to provide certified copies of documents in regional languages, even if the original records are maintained in English or Hindi.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 5(3) mandates the Assistant Public Information Officer (APIO) to receive applications and forward them to the PIO, but the waiver of fees for BPL applicants is a rule-based provision, not an authority granted to the APIO under this specific section. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act does not permit the delegation of statutory duties to NGOs; the PIO must personally assist the information seeker, including providing reasonable assistance to persons with sensory disabilities. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 5(3) pertains solely to the receipt and forwarding of applications, and the Act does not impose a mandatory obligation on the PIO to translate or provide certified copies in regional languages if the records are maintained in English or Hindi.
Consider the following statements regarding Third-party information disclosure protocols:
1. The RTI Act 2005 defines a third party as a person other than the citizen making a request for information and includes a public authority other than the public authority to whom the request is made.
2. Under Section 11(3), a third party has the right to file an appeal against an order made by the CPIO to disclose information within thirty days from the date of the order.
3. The CPIO is permitted to disclose third-party information if the public interest in disclosure outweighs in importance any possible harm or injury to the interests of such third party.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 2(n) of the RTI Act defines a third party as anyone other than the information seeker, explicitly including other public authorities. Statement 2 is correct because Section 11(4) provides a third party the right to appeal against a CPIO's disclosure decision to the first appellate authority within 30 days. Statement 3 is correct as Section 11(1) mandates that the CPIO can override third-party objections if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the potential harm to the third party.
Consider the following statements regarding Time-bound obligations of Public Information Officers (PIOs):
1. Where the information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, the Public Information Officer provides the information within 48 hours of the receipt of the request.
2. If the application is received through an Assistant Public Information Officer, the period of 30 days for providing information commences from the date of receipt by the Assistant Public Information Officer.
3. The Public Information Officer is expected to provide information within 30 days of the receipt of a request under Section 7(1) of the RTI Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as per Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, which mandates a 48-hour deadline for information concerning life or liberty. Statement 2 is correct because Section 5(2) stipulates that the 30-day period begins as soon as the application is received by the Assistant Public Information Officer, who acts as a forwarding agent. Statement 3 is correct as it reflects the standard statutory timeline prescribed under Section 7(1) for general information requests.
Consider the following statements regarding Penalty provisions and disciplinary action against non-compliant officials:
1. The appellate authority holds the power to levy a daily fine of 500 rupees on the Public Information Officer for delays in providing information, provided the applicant has filed a formal complaint within 30 days of the expiry of the deadline.
2. The RTI Act 2005 establishes a maximum penalty of 50,000 rupees for persistent non-compliance, and this limit is subject to periodic review by the Department of Personnel and Training every five years.
3. Section 18 of the RTI Act 2005 allows the Information Commission to initiate criminal prosecution against officials, and such proceedings are conducted under the jurisdiction of the local District Magistrate.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the power to impose a penalty of Rs 250 per day (up to a maximum of Rs 25,000) lies solely with the Information Commission, not the appellate authority. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Act specifies a maximum penalty of Rs 25,000, and there is no provision for periodic review by the DoPT. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 18 empowers the Information Commission to impose penalties, but it does not authorize the Commission to initiate criminal prosecution or grant jurisdiction to the District Magistrate.
Consider the following statements regarding Role of the Central Information Commission vs State Information Commissions:
1. The salary, allowances, and other conditions of service of the Chief Information Commissioner are equivalent to those of the Chief Election Commissioner under the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019.
2. State Information Commissions have the power to receive and inquire into complaints from any person who has been unable to obtain information from a State Public Information Officer.
3. The State Information Commission is headed by the State Chief Information Commissioner, who is appointed by the Governor based on the recommendations of a committee led by the Chief Justice of the respective High Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the 2019 Amendment Act empowers the Central Government to prescribe the salaries and service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner, aligning them with the Chief Election Commissioner. Statement 2 is correct because the RTI Act, 2005 mandates that both Central and State Information Commissions have the authority to receive and inquire into complaints from individuals denied information by their respective Public Information Officers. Statement 3 is incorrect because the State Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the Governor based on the recommendations of a committee chaired by the Chief Minister, not the Chief Justice of the High Court.
Consider the following statements regarding The 'Doctrine of Severability' in providing partial information:
1. Under the RTI Act 2005, when access to information is denied, the authority provides the name and designation of the person giving the decision to deny.
2. Section 10 of the RTI Act 2005 empowers the Public Information Officer to provide a part of the record after severing the exempt portions.
3. The Central Information Commission in the 2007 decision of 'R.K. Jain vs. Union of India' reinforced the application of the doctrine of severability regarding file notings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct under Section 7(8) of the RTI Act, which mandates that any refusal must include the reasons and the details of the officer responsible for the decision. Statement 2 is correct as Section 10 explicitly allows for 'severability,' permitting access to that part of a record which does not contain exempt information. Statement 3 is correct because the CIC, in the R.K. Jain case, clarified that file notings are not inherently exempt and that the doctrine of severability must be applied to disclose non-exempt portions of such files.
Consider the following statements regarding Exemptions under Section 8(1) and the public interest override:
1. Under Section 8(1)(d), trade secrets and intellectual property are protected from disclosure, provided the information was submitted to the government before the enactment of the 2005 legislation.
2. The Official Secrets Act of 1923 was repealed by the RTI Act 2005, and Section 8(2) now governs the classification of all sensitive government documents.
3. Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act 2005 allows the denial of information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as Section 8(1)(j) protects personal information that lacks a nexus to public activity, balancing privacy with transparency. Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 8(1)(d) protects trade secrets and intellectual property regardless of when they were submitted, provided disclosure would harm a third party's competitive position. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Official Secrets Act, 1923, remains in force, and Section 8(2) does not replace it but rather mandates that public interest in disclosure should outweigh the harm to protected interests.
Consider the following statements regarding The 'Doctrine of Severability' in providing partial information:
1. The 2013 amendment to the RTI Act regarding political parties does not alter the fundamental applicability of Section 10 to public authorities.
2. The 2005 RTI framework includes provisions for the partial disclosure of cabinet papers, and the doctrine of severability is applied to these records by the Cabinet Secretariat.
3. The Right to Information Rules 2012 specify a fee structure for the severance of documents, and the application of this doctrine is subject to a maximum limit of fifty pages per request.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because Section 10 of the RTI Act, which allows for the severance of exempt information, remains applicable to all public authorities regardless of the 2013 CIC ruling on political parties. Statement 2 is false because Section 8(1)(i) mandates that cabinet papers are exempt until a decision is made, and the doctrine of severability does not apply to these records while they are under consideration. Statement 3 is incorrect as the RTI Rules, 2012 do not prescribe any page-limit cap or specific fee structure for the severance of documents, as the Act itself mandates that information must be provided in a severed form without additional costs beyond the prescribed application fee.
Consider the following statements regarding Relationship between RTI Act and Official Secrets Act:
1. The Official Secrets Act 1923 was originally enacted during the British colonial administration and was modeled after the British Official Secrets Act 1911.
2. The Supreme Court in the 2011 judgment of Namit Sharma vs Union of India observed that the RTI Act 2005 is a law which brings transparency and accountability to the governance process.
3. Section 8(1)(a) of the RTI Act 2005 exempts information which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, or relation with foreign State.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is correct.
Statement 1 is correct as the Official Secrets Act, 1923, was indeed a colonial-era legislation modeled after the British Act of 1911 to maintain state secrecy. Statement 2 is correct because the Supreme Court in Namit Sharma vs Union of India (2011) underscored that the RTI Act is a transformative tool designed to ensure transparency and accountability in governance. Statement 3 is correct as Section 8(1)(a) of the RTI Act explicitly provides a statutory exemption for information that could compromise national security, sovereignty, or strategic interests, thereby balancing the right to information with the requirements of the Official Secrets Act.
Consider the following statements regarding Suo motu disclosure obligations under Section 4:
1. The 2012 Amendment to the RTI Act introduced a specific penalty clause for public authorities failing to update their suo motu disclosure portals within a 30-day window.
2. The 2005 RTI Act includes provisions for the establishment of a National Transparency Council to oversee the implementation of Section 4 disclosures across all state departments.
3. Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act 2005 enumerates 17 categories of information that public authorities are expected to publish proactively.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct because Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, 2005, mandates public authorities to maintain and proactively publish 17 specific categories of information to ensure transparency. Statement 1 is incorrect as there has been no 2012 amendment to the RTI Act introducing such a penalty, and Section 4 compliance is monitored by Information Commissions rather than a specific 30-day portal penalty clause. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005, does not provide for the establishment of a 'National Transparency Council'; the oversight of the Act is vested in the Central and State Information Commissions.
Consider the following statements regarding Exemptions under Section 8(1) and the public interest override:
1. The proviso to Section 8(1) states that information which cannot be denied to the Parliament or a State Legislature shall be denied to any person under the RTI framework.
2. Section 8(3) of the RTI Act 2005 provides that any information relating to an occurrence, event, or matter which has taken place or occurred 15 years before the date on which any request is made shall be provided to any person.
3. The Central Information Commission, established under Section 12 of the RTI Act 2005, holds the authority to override Section 8(1) exemptions if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to protected interests.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the proviso to Section 8(2) empowers the Information Commission to allow access to information if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to protected interests. Statement 1 is incorrect because the proviso to Section 8(1) explicitly states that information which cannot be denied to Parliament or a State Legislature shall not be denied to any person. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 8(3) specifies a 20-year period, not 15 years, after which most exemptions cease to apply, provided the information does not fall under specific categories like sovereignty, integrity, or cabinet papers.
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional basis and judicial interpretation of Article 19(1)(a):
1. The Supreme Court in the 1982 S.P. Gupta v. Union of India case declared that the right to information is a natural right, and the 2005 Act serves as the first constitutional amendment to protect this freedom.
2. The 2019 Amendment to the RTI Act modified the tenure of Information Commissioners to three years, aligning their service conditions with the Election Commission of India under Article 324.
3. Section 4 of the RTI Act provides for the suo motu disclosure of information by public authorities, and this provision was modeled after the 1966 Freedom of Information Act of the United Kingdom.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the RTI Act is a statutory law, not a constitutional amendment, and while S.P. Gupta (1981) recognized RTI as part of Article 19(1)(a), it is a derivative right, not a natural right. Statement 2 is incorrect as the 2019 Amendment empowered the Central Government to prescribe terms of service, effectively reducing the independence of Information Commissioners rather than aligning them with the Election Commission. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 4 of the RTI Act is based on the principle of proactive disclosure, but it was not modeled after the 1966 UK Freedom of Information Act, which did not exist in that form at the time.
Consider the following statements regarding Relationship between RTI Act and Official Secrets Act:
1. The Central Information Commission in the 2009 decision regarding the Ministry of Defence clarified that the Official Secrets Act 1923 cannot be invoked to deny information that is otherwise accessible under the RTI Act.
2. Under Section 8(2) of the RTI Act 2005, a public authority may allow access to information covered under the Official Secrets Act 1923 if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to protected interests.
3. The RTI Act 2005 includes a provision in Section 24 that allows the Ministry of Home Affairs to transfer all records classified under the Official Secrets Act 1923 to the National Archives for public review after 20 years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as the CIC has consistently ruled that the RTI Act, being a later special legislation, overrides the Official Secrets Act (OSA) when public interest is involved. Statement 2 is correct because Section 8(2) of the RTI Act explicitly mandates that a public authority may allow access to information exempted under the OSA if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the protected interests. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 24 of the RTI Act deals with the exemption of intelligence and security organizations from the Act's purview, and there is no provision in the RTI Act that mandates the automatic transfer of OSA-classified records to the National Archives after 20 years.
Consider the following statements regarding Information commissions' power to impose fines and award compensation:
1. Section 18 of the RTI Act 2005 allows the Information Commission to initiate criminal proceedings against a Public Information Officer, and such orders are reviewable by the High Court under Article 226.
2. The RTI Act 2005 provides for a penalty of Rs 500 per day under Section 20(2) for persistent non-compliance, and this fine is credited to the Consolidated Fund of the State.
3. The Information Commission holds the power to impose a maximum penalty of Rs 50,000 for delayed responses, and this provision was introduced through the 2019 amendment to the RTI Act.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 18 deals with complaints, not criminal proceedings, and the Commission lacks the power to initiate such actions. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 20(1) prescribes a penalty of Rs 250 per day (up to a maximum of Rs 25,000), and the Act does not mandate crediting these fines to the Consolidated Fund. Statement 3 is incorrect because the maximum penalty remains Rs 25,000 as per the original 2005 Act, and the 2019 Amendment did not alter these penalty limits.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital transformation and RTI: E-filing and online portals:
1. Under the Digital India initiative, the RTI portal provides for the direct transfer of application fees to the accounts of State Public Information Officers in all 28 states of the Union.
2. The RTI Act includes provisions for the electronic submission of requests, and the 2005 Rules specify that the digital signature of the applicant is a prerequisite for the registration of an online request.
3. The RTI Online portal, launched by the Department of Personnel and Training in 2013, facilitates the electronic filing of requests and first appeals for various Central Public Authorities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct as the RTI Online portal was launched by the DoPT in 2013 to streamline the filing of requests and first appeals for Central Public Authorities. Statement 1 is incorrect because the central RTI portal does not facilitate direct fee transfers to State Public Information Officers, as states maintain their own independent RTI portals or offline mechanisms. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RTI Act, 2005, and its associated rules do not mandate digital signatures for online requests, allowing applicants to file without such requirements.
Consider the following statements regarding Scope of 'Public Authority' under Section 2(h):
1. The Supreme Court in the Thalappalam Service Cooperative Bank Ltd. vs State of Kerala (2013) judgment clarified that non-governmental organizations are public authorities only if they are substantially financed by the appropriate government.
2. The Central Information Commission operates as a public authority under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, a status granted by the 2019 Amendment Act which modified the tenure and salary conditions of information commissioners.
3. State Information Commissions are categorized as public authorities under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, functioning as autonomous bodies established under the 2005 legislation to oversee the implementation of transparency protocols.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct because the Supreme Court in Thalappalam (2013) ruled that private bodies, including NGOs, qualify as 'public authorities' under Section 2(h) only if they are substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by the government. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CIC is a statutory body established under the RTI Act itself, and the 2019 Amendment Act merely altered service conditions rather than granting it 'public authority' status, which it held since its inception. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while State Information Commissions are statutory bodies, they are the appellate authorities tasked with enforcing the Act, not 'public authorities' as defined under Section 2(h) which refers to the bodies required to provide information.
Consider the following statements regarding Scope of 'Public Authority' under Section 2(h):
1. Section 2(h) of the RTI Act 2005 includes within the definition of public authority any body or institution established or constituted by a notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government.
2. The definition of public authority in Section 2(h) covers bodies owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the government, a framework that was adopted from the 1923 Official Secrets Act to ensure administrative transparency.
3. The RTI Act 2005 defines public authorities under Section 2(h), which encompasses the Election Commission of India and the Comptroller and Auditor General, both of which derive their investigative powers from the 1950 Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 2(h) explicitly includes bodies established or constituted by government notifications or orders. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RTI Act's framework is a post-independence legislative advancement for transparency, whereas the 1923 Official Secrets Act was a colonial-era law designed to maintain secrecy. Statement 3 is incorrect because, while the Election Commission and CAG are public authorities, they derive their constitutional status and powers directly from the Constitution of India (Articles 324 and 148 respectively), not from the RTI Act itself.